Pharm 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Treatment for Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

(I) ABVD:

Adriamycin = doxorubicin

Bleomycin

Vinblastine

Da/carbazine

(II) Escalated BEACOPP:

Bleomysin

Eto/po/side

Adriamycin=doxorubicin

Cyclophosphamine

Oncovin=vincristine

Procabazine

Prednisone

(III) Stanford V (doxorubicin, vinblastine, chlormethine, vincristine, bleomycin, etoposide, prednisolone)

(I)/(II)/(III)+RT

Relapse:

HSCT +:

  • ICE
  • DHAP
  • ESHAP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Chemo for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

DLBCL:

R-CHOP:

Rituximab

Cyclophosphamine

Hydroxydaunomycin = Doxorubicin

Oncovin

Prednisone

Relapse:

  • R-ICE
  • R-DHAP
  • R-GDP

+/- autologous HSCT

Other types:

  • no standard first line tx
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the types of cytotoxic drugs?

A
  1. Alkylating agents:

MOA: causes crosslinking of DNA (alkylayion of N7 of guanine)

  • leads to breaking of DNA, inhibits DNA replication
  • (cell-cycle specific)

E.g.

  • nitrogen mustards (cyclophosphamide (requires p450 activation))
  • nitrosurea (carmustine, lomustine)
    2. Platinum complexes

MOA: - similar to alkylating agents

e. g.
- cisplatin, carboplatin, oxaliplatin
3. Antimetabolites

MOA: - inhibit nucleic acid synthesis by competing with natural substrates

e. g.
- folate analogues - methotrexate (purine synthesis)
- pyrimidine analogues- 5-FU, capecitabine, cytarabine
- purine analogues- mercaptopurine (6-MP)
4. Mitotic inhibitors
e. g.:
- vinca alkaloids (vincristine)

MOA: binds to microtubules and prevent formation of mitotic spindles

  • taxanes (paclitaxel)
  • topoisomerase inhibitors (topotecan, etoposide)
    5. Cytotoxic antibiotics

MOA:

  • intercalates DNA strands->interferes with topoisomerase II actions
  • genetes free radicals, causing DNA breakage
    e. g.:
  • anthracyclines (doxorubicin, dounorubicin)
  • bleomycin
    6. Signal transduction inhibitors
    e. g. tyrokinase inhibitor (imatinib,dasatinib)

EGFR inhibitor (gefitinib)

  1. Monoclonal antibodies
    e. g.
    - trastuzumab (HER-2)
    - rituximab (CD20)
    - cetuximab (EGFR) (CRC)
    - bevacizumab (vascular endothelial growth factor VEGF) (CRC)
  2. Others
    - procarbazine (inhibits nucleic acid synthesis)
    - hydroxyurea (inhibits ribonuclease reductase)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Alkylating agents? Platinum complexes?

A
  1. Alkylating agents:

MOA: causes crosslinking of DNA (alkylayion of N7 of guanine)

  • leads to breaking of DNA, inhibits DNA replication
  • (cell-cycle specific)

E.g.

  • nitrogen mustards (cyclophosphamide (requires p450 activation))
  • nitrosurea (carmustine, lomustine)
    2. Platinum complexes

MOA: - similar to alkylating agents

e. g.
- cisplatin, carboplatin, oxaliplatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Antimetabolites?

A
  1. Antimetabolites

MOA: - inhibit nucleic acid synthesis by competing with natural substrates

e. g.
- folate analogues - methotrexate (purine synthesis)
- pyrimidine analogues- 5-FU, capecitabine, cytarabine
- purine analogues- mercaptopurine (6-MP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Mitotic inhibitors?

A
  1. Mitotic inhibitors
    e. g.:
    - vinca alkaloids (vincristine)

MOA: binds to microtubules and prevent formation of mitotic spindles

  • taxanes (paclitaxel)
  • topoisomerase inhibitors (topotecan, etoposide)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Cytotoxic antibiotics?

