Pg 68 Flashcards

1
Q

Blue Sclera

A

Osteogenesis Imperfecta

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2
Q

Orange Tears

A

Rifampin

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3
Q

ACE Inhibitors

A

Diabetes, chronic cough
OK for BF
Don’t give in pregnancy

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4
Q

Fever in PEC mimickers

A

HUS or TTP
HUS = renal failure, oliguria, creatinine high
TTP = AMS

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5
Q

Cocaine

A

Simple diffusion?

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6
Q

Fe Def

A

Microcytic anemia (MCV <80)
Ferritin is most Sn/Sp marker (low)
Total Fe needed for entire pregnancy is 1g

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7
Q

Facilitated diffusion

A

Sugars

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8
Q

Longest diameter of the fetal head

A

Supra-occipital mentum (12.5cm)

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9
Q

Most common cause of SAB

A

Trisomies/45 X (esp trisomy 16)

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10
Q

Pulmonary Fibrosis

A

Bleomycin

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11
Q

Most chemo is in what phase???

A

S phase

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12
Q

Low AFP is associated with

A

GTN and trisomies

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13
Q

Low Papp-a is associated with

A

FGR

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14
Q

DVT most common side is

A

LEFT (90%)

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15
Q

CMV

A

Paraventricular intracranial calcifications

do urine test to dx if sx

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16
Q

Syncytiotriphoblasts produce…

A

PAPP-A and HCG

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17
Q

Elevated Inhibin A

A

Bad (associated with T21)

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18
Q

Listeriosis, found in ..

A

Cantaloupe

see placental abscesses

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19
Q

Limiting dimension in pelvis

A

Mid pelvis (bi-spinous diameter)

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20
Q

OP position most associated with this kind of pelvis

A

AnthrOPoid pelvis

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21
Q

21-Hydroxylase Def (CAH) is inherited…

A

AR

elevated 17-OHP

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22
Q

PCKD is inherited…

A

AD

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23
Q

DMD is inherited…

A

X-linked

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24
Q

Dizygous is always

A

Di-Di

Split before 4d

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25
Q

Ventilator associated infection is…

A

Pseudomonas Pneumonia

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26
Q

Atypical Pneumonia is usually

A

Mycoplasma

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27
Q

PTU

A

Agranulocytosis
Hepatotoxicity
Give in 1st trimester only then Methimazole after 2nd

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28
Q

Alk Phos heat stability?

A

Normal placenta: heat STABLE alk phos

Cholestasis: heat labile alk phos

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29
Q

Factor V Leiden heterozygous

A

DO NOT TREAT

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30
Q

Most clotting seen in

A

AT III

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31
Q

Lewis LIVES because

A

IgM cant cross the placenta

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32
Q

HBV is what kind of virus?

A
DNA
Can lead to hepatocellular cancer
Vertical transmission is typically if mom has high viral load
Treat with tenofovir in 3rd trimester
OK for Vag del, BF, etc
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33
Q

Cardiomyopathy EF?

A

<45%
30-50% will fully recover after
If GFR after is >50%, recurrence risk is 20%
If GFR is <50%, recurrence risk is high and mortality is 16%

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34
Q

Lemon Sign

A

Spina Bifida (most associated with obesity)

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35
Q

Banana Sign

A

Chiari

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36
Q

Strawberry Cervix

A

Trichomonas (PO Flagyl only)

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37
Q

Blueberry muffin rash

A

CMV or rubella

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38
Q

Kernicterus

A

Sulfonamides

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39
Q

Cataracts, Cardiac defects, Deafness

A

Congenital Rubella

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40
Q

Microcephaly causes

A

Radiation (M phase)
Zika
CMV

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41
Q

13

A

Trisomy 13 = Patau, midline facial defects
Highest bishop score
Chromosome for BRCA 2

