Pg 5 - Flashcards

1
Q

How do you measure Cap refill?

A

5 secs of blanching pressure. Prolonged if > 2 secs to return

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2
Q

What is AVPU scale?

A

• Assesses the level of consciousness in children.
• A= Alert, V= responds to Voice, P= Responds to Pain, U=
Unresponsive

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3
Q

What is the most common cause for CPR in children?

A

Hypoxia secondary to respiratory or neurogenic shock.

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4
Q

In the seriously injured child what are the additional steps to ABC?

A

• Cervical spine: manual in-line stabilisation, followed by head blocks
and straps (no routine collar anymore)
• Deal with catastrophic haemorrhage before ABC

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5
Q

What are the underlying mechanisms in respiratory failure?

A

• Decreased alveolar ventilation, diffusion impairment, intra-pulmonary
shunting, and ventilation-perfusion mismatch.
• Causes hypoxemia, tissue hypoxia and hypercapnia => CO2 narcosis.
• Severe respiratory distress may lead to exhaustion and respiratory
arrest.

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6
Q

What are the indicators of respiratory distress in a child?

Moderate:

A
  • Tachycardia
  • Tachypnea; RR>50
  • Nasal flaring
  • Use of accessory muscles
  • Sternal and subcostal recessions
  • Head retraction
  • Inability to feed.
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7
Q

What are the indicators of respiratory distress in a child?

Severe:

A
  • Cyanosis
  • Getting tired
  • Reduced level of consciousness
  • Sat <92 despite O2 therapy
  • Rising PCO2
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8
Q

What are the steps of supportive measures in respiratory distress child?

A
  • O2 needed if sats below 92%
  • Nasal cannula or face mask
  • CPAP or BiPAP with NIV
  • Intubation and mechanical ventilation in ICU
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9
Q

What are the indications of intubation and mechanical ventilation in
respiratory failure?

A
  • Severe respiratory distress

* Progressive NM weakness. E.g. GBS

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10
Q

What are the clinical signs of shock?

Early compensated:

A

• Tachypnea
• Tachycardia
• Dehydration (Pale mottled cold skin, decreased skin turgor, sunken
eyes and Fontanelles, Core-peripheral T gap > 4, decreased urinary
output)

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11
Q

What are the clinical signs of shock?

Late decompensated:

A
  • Acidotic (Kaussmal breathing).
  • Bradychardia
  • Severe dehydration (Absent urine output)
  • Hypoxemia: Blue peripheries
  • Hypercapnia: Confusion
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12
Q

Outline fluid resuscitation in shock, both initial and maintenance?

A

v• 20 mls/ Kg of 0.9% IV crystalloid saline, repeat twice to transfer to
PICU
• Maintenance 100ml/ 10 Kg/ 24 hrs. (First 10), 50 ml/ 10 Kg (Next 10).
So anyone above 15 already has 1500 mls. 20 mls/ Kg for subsequent
Kg.

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13
Q

What is sepsis and what are its clinical features?
• SIRS+ Infection focus
Sx
Signs

A

• Symptoms: Fever, poor feeding, irritability, lethargy+ infection focus.
• Signs: Tachypnea, tachycardia and hypotension, Rash, shock and
multi-organ failure

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14
Q

What is sepsis 6?

A
  • Take 3 (Blood cultures, lactate, urine output)

* Give 3 (IV Antibiotics, IV fluids, O2 to keep stats > 94%)

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15
Q

What is the ER management of anaphylaxis?

A

• Adrenaline auto injector
• Call ambulance (High flow O2, resuscitation fluids, IM or slow IV
Chorphenamine and hydrocortisone +/- salbutamol. Monitor: Sats and
BP, ECG.

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16
Q

What are the management steps for status epilepticus?

A
  • Buccal midazolam
  • IV lorazepam
  • Re-assess diagnosis and call for help
  • Iv phenytoin
  • IV phenobarbital
  • PR paraldehyde
  • Induction of anaesthesia via thiopental
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17
Q

What are the neuroprotective measures if there is raised ICP?

A
• Tilt head 20-30
• Intubate and ventilate, monitor CO2 and Oximetry, Hypothermia and
keep BP normal high.
• Restrict fluids
• Mannitol
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18
Q

What are the components of GCS?