A
  1. Cytotoxic antibiotics

MOA:

  • intercalates DNA strands->interferes with topoisomerase II actions
  • genetes free radicals, causing DNA breakage
    e. g.:
  • anthracyclines (doxorubicin, dounorubicin)
  • bleomycin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Signal transduction inhibitors, monoclonal antibodies and others?

A
  1. Signal transduction inhibitors
    e. g. tyrokinase inhibitor (imatinib,dasatinib)

EGFR inhibitor (gefitinib)

  1. Monoclonal antibodies
    e. g.
    - trastuzumab (HER-2)
    - rituximab (CD20)
    - cetuximab (EGFR) (CRC)
    - bevacizumab (vascular endothelial growth factor VEGF) (CRC)
  2. Others
    - procarbazine (inhibits nucleic acid synthesis)
    - hydroxyurea (inhibits ribonuclease reductase)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the common immunosuppressants?

A

Steroids, calcineurin inhibitors, anti-metabolite, anti-TNFa antibodies, TNFa inhibitor, others.

Steroids

Calcineurin inhibitors (inhibits synthesis of IL-2, Th-2 cells actions):

  • cyclosporin
  • tacrolimus

Anti-metabolite:

  • azathioprine (pro-drug of 6-mercaptopurine, acts preferentially on lymphocytes)
  • methotrexate (RA. anti-folate)
  • myco/phenolate (mofetil) (MMF) (inhibits purine synthesis)
  • leflu/no/mide (RA, pyrimidine synthase inhibitor)

Anti-TNFa (in RA):

  • infliximab
  • adali/mumab

TNFa inhibitor: (RA)

  • etanercept

Others:

  • abata/cept (binds CD80,86, prevents bindingof CD28 on T cells)
  • hydroxychloroquine (SLE. Blocks toll-like receptors on dendritic cells, prevents antigen presentation) (also in malaria: unknown mechanism)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the common anti-coagulation drugs?

A

Antiplatelets:

  • 1st L: COX inhibitor (aspirin, inhibits TXA2 synthesis)

S/E: gastric bleeding

  • 2nd L: ADP-R antagonits (clopidogrel reduce aggregaion)

Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor inhibitors

  • abciximab (antibody against GPIIb/IIIa, prevents binding of PLT to fibrinogen)

Heparin and related:

  • heparin (increase ATIII activity) (IV) (doesn’t cross placenta)
  • enoxaparin (clexane) (SC)

Warfarin (antagonist of vit K, reduce factor synthesis)

NOAC/DOAC (direct oral anti-coagulant)

  • rivaroxaban (inhibits FXa)
  • apixaban (inhibits FXa)
  • dabigatran (inhibits thrombin)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Osteoporosis medical Mx?

A

Medical:

  • Ca and vit D supplements PLUS

1st line - bisphosphonate

2nd line - raloxifene OR denosumab (every 6m)

3rd line- teriparatide OR HRT

ADD testosterone (if low in men)

Bisphosphonate: (anti-resorptive) (eg alendronate, risendronate)

  • MOA: binds to bony surface, inhibits osteoclastic activity and maturation
  • S/E: Osteonecrosis of the jaw, atypical subtrochanteric and diaphyseal femoral fractures, hypocalcemia
  • contra: low Ca/vit D, CKD

Raloxifene:

  • MOA: selective estrogen receptor modulator, ↓osteoclast differentiation, ↑osteoblast activity
  • S/E: Hot flushes, sweating, peripheral oedema, VTE, leg cramps
  • Contra: VTE, stroke, immobilisation

Denosumab: (anti-resorptive)

  • MOA: antibody binding to RANKL, prevents maturation of osteocyte to osteoclast
  • S/E: Rarely myalgia, infections e.g. cellulitis, cystitis, hypersensitivity, hypercholesterolaemia
  • osteonecrosis of the jaw and atypical femur factures, hypocalcaemia
  • contra: low Ca/vit D , pregnancy

Teriparatide: (anabolic)

  • MOA: recombinant PTH, intermittent dose stimulates osteoblast activity and bone growth
  • S/E: osteosarcoma if prolonged use (>2y), Nausea, muscle cramps, arthralgia, dizziness, headache, injection site reactions,

HRT:

  • MOA: stimulates osteoblasts and inhibits osteoclasts
  • S/E: Increased risk of breast/endometrial cancer, stroke, VTE, CAD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Open angle glaucoma mx?

