Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Term 5 > Pharm: ABX > Flashcards

Pharm: ABX Flashcards

1
Q

Be careful about giving PCN to patients with this disorder…

A

Epilepsy / neurotoxic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

4 methods of PCN resistance

A 
B-lactamase
PBP modification (MRSA)
Increased efflux (P-glycoprotein)
Decrease penetration (porins)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

DOC: Syphillis

A

PCN G Benzathine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

DOC: prevention rheumatic fever

A

PCN G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

PO PCN vs. IV PCN

A

PCN G: IV

PCN V: PO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which anti-staph PCN is a good choice for patients in renal failure? Why?

A

Nafcillin (excreted in the bile)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

First-line treatment of staph endocarditis in patients without artifical heart valves.

A

Anti-Staph PCN (MNDO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

AE: Methicillin

A

IS nephritis (not used clinically)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

AE: Nafcillin

A

Neutropenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

AE: Oxacillin

A

Hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Mechanism of MRSA resistance

A

Altered PBP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which PCN can/should be taken on a full stomach?

A

Amoxicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which extended spectrum PCN is associated with C. diff?

A

Ampicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What hypersensitivity-type reaction is caused by the extended spectrum PCN’s? What is the actual reason?

A

Maculopapular rash

* ABX therapy given for a viral infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which PCN are resistant to beta-lactamase?

A

Anti-staph PCN (MNDO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

DOC: Empiric treatment of infectious endocarditis

A

PCN (Vanco) + AG (gentamicin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which are the anti-pseudomonal PCN’s? Which one is excreted in the bile?

A

Peperacillin*
Ticarcillin
Carbenicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which extended spectrum PCN is excreted in the bile?

A

Ampicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

DOC: endocarditis prophylaxis in dental procedures

A

Amoxicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

AE: ticarcillin

A

Hemeatologic toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which PCN is used for the treatment of febrile neutropenia?

A

Anti-pseudomonals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which beta-lactams are used solely for the treatment of gram negative aerobic infections?

A

Monobactam (Aztreonam)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the AE’s of aztreonam?

A

Skin rash, elevated transaminase, vertigo, GI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the 3 beta-lactamase inhibitors?

A

Sulbactam (Ampicillin) = Unasyn
Clavulinic acid (Amoxicillin) = Augmentin
Tazobactam (Piperacillin) = Zosyn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

DOC: Pseudomonas in CF patient (Think: inhalation)

A

Aztreonam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Are carbapenems active against MRSA?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which carbapenem must be administered with cilistatin? Why?

A

Imipenem: metabolized to a nephrotoxic metabolite by a dihyrdroxy-peptidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

AE: imipenem

A

Seizures, GI, allergy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

MOA: Vancomycin. Mode of Resistance?

A

D-ala – D-ala; prevent cell wall synthesis

R: D-ala – D-lac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

AE: Vancomycin

A

Fever/Chills/Phlebitis
Red man syndrome
Ototoxicity
Nephrotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Treatment of C. diff

A
  1. Metronidazole
  2. PO Vanco
  3. Fidaxomicin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Spectrum of usage for Vancomycin: G+ and/or G-

A

Gram-positive only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

PO CS

A

Cephalexin (1)
Cefaclor (2)
Cefixime (3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Non-renally excreted CS

A

Ceftriaxone (3)

Cefoperazone (3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

First generation CS

A

Cefazolin (surgical prophylaxis)

Cephalexin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Are first generation cephaolosporins resistant to staph penicillinase?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which CS is a good PCN G substitute?

A

1st generation CS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which CS are similar to Ampicillin/Amoxicillin

A

2nd generation CS: Cefaclor, cefoxitin, cefotetan, cefamandole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

CS are inactive against:

A

Listeria, Atypicals [Chlymadia, Mycoplasma, Acentobacter], MRSA (except ceftaroline), Enterococci

40
Q

Which CS for uncomplicated sinusitis, otitis, LRT infections

A

2nd generation CS: Cefaclor, cefoxitin, cefotetan, cefamandole

41
Q

CS for CNS/joint Lyme disease

A

Ceftriaxone

42
Q

CS for meningitis &/or meningitis prophylaxis

A

Ceftriaxone

43
Q

Drugs for meningitis prophylaxis in exposed individuals (3)

A

Ceftriaxone, Cipro, Rifampin

44
Q

DOC: gonorrhea

A

Ceftriaxone

45
Q

DOC: chlamydia

A

Doxycycline

46
Q

CS febrile neutropenia

A

Cefepime

47
Q

Why should you not give ceftriaxone in pregnancy?