A

• Eye (4): Open, demand, pain, None
• Verbal (5): Speaks, words, sounds, cry, mute.
• Motor (6): Move, localisepain, flex to pain, Decorticate, decerebrate,
none

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19
Q

What are the pupillary signs in coma?

A

• Unilateral dilatation: Expanding lesion, pontine herniation, 3rd nerve
palsy.
• Bilateral dilatation: Severe hypoxia, hypothermia, and post-ictal.

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20
Q

What is BRUE and how it is managed?

A

One or more of the following that happens and resolve suddenly in previously
well child.
• Cyanosis or pallor
• Absent, decreased or irregular breathing
• Change in tone (increased or decreased)
• Altered level of responsiveness.

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21
Q

When does SIDS peak and what are its risk factors?

A

• 2-4 months
• Infant (Small prem boy who was sick yesterday, environmental
(Sleeping prone, swaddled on a billow, near mother in a hot room,
Parents (young couple with low education and income who smoke and
drink in an overcrowded house).

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22
Q

What are the main congenital infections?
What are their clinical
features?
How are they diagnosed?

A

o TORCH.

o Growth restriction, Microcephaly, CHD and PDA, eye and ear
defects, hepatosplenomegaly and haematological, Blueberry
muffin rash.

o Maternal serconversion, Fetal: CVS, amniocentesis, PCR, baby:
fluid samples.

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23
Q

What is the most common congenital infection?
What is the most
common complication?

A

o CMV
o Sensorineural hearing loss and other neurodevelopmental
disabilities

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24
Q

What are the main steps for intra to extra uterine life

transmission?

A

o Lung expansion => reduced pulmonary vascular resistance =>
Increased Left atrial filling => Closure of foramen ovale, DA =>
Establishment of adult circulation

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25
Q

What are the main components of Apgar score?

A
Heart rate > 100
Respiratory effort = strong cry
Muscle tone: Well flexed, active
Reflex irritability: Cry and cough
Colour: Pink
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26
Q

What are the main steps in neonatal resuscitation and what are the extra measures taken for preterm babies?

A
o Clock, dry, stimulate,
o Assess and REASSESS:
o Tone, breathing and HR (The most important; check each 30
secs; should be above 60)
o Airway: 
o Breathing: 
Failed intubation? DOPE:
• Displaced, Obstructed, Patient, Equipment
o Circulation: CPR (3:1); 90
compressions: 30 ventilations. 
o Disability: Avoid hypothermia: 
o Drugs: Centrally (Umbilical venous catheter); Adrenaline,
Volume supports.
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27
Q

What is the cause and Mgt and complications of meconium aspiration syndrome?

A

o Cause: Distress of term or post-term baby.

o Mgt: Lung inflation > suction => CPAP

o Complications: Chemical/ bacterial pneumonitis, pulmonary
hypertension.

28
Q

What are the diagnostic tests, risk factors and Mgt of DDH?

A
DX:
Barlow: Adduct and down to dislocate
Ortolani: Abduct and up to relocate
Positive finding is a palpable clunk.
Hip US

RF:
Female, Breech, BW > 4.5, FHX, NMD

Mgt:
Refer to orthopaedics
Splinting in abduction

29
Q

DDX for tense fontanelles

A

Crying, High ICP (hydrocephalus), meningitis (late).

30
Q

DDx for absent red reflex

A

Cataract,
retinoblastoma,
glaucoma

31
Q

DDx for increased/ decreased femoral pulses?

A

Increased FP: PDA

Reduced FP: Coarctation

32
Q

What is the most common benign neonatal rash?

A

Erythema toxicum: Transient urticarial rash with central white papules. Mainly on trunk but change location

33
Q

What is the difference between nevus flammenus and strawberry
naevus?

A

o Flammenus= Port-wine stain= stork bite: red macula on face; may need laser
o Strawberry = Cavernous haemangioma = Raised lesion, grows
until 15 months hen regresses, may need topical or po propranolol

34
Q

Innocent murmur management in a
neonate?

Measure upper and lower limb BP, measure pre-ductal
(right hand) and post-ductal (left hand) sats. Urgent
ECHO.

A

positional, Soft, Systolic, asymptomatic, LSB

Reassure and FU

35
Q

What is the most common congenital anomaly and what is its prevalence?

A

CHD (7%)

36
Q

Significant murmur management in a

neonate?