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42
Q

17

A

Chromosome for BRCA 1

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43
Q

Cerebral Palsy

A

Periventricular Leukomalacia

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44
Q

Tetracycline teratogenicity

A

Teeth staining

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45
Q

Avg age menarche

A

12.8yoa

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46
Q

BPAM

A

Breast (Thelarche)
Pubic hair
Axillary hair
Menarche

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47
Q

Primary amenorrhea

A

15yoa w/2nd sex characteristics

13yoa w/o 2nd sex characteristic

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48
Q

Kallman’s syndrome

A

Primary amenorrhea
Anosmia
5’6 or taller

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49
Q

Klinefelter Syndrome

A

47XXY
Azoospermia
Gynecomastia

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50
Q

Precocious puberty

A

Get a bone age

McCune Albright: fibrous dysplasia, precocious puberty, cafe au lait spots

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51
Q

Sheehan Syndrome

A

Necrosis of pituitary, 2nd amenorrhea, inability to lactate

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52
Q

Dysgerminoma

A
most common germ cell tumor (40%)
most common germ cell tumor in pregnancy
Associated with LDH elevation
See large cyst, ascites, fevers
Lymphocyte infiltrates on pathology
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53
Q

Cyclophosphamide

A

POF, hemorrhagic cystitis (give Mesna)

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54
Q

Vinblastine

A

Toxic to bone marrow (M phase)

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55
Q

Granulosa Cell

A

Sex cord stromal tumor
Call exner bodies, coffee been nuclei
Elevated inhibin B (can get high E, and concomitant endometrial cancer)

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56
Q

Krukenberg tumor

A

Gastric cancer

Signet ring cells

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57
Q

Brenner tumor

A

Walthard Rests?

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58
Q

Nuclear Grooves

A

Granulosa Cell and Brenner tumors

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59
Q

Schiller Duval bodies

A

Endodermal Sinus/Yolk Sac tumor

Elevated AFP, can see hemorrhagic cysts

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60
Q

Hob Nail

A

Clear Cell Carcinoma

61
Q

Psammoma Bodies

A

Serous tumors

62
Q

Dilated pupils

A

Cocaine

63
Q

Pinpoint pupils

A

Heroin, morphine, opioids

64
Q

13-18 yoa primary cause of mortality

A

Accidents

65
Q

Avg blood loss per period

A

30-50ml

Menorrhagia >80mL per cycle

66
Q

TTP treatment

A

Plasmphoresis

67
Q

ITP treatment

A

1) Steroids
2) IVIG
3) Platelet transfusion

68
Q

BPD at term

A

9.3cm avg

69
Q

Lithium

A

Ebstein’s Anamaly

70
Q

Inhibin A is high in what part of menstrual cycle

A

AFTER ovulation (with progesterone)

71
Q

Inhibin B is high at what stage of menstrual cycle

A

BEFORE ovulation (with estrogen)

72
Q

Streptomycin on fetus

A

Fetal high tones hearing loss

73
Q

Chloramphenicol on fetus

A

Gray baby syndrome

74
Q

Femoral Nerve root

A

L2-4
Quads weakness, cant climb stairs, anterior leg numbness
Cause: self-retaining retractors

75
Q

Obturator nerve root

A

L2-4

Adductor longus, inability to adduct, from direct injury in space of retzius or needle injury during TVT

76
Q

Peroneal nerve root

A

L4-S2
Foot drop
Caused by dorsal lithotomy

77
Q

Genitofemoral nerve root

A

L1-2

Loss of sensation of vulva/anterior medial thigh or burning, from skin incision location

78
Q

Side effects of Cisplatin or Carboplatin

A

Ototoxicity

Nephrotoxicity

79
Q

Doxorubicin

A

Cardiotoxic

80
Q

Methotrexate and 5 FU

A

Myelosuppresion

81
Q

Vinca Alkaloids

A
Peripheral Neuropathy 
M phase (all other chemos are basically M phase)
82
Q

Reinke Crystalloids

A

Lipid (Hilus) cell tumors

hirsutism

83
Q

CEA elevated in

A

Mucinous tumors

84
Q

CRIST my nerves and BLAST my bones

A

Vincristine has HIGH neurotoxicity, low marrow tox

Vinblastine has HIGH marrow toxicity, low neuro

85
Q

Treatment of Cervical Cancer: stage IA1

A

<3mm stromal invasion

Do CKC or simple hysterectomy if done with childbearing

86
Q

Treatment of Cervical cancer IA2

A
Stromal invasion 3-5mm
Radical Hysterectomy (can do trachelectomy) but need LND
87
Q