A

Can displace bilirubin from albumin and cause kernicterus

48
Q

Usage of ceftaroline

A

3rd generation + MRSA

49
Q

Usage of cefepime

A

3rd generation + 1st generation g+

UTI, febrile neutropenia, intra-abdominal infections

50
Q

AE: Daptomycin.

What drug should be D/C’ed?

A

Increase CPK (d/c statin)

51
Q

Why can’t bacitracin be used systemically?

A

Neprotoxicity

52
Q

MOA Daptomycin

A

Binds to membrane via Ca-dependent insertion of lipid tail; results in depolarization of cell membrane with K efflux and cell death

53
Q

How is fosfomycin excreted?

A

Bile

54
Q

DOC: Chlamydia

A

Tetracycline

55
Q

DOC: Lyme

A

Tetracycline

56
Q

DOC: Anthrax

A

Tetracycline

57
Q

DOC: RMSF

A

Tetracycline

58
Q

DOC: H. pylori

A

Tetracycline

59
Q

DOC: Malaria

A

Tetracycline

60
Q

DOC: Plague

A

Tetracycline

61
Q

DOC: Tularemia/Brucella

A

Tetracycline

62
Q

DOC: Syphillis with a PCN allergy

A

Tetracycline

63
Q

DOC: severe acne, rosacea

A

Tetracycline

64
Q

DOC: empiric outpatient CAP

A

Doxycycline

65
Q

AE: tetracyclines

A

Discolored teeth (studnted growth), photosensitivity, GI, liver, renal, dizziness, vertigo, TERATOGENIC

66
Q

How is doxycycline excreted?

A

Bile

67
Q

DOC: eradication of meningococcal carrier state

A

Minocycline

68
Q

Use: Mupirocin

A

Apply topically/intranasal to eradicate MRSA

69
Q

Use: Fidaxomycin

A

C. diff treatment

70
Q

Drugs used for anaerobic infections above and below the diaphragm.

A

Above: Clindamycin
Below: Metronidazole

71
Q

Use: Streptogramins

A

Gram positive cocci (drug resistant)

* Quinupristin, dalfopristin

72
Q

2 antibiotic classes with long post-antibiotic effects

A
  1. Aminoglycosides

2. Streptogramins

73
Q

2 major side effects of chloramphenicol

A
  1. Bone marrow toxicity (AA)

2. Gray baby syndrome (cyanosis)

74
Q

DOC: empiric treatment of meningitis

A
  1. Vancomycin

2. Ceftriaxone

75
Q

DOC: meningitis prophylaxis in exposed individuals

A
  1. Ceftriaxone
  2. Cipro
  3. Rifampin
76
Q

DOC: enterococcal endocarditis

A
  1. Vancomycin

2. Aminoglycoside

77
Q

These cations (Mg, Ca, Fe) bind to this drug and prevent its absorption.

A

Tetracycline

78
Q

Which drug has a black box warning: drug increases mortality?

A

Tigecycline

79
Q

DOC: empiric treatment of septicemia, nosocomial RTI, complicated UTI, endocarditis

A

Aminoglycoside

80
Q

DOC: Yersinia pestis

A

Streptomycin

81
Q

Which antibiotic can be used to treat hepatic encepalopathy?

A

Neomycin (and lactulose - creates acidic environment to trap ammonia)

82
Q

AE: aminoglycosides

A

Ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity, pregnancy, NO MYASTHENIA GRAVIS

83
Q

DOC: empiric treatment M. pneumonia

A

Macrolides

84
Q

Prophylaxis of endocarditis in a patient with a severe PCN allergy

A

Clindamycin

85
Q

T/F Macrolides lead to QT prolongation

A

True

86
Q

Spectrum of activity streptogramins

A

Gram positive cocci only

87
Q

Major AE’s Linezolid

A

Weak inhibitor of MAO
Myelsupression
Optic and peripheral neuropathy

88
Q

DOC: UC UTI, PCP, Nocardi, Toxo

A

Cotrimoxazole

89
Q

DOC: Outpatient CAP

A

Doxycycline + ML

Alternative: RFQ or B-lactam + ML

90
Q

DOC: PCN resistant S. pna

A

Ceftriaxone, FQ

Alternative: Vancomycin, Linezolid, SG

91
Q

DOC: PCN sensitive S. pna

A

PCN, Amoxicillin

Alternative: CS, Clindamycin, FQ, ML, Bactrim

92
Q

DOC: non-beta lactamase producing H. flu

A

Amoxicillin

93
Q

DOC: beta lactamase producing H. flu

A

CS, Augmentin

94
Q

DOC: M. pna/C. pna

A

Tetracycline or ML

Alt: RFQ

95
Q

DOC: Legionella

A

FQ, ML

Allternative: Doxy, Bactrim

Term 5 (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions