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Block Exams > PHARM > Flashcards

PHARM Flashcards

1
Q

Tacrolimus & pimecrolimus Uses

A

mild to mod atopic dermatitis

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2
Q

Tacrolimus & Pimecrolimus age limit

A

> 2yo

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3
Q

Isotretinoin uses

A

severe Acne

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4
Q

Isotretinoin SEs

A

NO pregnancy

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5
Q

Parenteral IV bioavailability

A

100%

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6
Q

Parenteral IV: effect time

A

30-60 secs

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7
Q

Parenteral IM: effect time

A

10-20 mins

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8
Q

Parenteral methods of admin

A
  • intravenous
  • intramuscular
  • subcutaneous
  • intra-arterial
  • intra-articular
  • intradermal
  • interosseous
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9
Q

Acyclovir Uses

A
  • HSV infxs
  • varicella
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10
Q

Clindamycin Uses:

A

mild - mod acne

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11
Q

Clindamycin SEs

A

blood diarrhea & pseudomembranous colitis

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12
Q

Lindane Uses

A

scabies

after first line methods have failed

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13
Q

Lindane Pearls

A
  • uses gloves & wash hands
    -not generally used
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14
Q

Lindane SEs

A

seizures & death
(neurotoxicity)

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15
Q

Fluorouracil Topical Uses

A
  • AK
  • BCC
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16
Q

Fluorouracil Topical SEs

A

NO pregnancy or breastfeeding

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17
Q

Bacitracin Uses

A

colonization by staph
(in anterior nares)

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18
Q

Bacitracin SEs

A
  • no large areas
  • no serious infxs
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19
Q

First line uses for Acne

A

Keratolytics
- benzoyl Peroxide & salicylic acid

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20
Q

Amphotericin-B Uses

A

Life threat fungal infx
- aspergillosis
- systemic candida
- coccidiodomycosis
- histoplasmosis
- Cryptococcus

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21
Q

Amphotericin-B pearls

A
  • hypotension
  • Tachypnea
  • hypokalemia
  • (rigors, HA, N/V/D)
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22
Q

Fluconazole Uses

A
  • candida
  • cryptococcal meningitis
  • onychomycosis (off-label)
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23
Q

Fluconazole SEs

A

single dose if pregnancy

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24
Q

Doxycycline Uses

A
  • RMSF
  • Mycoplasma pneumo
  • Rosacea
  • C. pneumo
  • STDs
  • Resp Infx
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25
Q

Metronidazole Uses

A
  • bacterial vaginosis
  • trich vaginalis
  • giardiasis
  • H. pylori
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26
Q

Metronidazole Pearls

A

NO alcohol during & 14 days after

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27
Q

Mebendazole Uses

A

Intestinal nematode infx
- pin, whip, round, & hookworm

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28
Q

Mebendazole MOA

A

starves the worms but inhibiting glucose uptake

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29
Q

Augmentin: Uses

A
  • Animal bites
  • Dental infx (second line)
  • Pneumo
  • OM, acute
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30
Q

Augmentin SEs/safety

A

careful w/ pts on methotrexate & Vit K antagonist–> enhance anticoagulant effect

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31
Q

Isoniazid Uses

A

Latent & active TB

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32
Q

Isoniazid Pearls/Caution

A

history of alcohol abuse
hepatotoxicity

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33
Q

Levofloxacin Uses

A

-Legionella
-Prostatitis
- CAP/VAP

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34
Q

Levofloxacin BB warning for…

A

disabling, potentially irreversible rxns

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35
Q

Levofloxacin pregnancy risk

A

risk of spontaneous abortion

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36
Q

Chloramphenicol Uses

A
  • RMSF (NOT first line)
  • bad bacterial infxs
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37
Q

Chloramphenicol BBW/ warnings

A
  • blood dyscrasias & bone marrow suppression
  • NO Pregnancy
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38
Q

Nystatin Uses

A
  • fungal infxs
  • candida albicans
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39
Q

Amoxicillin Uses

A
  • Dental infections (1st line)
  • OM
  • pharyngitis
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40
Q

Pyrimethamine Uses

A
  • toxoplasmosis gondii
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41
Q

Pyrimethamine can cause ___ in large doses and can cause ____.

A
  • cardiac arrhythmia
  • rash, SJS/TEN
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42
Q

Pyrimethamine Safety

A

NO pregnancy

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43
Q

Valacyclovir Uses

A
  • genital HSV
  • Herpes Zoster (Shingles)
  • Cold Sores
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44
Q

Why consider Valacyclovir over Acyclovir

A

higher serum conc & easier to take (less doses)

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45
Q

TMP-SMX Uses

A
  • Pneumocystis jiroveci
  • Salmonellosis
  • MRSA infx
  • UTI (2nd line)
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46
Q

What medication has an interaction w/ TMP-SMX?