A

Mx:

Medical: (goal: lower IOP to slow down progression) (lifelong)

1st line:

  • Prostaglandin analogues (e.g. Latanoprost) (topical)

MOA: increasing the sclera’s permeability to aqueous humour, promotes uveoscleral outflow (uvea=choroid + lens + iris)

S/E:

Ocular:

  • *Conjunctival hyperaemia
  • *Iris hyperpigmentation
  • *eyelash thickening and lengthening

2nd line: combination with:

(I) Alpha-2-agonist (eg Apraclonidine) topical

MOA: Decreases production of aqueous humour by

  • Activate alpha-2 receptors in presynaptic sympathetic neurons in CNS → ↑ negative feedback → ↓ catecholamine release (Dopamin, NA) → ↓ Sympathetic tone

S/E:

  • *High allergy rate
  • *Conjunctival blanching (pale)
  • *Pupil dilation
  • Lid retraction

Contraindications

  • *Pregnancy, Children (central hypotension), MAOI users

(II) Non-selective B-blockers (eg timolol) topical

  • MOA: Reduces aqueous humour production by non-selective inhibition of B-adrenergic receptors

S/E:

Ocular:

  • * allergy
  • *reduced tear production

Systemic:

  • *Decreased HR, BP, bronchospasm
  • lethargy, sleep disturbance, depression, reduced libido, reduced exercise tolerance

Contraindications

  • *asthma, severe COPD
  • *heart failure, bradycardia, heart block

(III) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (Dorzolomide) topical

  • MOA: reduces aqueous humour production by decreasing HCO3 production by the ciliary epithelium

Indications: acute angle closure, chronic angle closure where other treatments have failed

Adverse effects

Ocular:

  • *conjunctivitis
  • *keratitis
  • *stinging

Systemic:

  • *diuresis, hypoNa, hypoK
  • *metabolic acidosis
  • *Bitter metallic taste

Contraindications

  • *Hepatic or renal failure

3rd line (add to tx regimen)

Cholinergics (eg pilocarpine)

MOA: binds to M3 receptors and causes ciliary muscles to contract increasing drainage through the trabecular meshwork

S/E Systemic:

  • salivation, bronchospasm, hypotension, bradycardia and diarrhoea

Surgical:

  • laser therapy (eg laser trabeculoplasty)

Monitoring:

  • IOP
  • optic disc
  • peripheral vision fields
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Mx of DM?

A

Non-pharm:

  • diet and exercise

Choosing pharm agent:

  • LFT, EUC
  • weight
  • GI diseases
  • patient’s preference (needles)
  • S/E when used
  • clinician’s preference

Glycaemic targets:

  • HbA1c < 7% (3-monthly)
  • Fasting BSL 4-8 mmol/L (monitor daily in the morning and 2h post prandial before bed)
  • Post-prandial <10 mmol/L
  • add agents if target not reached

Pharm:

1st line:

Metformin (diaformin, diabex)

  • MOA: - ↓ Hepatic gluconeogenesis + ↑ insulin sensitivity peripherally
  • ↓ carbohydrate absorption + reduced LDL/VLDL
  • initiate with lifestyle changes, cease if satisfactory levels are reached with both
  • excellent efficacy (1.5-2% HbA1c), highly tolerable
  • promotes weigh loss, reduction in CV risk
  • CI: CKD, liver failure

2nd line:

Sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitor: canagliflozin, dapagliflozin, or empagliflozin

  • MOA: ↓ glucose reabsorption in PCT in kidneys → ↑ glucose excretion via kidneys
  • excellent reduction in CV risk
  • SE: glucosuria (UTI, thrush), hypoglycaemia, volume depletion
  • CI: CKD