Most common GYN malignancy

A

Endometrial Cancer

88
Q

Most LETHAL GYN malignancy

A

Ovarian Cancer

89
Q

Most diagnosed malignancy in pregnancy

A

Breast cancer

90
Q

Most common malignancy during pregnancy

A

Cervical cancer

91
Q

Rarest GYN malignancy

A

Fallopian tube cancer

92
Q

Most common ovarian neoplasm in reproductive aged women

A

Dermoids

93
Q

Most common ovarian neoplasm is all age groups

A

Serous cystadenoma

94
Q

Septic Shock, SVR is…

A

LOW
Caused by sepsis, anaphylaxis, etc
Tx = IVF, Pressors (Epi), Abx

95
Q

Cardiogenic shock, CO is

A

LOW

96
Q

Hypovolemic shock, SVR is?

A

SVR is HIGH
PCWP is low (volume down)
CO is low (volume down)

97
Q

Aortic insufficiency, dont give…

A

Nifedipine

98
Q

Myasthenia gravis, dont give…

A

Magnesium!

99
Q

Most common type of myoma degeneration

A

Hyaline (65%)

most common in pregnancy is Carneus

100
Q

Most common type of fibroid degeneration IN PREGNANCY

A

Carneous (red, meaty, like carne asade)

101
Q

BRCA 1 cancer risk

A

Breast 70%

Ovarian 40%

102
Q

BRCA 2 cancer risk

A

Breast 70%

Ovarian 20%

103
Q

PTEN mutation is seen in what familial cancer syndrome

A

Cowden

get those facial bumps

104
Q

TP53 is associated with which familial cancer syndrome

A

Li-Fraumeni

105
Q

Genes in Lynch Syndrome

A
MLH1 (promotor methylation)
MSH2
MSH6
PMS2
Diagnosis = IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY
106
Q

CDKN is gene marker for what cancer?

A

Melanoma
2nd most common vulvar cancer
*If melanoma hx, always send placenta for path

107
Q

CA 19-9 elevated in

A

Pancreatic and GI cancers

108
Q

HE4 elevated in

A

Epithelial ovarian cancers

109
Q

APC is marker for

A

Familial Adenomatous Polyps

110
Q

STK 11 is cancer gene seen in…

A

Peutz Jeghers

see oro-facial freckling

111
Q

Things than can be calcified on an xray of pelvis

A
Calcified fibroid
Kidney stone
Gallstone ileus
Fetus (Lithopedian)
Dermoid (teeth)
Papillary ovarian cancer
Appendolith
Phlebolith
112
Q

Most common malignant ovarian neoplasm

A

Dysgerminoma

113
Q

Tx of orgasm disorder

A

Directed masturbation (!) - gasp

114
Q

Lab findings in T2DM

A

A1c >6.5%
Microalbuminemia
Fasting >126
2hrs >200

115
Q

Which of the following is the least likely indication for intubation in a 27wk gravida?

A. RR of 40
B. Respiratory fatigue
C. PCO2 of 40
D. Blood pH of 7.35
E. PO2 of 60
A

D. Blood pH of 7.35

***pCO2 >40 is indication for INTUBATION

116
Q
Meiosis begins at what GA?
A. 8wks
B. 12wks
C. 16wks
D. 24wks
E. 32wks
A

B. 12 wks

117
Q
During cystoscopy, you see multiple bladder contractions. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. UTI
B. Genuine SUI
C. IC ("bladder pain syndrome"
D. Urethral syndrome
E. Urethral hypermobility
A

A. UTI (detrusor dyssynergia)

118
Q
Patient has new diarrhea after going to a picnic. Most likely organism is:
A. Salmonella
B. Giardia
C. Staph A
D. Ecoli
E. Listeria
A

C. Staph - common in MAYO, tx with LR

  • Salmonella is more common in chicken, eggs
  • Giardia is in ponds, creeks, untreated water
  • Listeria is in cantaloupes, unpasteurized cheeses (queso), processed meats
119
Q
You are performing a CS and the patient is actively bleeding but hemodynamically stable. All pharmacological methods fail. What is the least likely management?
A. Hypogastric artery ligation
B. Uterine artery ligation
C. Uterine artery embolization
D. Compression stitch
E. B-lynch
A