A

Warfarin

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47
Q

TMP-SMX Beers Criteria cause

A

hyperkalemia

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48
Q

Nitrofurantoin Uses

A
  • UTI (1st line outpt)
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49
Q

Nitrofurantoin Safety

A

contraindicated at weeks 38-40
avoid if Cr clearance is <30mL/min

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50
Q

Gentamicin uses

A

serious infxs
- sepsis
- HAP
- meningitis

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51
Q

Gentamicin is used in combo w/

A

ampicillin or vanc

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52
Q

Gentamicin pearls

A

can have wonky labs

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53
Q

Gentamicin safety

A
  • nephrotoxic/ototoxic
  • closing monitoring
  • generally NO pregnancy
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54
Q

Azithromycin uses

A
  • CAP (mycoplasma)
  • chlamydial infx
  • gonococcal infx
55
Q

Azithromycin safety

A

risk of QTc prolongation

56
Q

Note

A

Macrolides cause QTc prolongation

57
Q

Ketoconazole (oral) Uses

A

Serious fungal infx
- blastomycosis
- coccidioidomycosis
- histoplasmosis

58
Q

Ketoconazole safety/SE

A
  • hepatotoxicity
  • hepatic failure
  • NO pregnancy
59
Q

Rimantadine Uses

A

influenza A tx & proph

(usually no uses)

60
Q

Does the CDC recommend we uses Rimantadine?

A

NO

61
Q

Dimenhydrinate Uses

A
  • motion sickness
  • N/V
62
Q

Dimenhydrinate MOA

A

1st gen antihistamine. Antagonizes central & peripheral H1 recepetors

63
Q

Dimenhydrinate caution if:

A
  • HTN
  • asthma
  • COPD
  • LRT infx
  • GI obstruction
  • prostatic hypertrophy
  • > 65 yo
64
Q

Dimenhydrinate is contraindicated if:

A

taking anything w/ K+

65
Q

Cetirizine Uses

A
  • allergic symptoms
  • urticaria
66
Q

Cetirizine MOA

A

2nd gen antihistamines - antagonizes peripheral H1 receptors

67
Q

Cetirizine common rxs

A
  • drowsiness (less than 1st gen)
  • fatigue
  • abdominal pain
  • HA
  • dry mucous membranes
68
Q

Age limit for Cetirizine

A

<6yo

69
Q

Cautions with Cetirizine

A
  • CNS depressant
  • liver & kidney impairment
70
Q

Ofloxacin Ophthalmic Uses

A
  • conjunctivitis
  • contact lens wearers
71
Q

Docosanol (Abreva) Uses

A

herpes labialis

72
Q

Max dosage for Docosanol

A

10 days

73
Q

Latanoprost Ophthalmic Uses

A

Elevated IOP

74
Q

Latanoprost Ophthalmic MOA

A

^^ aqueous humor outflow, prostaglandin analogue

75
Q

Latanoprost can cause

A

change in color of eyes or eyelids & lashes

76
Q

Tetracaine uses

A
  • FB removal
  • Anesthesia, ophthalmic
77
Q

Ketorolac Ophthalmic Uses

A
  • conjunctivitis, allergic
  • ocular inflammation, post cataract extraction
78
Q

Ketorolac ophthalmic: common rxns

A
  • burnging/stinging
  • HA
  • eye swelling/pain
79
Q

Uses prednisone ophthalmic Uses

A

uveitis/ocular inflammation

80
Q

Prednisone ophthalmic common rxns

A
  • incr IOP
  • hypersensitivity
  • ocular pain
  • taste is off
81
Q

Pilocarpine Uses

A

Xerostomia, Sjogren syndrome

dry mouth disease

82
Q

Pilocarpine MOA

A

stimulates muscarinic cholinergic receptors. increases saliva

83
Q

Pilocarpine ophthalmic uses

A
  • open-angle glaucoma
  • acute angle-closure glaucoma
84
Q

Pilocarpine ophthalmic common rxns

A
  • blurred vision
  • lacrimation
  • ocular stinging/burning
85
Q

Triamcinolone nasal uses

A

allergic rhinitis

86
Q

Triamcinolone nasal common rxns

A
  • epistaxis
  • pharyngitis
  • cough
  • HA
87
Q

Pseudoephedrine (Sudafed) Uses

A

nasal congestion

88
Q

Pseudoephedrine (Sudafed) cautions

A
  • pts w/ HTN
  • avoid in 1st trimester
  • used to make meth
89
Q

Pseudoephedrine MOA

A

stimulates smooth muscle alpha adrenergic receptors

90
Q

Promethazine (Phenergan) Uses

A
  • allergic conditions
  • motion sickness
  • N/V
  • sedation
  • urticaria
91
Q