Alpha-glucosidase inhibitor: acarbose or miglitol

  • MOA: Inhibits alpha-glucosidase at brush border of small intestine → ↓ digestion of carbohydrates into monosaccharides
  • controls post-prandial glucose
  • top second line choice in China

Thiazolidinedione: pioglitazone

MOA: Agonist for nuclear receptor PPAR-y → regulates gene expression for glucose and lipid metabolism → ↑ lipogenesis → cells dependent on glucose for energy → ↓ hepatic gluconeogenesis + ↑ insulin sensitivity peripherally- true insulin-sensitising agent

  • excellent efficacy, beta cell protective

SE:

  • increase in CV mortality and events
  • weight gain, peripheral edema
  • also ?decrease in bone density, risk of bladder cancer

CI: heart failure, severe liver disease, pregnancy

Injections:

Glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) agonist: liraglutide, exenatide, lixisenatide, semaglutide, or dulaglutide

  • MOA: Stimulates glucagon-like peptide-1 production in duodenum + proximal jejunum → ↑ insulin secretion + ↓ glucagon secretion
  • SE: pancreatitis (rare), hypoglycaemia, N/V

Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitor: sitagliptin, saxagliptin, linagliptin, or alogliptin

  • MOA: Inhibits dipeptidyl peptidase 4 → prolongs action of GLP1 + GIP → ↑ insulin secretion + ↓ glucagon secretion
  • flexible with PBS
  • SE: pancreatitis (rare), hypoglycaemia, N/V

3rd line:

Sulfonylurea: glimepiride, gliclazide, or glipizide; meglitinides (e.g., repaglinide, nateglinide) are an alternative

  • MOA: Bind to sulfonylurea receptor 1 (ATP-sensitive K+ channels on beta cells) → depolarisation → ↑ insulin secretion
  • Not useful in late T2DM, it requires functioning Beta cells

SE: weight gain, hypoglycaemia, bone marrow toxicity (rare)

Insulin

  • short acting for before meals
  • long acting for baseline
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Antiemetics?

A

D2 antagonist (metoclopramide,droperidol, domperidone)

MOA:

Inhibits on chemoreceptor trigger zone (medulla)

Inhibits visceral afferents from GIT (PNS)

Prokinetic effect (GI)

Indications: Post-surgical N/V, Gastroenteritis, **Migraine headache, Hyperemesis gravidarum

SE: Sedation, extrapyramidal effects, QT prolongation, severe hypotension; Arrhythmias (Domperidone)

CI: Intestinal obstruction, PD

5HT3 antagonist (ondansetron)

MOA:

Inhibits on chemoreceptor trigger zone

Inhibits visceral afferents from GIT (PNS)

Indications: Post-surgical N/V (1st line), Gastroenteritis, Chemo/radiotherapy N/V, Hyperemesis gravidarum

SE: QT prolongation, QRS widening; rarely, hypersensitivity reactions

CI: Prolonged QT interval

Extra: newest, most expensive

Antihistamines (H1 antagonists) cyclizine, meclizine, dimenhydrinate

MOA: Inhibits on vestibular nuclei,

Indications: **Motion sickness, **Vertigo, Hyperemesis gravidarum

SE: Sedation,

Anticholinergic effect: Dry mouth, Tachycardia, urinary retention, mydriasis, blurred vision, exacerbation of narrow-angle glaucoma

CI: Tachycardia, CCF, Glaucoma, Urinary retention, BPH

Anticholinergics (anti-muscarinic) scopolamine

MOA: Inhibits on vestibular nuclei, Inhibits area postrema (vomiting center) centrally

Indications: Motion sickness, Vertigo

SE: Anticholinergic effect: Dry mouth, Tachycardia, urinary retention, mydriasis, blurred vision, exacerbation of narrow-angle glaucoma

CI: Tachycardia, CCF, Glaucoma, Urinary retention, BPH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly