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Tuft pharm > Pharm > Flashcards

Pharm Flashcards

1
Q

What abx causes methemoglobinemia?

A

Prilocaine

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2
Q

What drugs can be used to tx HTN? Give examples

A

Diuretics such as high ceiling or loop acting: Furosemide
Beta blockers: Propanolol
Cardio selective beta blockers: Metoprolol atenolol
Alpha-1 blockers: prazosin
Centrally acting adrenergic: Methyldopa, clonidine
Neuronal blockers: Guanethidine (for severe HTN)
ACE inhibitors: Lisinopril captopril

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3
Q

Drugs to treat angina?

A

Nitroglycerin

Ca2+ channel blockers: verapamil propanolol

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4
Q

What treats ventricular arrhythmias?

A

Lidocaine

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5
Q

What treats supraventricular tachyarrhythmias and a-fib?

A

Quinidine
digitalis
Verapamil

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6
Q

What treats a-fib?

A

Verapamil, digitalis, quinidine

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7
Q

What treats congestive heart failure?

A

Glycosides such as digitalis and digoxin

ACE inhibitors such as captopril

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8
Q

How does nitroglycerin work?

A

Increase O2 supply to heart by a direct vasodilatory action on smooth muscle to the coronary arteries

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9
Q

How do Ca2+ channel blockers work?

A

Decrease O2 demand by reducing afterload by reducing peripheral resistance via vasodilation

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10
Q

For antihypertensive drugs, most have the ultimate effect of__?

A

Reducing peripheral resistance via vasodilation

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11
Q

How do diuretics work?

A

Decrease renal absorption of sodium=fluid loss and reduction of blood volume. This decreases the work the heart has to pump.

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12
Q

Examples of diuretics

A

Thiazides: Chlorothiazide
High-ceiling or loop acting: furosemide
Potassium sparing: spironolactone

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13
Q

Aspirin mechanism of action

A

Analgesic effect: Inhibits synthesis of prostaglandins
Antipyretic effect: Inhibits prostaglandin synth in hypothalamic temp regulation center
Bleeding time: Inhibits synthesis of thromboxane A2 preventing platelet synthesis

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14
Q

Therapeutic effects of aspirin?

A

Pain relief, anti-inflammatory, antipyretic, antiheumatic

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15
Q

Adverse/toxic effects of aspirin?

A

GI bleeding

tinnitus,nausea, vomiting, metabolic acidosis and more

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16
Q

How is acetaminophen different from aspirin?

A

Acetaminophen lacks anti-inflammatory activity, is hepatotoxic, and does not cause GI upset

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17
Q

Acetaminophen causes ___ toxicity, especially when combined with ___ in __grams/day

A

liver toxicity
alcohol
4grams/day

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18
Q

What drug should be avoided in a feverish child? What can it cause?

A

Aspirin

Reye’s syndrome

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19
Q

What is the drug of choice for a feverish child?

A

acetaminophen

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20
Q

What are the effects of morphine?

A

respiratory depression, euphoria, sedation, dysphoria, analgesia, and constipation and urinary retention

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21
Q

Signs of morphine overdose?

A

Miosis (pupil constriction/pin point pupils), coma, respiratory depression. Miosis is the most distinct.

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22
Q

Opioid overdose antidote?

A

Naloxone (narcan)

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23
Q

Examples of cholinergic drugs that are sometimes used to control salivary secretions?

A

Atropine

Scopolamine

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24
Q

Atropine and Scopolamine are what type of receptor blockers?

A

Competitive muscarinic receptor blockers

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25
Q

Atropine also blocks ____ resulting in ____

A

Vagal reflexive control of heart rate

tachycardia

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26
Q

What can be used to treat xerostomia?

A

Pilocarpine, methacholine, neostigmine etc

these are direct acting cholinergic agonists

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27
Q

Anticholinergic agents ___ salivation

A

reduce

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28
Q

Cholinergic agents __ salivation

A

increase

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29
Q

In the presence of an alpha blocker, epinephrine causes __.

A

decrease in BP

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30
Q

Beta BLOCKER causes __

A 
decreased HR (B1)
Bronchoconstriction (B2)
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31
Q

Drug to tx parkinsons?

A

Levadopa (type of dopamine that crosses the bbb easily)

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32
Q

Alpha and beta blockers are types of ___ drugs

A

adrenergic

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33
Q

What drug competitively blocks the action of norepinephrine at beta-adrenergic receptors?

A

Propanolol

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34
Q

Albuterol is what type of drug?

A

Beta-2 agonist

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35
Q

What drug best reverses the effects of benzos?

A

Flumazenil

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36
Q

Drug of choice for status epilepticus

A

diazepam (valium)

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37
Q

White area that disappears when pulling or stretching the mucosa

A

Leukodema

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38
Q

Epstein-barr virus can cause

A

oral hairy leukoplakia

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39
Q

__is seen in immunocompromised (commonly HIV) patients

A

oral hair leukoplakia

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40
Q

Wickham’s striae: interlacing white lines in what oral pathology?