Promethazine MOA

A

1st gen antihistamine
- antagonizes central & peripheral H1 receptors

92
Q

Promethazine BB warning

A

Resp depression
Gangrene at injection site

93
Q

Phenylephrine (Sudafed PE) uses

A

nasal congestion

94
Q

Phenylephrine (Sudafed PE) cautions

A

avoid in first trimester

95
Q

Ofloxacin (otic) uses

A

OE, acute bacterial

96
Q

Benzonatate (Tessalon) Uses

A

Cough

97
Q

Benzonatate cautions

A

swallow entire capsule. DON’T chew it can numb mouth & cause choking

98
Q

Benzonatate MOA

A

numbs resp passage, lung, & pleural stretch receptors
reducing cough reflex

99
Q

Prolonged O2 therapy > 1hr causes

A

dry out & irritate mucosal surfaces of the airway & eyes

100
Q

Room air is at what % O2

A

21%

101
Q

Toxicity level of oxygen

A

> 50% or 60%

102
Q

Salmeterol uses

A
  • asthma, maint
  • COPD, maint
  • Bronchospasm, exercise-induced
103
Q

Formoterol uses

A
  • asthma, maint
    -COPD, maint
  • exercise-induced bronchospasms
104
Q

Formoterol cautions

A

No monotherapy

105
Q

Montelukast tx

A
  • asthma maint
  • allergic rhinitis
  • bronchospasm, exercise-induced
106
Q

Montelukast MOA

A

leukotriene receptor antagonist blocks leukotriene inflammatory mediators

107
Q

Montelukast Warnings

A

can cause serious neuropsychiatric events

108
Q

Pirfenidone Uses

A

IPF

109
Q

Pirfenidone cautions

A

CNS, GI, & liver effects

110
Q

Salmeterol Uses

A
  • asthma maint
  • COPD maint
  • Bronchospasm, exercise induced
111
Q

Salmeterol cautions

A

NO monotherapy

112
Q

Budesonide inhalation Uses

A
  • asthma, maint
  • COPD, exacerbation
113
Q

What is the drug of choice for pregnant women w/ persistent asthma?

A

budesonide (inhaled)

114
Q

Age range for budesonide use

A
  • > /= 6yo (DPI)
  • 12mo - 8yo (neb)
115
Q

Fluticasone uses

A

asthma maint

116
Q

Long term uses of fluticasone can cause

A

bone loss (osteoporosis)

117
Q

Fluticasone (inhaled) can be used in children as young as?

A

4yo

118
Q

Budesonide/formoterol Uses

A
  • asthma, maint
  • COPD, maint
119
Q

Budesonide/formoterol cautions

A
  • can stent bone growth in children/adolescents
  • not a rescue med
120
Q

Formoterol Uses

A
  • asthma maint
  • COPD, maint
  • bronchospasm, exercise-induced
121
Q

Formoterol cautions

A

NO monotherapy

122
Q

Tiotropium Uses

A

COPD maint

123
Q

Ipratropium Uses

A
  • COPD, maint
  • asthma exacerbation, mild-mod
124
Q

Ipratropium & Tiotropium Cautions

A
  • glaucoma, angle closure
  • prostatic hypertrophy
  • bladder neck obstruction
125
Q

Ipratropium & tiotropium MOA

A

anticholinergic agent reverses vagally mediated bronchospasm, but not allergen or exercise-induced bronchospasm

126
Q

Warfarin Uses

A
  • DVT/PE tx
127
Q

How long must you bridge Warfarin and what is the target range?

A
  • 5 days
  • INR b/t 2-3 (high risk 2.5-3.5)
128
Q

Warfarin safety

A

Increased risk of bleeding w/ INR >4.0

129
Q

Warfarin MOA

A

inhibits Vit K-dependent coagulation factor synthesis (II, VII, IX,X, PRO C&S)

130
Q

Do is Cromolyn used for and do we generally use it?

A
  • chronic asthma
  • exercise-induced asthma
  • NO
131
Q

Cromolyn MOA

A

inhibits mast cell degranulation (mast cell stabilizer)

132
Q

What is hypoxia?

A

low tissue oxygen

133
Q

What is hypoxemia?

A

low O2 in the blood

Block Exams (3 decks)

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