C. UAE - would need to move to radiology and she is unstable

120
Q
The least likely side-effect of MTX is:
A. irreversible alopecia
B. Pulmonary damage
C. Myelosuppression
D. Stomatitis
E. Diarrhea
A

Least likely is A) alopecia

Most likely is GI symptoms and, from this list, D

121
Q
What is the most important prognostic factor for a woman with endometrial adenocarcinoma?
A. Age
B. Grade
C. Stage
D. +peritoneal washings
E. +aortic LN
A

C. STAGE

- least important is D. peritoneal washings, not used in staging

122
Q
An infant you just delivered has ambiguous genitalia. There are fused labio-scrotal folds as well as an enlarged clitoris. No gonads are palpable. Most likely genotype is:
A. 46 XX
B. 46 XY
C 45 X0
D. 47 XX +21
E 47 XYY
A

A. 46 XX - with CAH, 21 alpha hydroxylase def (AR)

123
Q
Obesity is defined as a BMI of: 
A. 25
B. 30
C. 35
D. 40
E. 45
A

B. 30

BMI 25 is overweight
30-35 Class I
35-40 Class II
40+ Class III/”morbid”

124
Q
26yo G1P1 presents to ER unconscious. Medical bracelet say panhypopituitarism. What is first step in her mgmt?
A. MC
B. ACTH
C. ADH
D. GCs
E. Lasix
A

D. Glucocorticoids

- first treat w/hydrocortisone b/c thyroxine exacerbates GC depletion

125
Q
In fetal-maternal circulation, where is the highest PaO2 found?
A. Maternal uterine artery
B. Umbilical artery
C. umbilical vein
D. fetal hypogastric artery
E. maternal uterine vein
A

A. Maternal uterine artery (90-100%)

126
Q

During gyn surgery, you dissect the broad ligament. Where is ureter found?
A. 3cm lateral to cervix
B. lateral leaf
C. 2cm superior to US ligament
D. Anterior aspect of the broad ligament
E. Medial leaf of the pelvic sidewall peritoneum

A

E. medial leaf

and 1-2cm from cervix at level of internal os

127
Q
Of the following malformations, which is associated with the use of lithium during pregnancy?
A. pulm
B. GI
C. CNS
D. Renal
E. Cardiac
A

E. Cardiac

-Ebsteins anomaly

128
Q
Patient with endometriosis was treated with Luprolide acetate one week ago. She now has abdominal pain. This is most likely secondary to:
A. increased progesterone level
B. ischemia of surrounding tissue
C. increase in endogenous estrogen
D. infection
E. inflammation
A

C. due to flare effect after gnRH therapy

129
Q
Where would an abnormal finding be on neurological imaging after an eclamptic seizure?
A. Occipital lobe
B. Temporal love
C. Cerebellum
D. HT
E. Pituitary gland
A

A.

130
Q
A 16yo Tanner stage II with hypoplastic breasts and sparse pubic hair has FSH 4 and LH 3. Most likely dx is:
A. Testicular feminization
B. Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism
C. CAH
D. Mullerian Agenesis
E. Turner syndrome
A

B. look at CNS causes

D - have normal FSH/LH usually
E - have elevated FSH

131
Q
Which of the following is a late complication following a SSLF:
A. Anterior vaginal wall prolapse
B. Uterine prolapse
C. Dyspareunia
D. medial thigh pain
E. enterocele
A

A. SSLF fixes apical and then can have anterior prolapse after

132
Q
Which of the following can cause IUGR prior to 26wks?
A. Cocaine
B. Tobacco
C. EtOH
D. gHTN
E. Class C DM
A

E. DM (class C = dx btw 10-19yoa)

133
Q
What is the strongest sonographic sign of an ovarian malignancy?
A. multiloculations
B. Papillary excrescences
C. Neovascularization
D. Solid components
E. hyperechoic areas
A