A

Lichen planus (reticular pattern)

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41
Q

____ and lidocaine are contraindicated because it can keep lido in the blood longer and cause toxicity

A

propanolol

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42
Q

What abx can cause GI upset and pseudomonas colitis?

A

clindamycin

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43
Q

What abx is associated with aplastic anemia?

A

Chloramphenicol

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44
Q

What abx is associated with liver damage or hepatotoxicity?

A

tetracycline

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45
Q

___ and ___ abx’s cancel each other out due to opposing mechanisms of action

A

penicillin and tetracycline

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46
Q

Why is erythromycin responsible for numerous drug interactions that can be fatal?

A

Decreases cytochrome P-450 metabolism of other drugs

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47
Q

contractions of lateral pterygoid moves articular disk in which direction?

A

anterior and medially

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48
Q

What signs indicate severe CNS oxygen deprivation?

A

Dilated (medriasis) pupils with absence of light reflex

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49
Q

What drug is used to correct a condition of atropine poisoning evidence by rapid heart rate, dry mouth and GI inactivity?

A

Physostigmine

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50
Q

Tender swelling in the soft tissue of the submandibular triangle is most likely caused by__.

A

Lymphadenopathy

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51
Q

What is least helpful in determining the anatomical integrity of the tmj?

A

Pano films

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52
Q

Chronic osteomyelitis has ___ appearance

A

moth eaten

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53
Q

Therapeutic index indicates___

A

safetey

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54
Q

Optimal flap design for palatal tori removal?

A

“double-Y”

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55
Q

Which abx has been implicated in the vast majority of cases of oral contraceptive failure during abx use?

A

Rifampin

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56
Q

Most serious result of digoxin intoxication?

A

ventricular fibrillation

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57
Q

Definition of transparency

A

The depth of light penetration into the tooth

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58
Q

Definition of value

A

Lightness/darkness of color

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59
Q

Definition of chroma

A

Saturation

60
Q

Definition of Hue

A

The color

61
Q

Definition of metamerism

A

Phenomenon where various light sources produce different perceptions of color

62
Q

Main function of the liner used in a casting ring is to__.

A

allow uniform and uninhibited setting expansion of the investment

63
Q

Shrinkage porosity in gold casting is associated with ___

A

Sprue diameter

64
Q

Back pressure porosity is often evidenced by ___

A

Rounded margins on the casting

65
Q

Most likely cause of failure in the pre-ceramic soldering technique is ___

A

overheating the parts to be joined

66
Q

Casting shrinkage of cobalt-chromium allow is approximately what percent?

A

2.2%

67
Q

Base incision of gingivectomy technique is located ___ the mucogingival junction

A

above

68
Q

Heparin’s anticoagulant effect interferes with conversion of __ to ___

A

fibrinogen to fibrin

69
Q

What is high compressive strength but low tensile strength?

A

brittle

70
Q

What is recoil or spring back into shape after bending, stretching, or being compressed?

A

Resilient

71
Q

able to be deformed without losing toughness. Able to be drawn out into a thin wire

A

ductile

72
Q

able to be hammered or pressed permanently out of shape without breaking or cracking.

A

Malleable

73
Q

How many hours a day should a cervical pull headgear be worn to achieve effective results?

A

14 hrs

74
Q

Ions involved with opioid receptors?

A

sodium

75
Q

Prolonged use of amyl nitrite may result in __.

A

Methemoglobinemia

76
Q

DMFS stands for what?

A

Decayed, Missing, Filled, Surfaces

77
Q

Excessive vertical dimension of occlusion may result in ___

A

trauma to underlying supporting tissues

78
Q

Replace aging/leaking amalgam filling with gold to ___

A

Achieve more ideal contours

79
Q

Decrease in source film distance = increase in ___

A

radiographic density

80
Q

Fibrous dysplasia radiographic appearance

A

ground glass appearance

81
Q

What is often associated with osteogenesis imperfecta that includes symptoms of blue sclera and multiple bone fractures

A

dentinogenesis imperfecta

82
Q

Condensing osteitis is with a vital or non-vital tooth?

A

non-vital. Tooth HAS to be dead.

83
Q

Pemphigus has positive ____

A

nikolsky sign

84
Q

Pink tooth associated with __ resorption

A

internal tooth resorption

85
Q

Multiple myeloma associated with what lab finding?

A

Bence jones proteinuria

86
Q

__ , ___, and ___ all have soap bubble appearance on radiograph

A

ameloblastoma, giant cell granuloma, odontogenic myxoma

87
Q

Most radiosensitive tissue is?

A

Hematopoetic

88
Q

Which functional appliance is the only tissue born appliance?

A

Frankel

89
Q

Function of frankel ortho appliance?

A
  • Expands arch by “padding” against the pressure of the lips and cheeks on the teeth
  • Postures the mand downward and forward
90
Q

Function of Activator ortho appliance?

A
  • Corrects class II malocclusion

- Moves mandible to and edge-to-edge position to induce mand.

91
Q

Function of Bionater ortho appliance?

A 
Corrects class II malocclusion
Similar to activator but more comfortable
92
Q

Function of herbst appliance?

A
  • Corrects class II malocclusion
  • Can be fixed or partially removable
  • Induces mand growth by positioning mand forward
93
Q

Function of twin block appliance ortho appliance?