B. nodularity and papillary shit is the worst

Refer to Onc also if PMP, CA125 >35 (>200 in pre-MP), size >10, ascites, septations >3mm (thick)

134
Q
49yo with renal impairment is scheduled for pelvic CT scan w/contrast, which of the following medications should be given prior to the procedure?
A. Diphenhydramine
B. BMZ
C. DMZ
D. Acetylcysteine
E. Observation
A

D. Mucomyst helps protect kidney and ureters from contrast dye (also given prior to cardiac cath)
- can also pre-hydrate with IVF

135
Q
The most likely cause of a SBO in a 55yo female is:
A. Malignancy
B. Constipation
C. Adhesions
D. Diverticulitis
E. IBS
A

C. Adhesions - or extraluminal causes (adhesions > hernias > cancer > infection)

136
Q
The most common cause of peptic ulcer disease in a reproductive age female is: 
A. Infection
B. Stress
C. Anti-inflammatory medications
D. Alcohol
E. Tobacco use
A

A. Infection with H, Pylori

- other causes do include NSAIDs, alcohol, and less common - stress

137
Q
Which of the following muscles is responsible for maintaining anal continence?
A. EAS
B. IAS
C. Coccygeous
D. Bulbocavernosis
E. Levator Ani
A

B. Internal Anal Sphincter - provides resting anal tone

138
Q
A patient with infertility is undergoing induction of ovulation with HMG/hcg. What is the best test to follow her progress?
A. FSH
B. LH
C. Progesterone
D. Estradiol
E. Endometrial thickness
A

D. Estradiol

HMG is LH/FSH, so can only measure estrogen

139
Q
A 19yo is dx with AIS, what is the least likely finding?
A. Breast development
B. Blind vaginal pouch
C. Clitoromegaly
D. Elevated T
E. Male pseudohermaphrodite
A

C. Clitoromegaly (think 17,20 desmolase def with this one)

140
Q
Under what circumstance is giving Rhogam LEAST indicated?
A. ECV
B. Missed AB at 6wks w/o YS/FP
C. 2nd trimester amnio
D. Abd trauma
E. 1st trimester SAB
A

B.

141
Q
Which of the following is a maternal physiological change associated with sPEC?
A. hemodilution
B. Occipital vasocongestion
C. increased renal blood flow
D. Placental infarction
E. Decrease in GFR
A

E. Decrease in GFR –> vasospasm (not vasocongestion), hemoconcentration (no dilution), decreased oncotic pressure, increase PCWP, pulmonary edema

142
Q
Oral contraceptives are associated with an increased risk of: 
A. Chlamydia
B. Endometrial Cancer
C. HSV 
D. Ovarian cancer
E. uterine fibroids
A

A. Increased risk of CT, decreased risk of GC and Ov cancer

WHY? WTF knows

143
Q
if an AD disorder is transmitted from parent to child, which of the following is the recurrence risk? 
A. 1
B. 25
C. 33
D. 50
E. 100
A

D. 50%

144
Q
Metastases to which organ system poses the worst risk to the patient with GTD?
A. Lung 
B. Spleen
C. Vagina
D. Brain
E. Bone
A

D. Brain and liver are the worst –> need EMA-CO

Lowest risk is lung (A)

145
Q

What are the 5 red cell antigens???

A

C, c, D, E, e

There is no d
Most common D > E > c > C
Titer threshold is >1:16 to do cordocentesis, etc (>1:8 in anti-Kell)

146
Q
Which of the following urogyn procedures has the highest rate of bladder perforation?
A. MMK
B. Burch
C. TVT
D. TOT
E. Kelly plication
A

C. TVT (3-9% rate of bladder perf)

147
Q
All of the following are seen with OHSS except:
A. ascites
B. changes in CVP
C. Tachycardia
D. HyperK
E. Hypervolemia
A

E. Hypervolemia –> actually see volume depletion, hemoconcentration
Tx is fluid hydration and electrolyte repletion, albumin, possible tap, anticoag

148
Q
Which type of sexual practice is most likely to transmit the HIV virus?
A. receptive anal sex
B. Receptive vaginal sex
C. Receptive oral sex
D. insertive vaginal sex
E. insertive oral sex
A

A. its the anal