A

-Corrects class II malocclusion

94
Q

Function of quad-helix ortho appliance?

A

Corrects posterior cross-bite in cases with a digit-sucking habit

95
Q

What is considered a functional appliance?

A

Ones that change the posture of the mandible. Used to treat class II malocclusion.

96
Q

Headgear is used to modify what?

A

Maxilla

97
Q

What can be used to correct a single tooth crossbite?

A

Cross elastics

98
Q

Class I elastics are used for what?

A

INTRAmaxillary

Used for traction bw teeth and groups of teeth within the SAME arch

99
Q

Class II elastics are used for what?

A

INTERmaxillary

Worn from max ant tooth to mand post tooth

100
Q

Class III elastics are used for what?

A

INTERmaxillary

Worn from max post tooth to mand ant tooth

101
Q

Cervical pull headgear indication?

A

Class II malocclusion with deep bite

102
Q

High pull headgear indication?

A

Class II malocclusion with increased vertical dimension and minimal overbite

103
Q

Straight pull headgear indication?

A

Class II division I malocclusion

104
Q

Reverse pull headgear indication?

A

Class III malocclusion (when you want to protract the maxilla)

105
Q

Chin cup headgear indication?

A

Class III malocclusion (due to excessive mand growth)

106
Q

SNA greater than __ degrees is max prognathic. Less than this is retrognathic

A

82

107
Q

SNB greater than __ degrees is mand prognathic. Less than this is retrognathic

A

80

108
Q

Class I skeletal profile ANB angle = __degrees

A

2

109
Q

Class II skeletal profile has an ANB angle greater than __ degrees

A

4

110
Q

Class III skeletal profile has an ANB angle less than __ degrees.

A

0

111
Q

Lisinopril is what type of antihypertensive?

A

ACE inhibitor

112
Q

Lethal dose of fluoride?

A

20-50 mg/kg

113
Q

What is microfilled composite?

A

flowable

114
Q

Drug that treats HIV patients?

A

Zidovudine (Retrovir)

115
Q

Abx that are bacteriostatic?

A

tetracycline, clindamycin, erythromycin,azithromycin

116
Q

Abx that are bacteriocidal?

A

Penicillin, cephalosporins, vancomycin, metronidazole

117
Q

Most common salivary gland tumor?

A

Pleomorphic adenoma (also is the most common benign salivary gland tumor)

118
Q

Most common malignant salivary gland tumor?

A

Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

119
Q

Most common location of salivary gland tumors?

A

parotid gland

120
Q

Canalicular adenoma is most commonly where?

A

upper lip

121
Q

Is epi contraindicated for pts with multiple sclerosis?

A

yes

122
Q

What characterizes replacement resorption?

A

ankylosis

123
Q

Apical foramen most often exits the root how many mm from the anatomic apex?

A

.5-1mm

124
Q

What is the only joint that exerts posterior traction on the articular disc?

A

superior retrodiscal lamina

125
Q

What should you include in tx for localized juvenile periodontitis?

A

systemic abx therapy (tetracycline most likely)

126
Q

What muscles are influential in molding the lingual border of the final mandibular impression for a complete denture?

A

Palatoglossus, superior pharyngeal, mylohyoid, genioglossus

127
Q

What drug is given orally to treat vaginal candidiasis?

A

fluconazole (diflucan)

128
Q

Which penicillin cant be given orally?

A

methicillin

129
Q

Drug that treats trigeminal neuralgia?

A

carbamezipine

130
Q

What group of drugs is contraindicated in pts with glaucoma?

A

anticholinergic

131
Q

What is MTA used for?

A

Repair tooth structure if perforated like during RCT

132
Q

Purpose of sodium hypochlorite?

A

dissolves necrotic (ORGANIC) tissue

133
Q

EDTA function?

A

Chelator that removes smear layer and INORGANIC material. Can be placed on a calcified canal to soften it.

134
Q

Ankylosed tooth is associated with ___resorption.

A

replacement

135
Q

Port wine stain?

A

Sturger Weber

136
Q

toxic dose of fluoride?

A

5-10mg/kg

137
Q

Rapid palatal expander used for?

A

unilateral crossbite

138
Q

Prevalence

A

Proportion of a given population that is affected by a condition at any given point in time. PERCENTAGE

139
Q

Incidence

A

Number of new cases that will occur within a population over a period of time. (# of new cases of the disease)/(total number of people at risk)

140
Q

Cross-sectional study

A

a study in which the health conditions of a group of people who are assumed to be a sample of the population AT ONE POINT IN TIME

141
Q

Case control study

A

People with a condition are compared to people with out it

142
Q

Prospective cohort study

A

a general population is followed through time to see who develops the disease

143
Q

Retrospective cohort study

A

To evaluate the effect that a specific exposure has had on a population

144
Q

zyrtec causes..

A

excess salivation

145
Q

Smoker red dots on SOFT palate?

A

Erythroplakia

146
Q

Smoker red dots on HARD palate?

A

nicotinic stomatitis

147
Q

Capitation pays for ___

A

HMO

Tuft pharm (1 decks)

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