A

Measure upper and lower limb BP, measure pre-ductal
(right hand) and post-ductal (left hand) sats. Urgent
ECHO.

37
Q

What are the tests used in newborn hearing screening?

A

o Initial: otoacoustic emissions (OAE); cochlear function

o Then: auditory brainstem response (ABR).

38
Q

How is CHD screened for in the newborn?

A

o Pre-ductal (right hand) oximetry
o Identifies duct dependent circulation (shock after 1-2 days)
o Keep duct open by PG

39
Q

When is the heel-prick test performed? What does it screen for?

A
o Within 5-7 days.
o Congenital hypothyroidism
o CF (high IRT => DNA)
o 6 IEM:
§ MSUD
§ MCAD
§ PKU
§ HCU
§ Isovaleric academia
§ Glutaric aciduria type 1
40
Q

What are the causes of HIE?

A

o Antenatal: Placenta, cord, maternal, fetal

o Labour: Asphyxia (Only if)
Acidosis in labour
Needed resuscitation
Born with HIE features
Multi-organ failure
No ante or post natal cause identified other

o Post-natal: Kernicterus, IEM

41
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of HIE?

A

o Mild: Irritable, hyperventilation, Staring eyes.
o Moderate: seizure, hypotonia, feeding problems.
o Severe: Refractory seizures, multi-organ failure.

42
Q

What is the Mgt and prognosis of HIE?

A

Therapeutic hypothermia:
Rectal T at 33 for 3 days for those 36 weeks onward with
M-S HIE (NNT = 8)
Supportive and monitor by amplitude-integrated EEG (confirm
encephalopathy and monitor seizures).
Mild => Recover.
Moderate => Can recover. Severe => CP

43
Q

What are the types of neonatal extra cranial haemorrhage?

A

o Caput: Under skin, crosses sutures
o Cephalohaematoma: Between bone and peri-ostium, confined
by sutures, usually parietal and has soft centre
o Chignon: Oedema and bruising from Ventouse delivery.
o Sub-aponeurotic (Sub-galeal) bleeding: Can cause shock.

44
Q

What are the common problems encountered by pre-term infants?

A
o RDS
o NEC
o IVH
o Metabolic
o Hypothermia
o Hypotension and PDA
o Haematological
o Sepsis
o Jaundice
o Nutrition
o RoP
45
Q
RDS &amp; pneumothorax
RF
Clinical presentation 
DX 
Mgt
A

RF: Pre-maturity, CS, DM

Presentation: Resp distress (Cyanosis, apnoea, recessions, tachy), => Pneumothorax if : increased O2 requirements,
decreased chest movements and breath sounds on the affected
side.

DX: CXR; ground glass appearance => Transillumnation
(pneumothorax)

Mgt: Decompression by chest drain (PNX). Surfactant X 2 (by endotracheal tube, CPAP) (RDS)

46
Q

What are the features and TX of PDA:

A
Increased O2 requirement and difficulty weaning of mechanical
ventilation.
o Bounding pulses
o Machinery murmur
o Active precordium
o TX: Ibuprofen => Ligation
47
Q

What are the principles of O2 therapy in infants?

A

o Use air if Term
o Use 21-30% O2 if pre-term
Sats > 95% RoP
Sats < 91% NEC

48
Q

What are the types of newborn venous access and what are their
specific indications?

A

o Peripheral IV: Routine
o Umbilical venous: Resuscitation, PREM, Hyper-osmolar
o Umbilical artery: BP monitoring, frequent blood gas analysis

49
Q

NEC

RF
Clinical presentation 
DX 
Mgt
Comp
A

RF: PREM, formula-fed.

CP: Abdominal distension, bile-stained vomiting, PR bleeding
+/- peritonitis

DX: X-Ray, trans illumination

Mgt: Supportive or surgery (perforation)

Comp: Peritonitis, sepsis, strictures, malabsorption

50
Q

What is the IVH?

How is it classified?

A

Bleeding in the germinal matrix (floor of lateral ventricles, above
caudate nucleus), may extend into the ventricles or brain
parenchyma.

Grade 1: Bleeding in GM
Grade 2: Blood in ventricles
Grade 3: Ventricular distension
Grade 4: Parenchymal bleed

51
Q

what is peri-ventricular leukomalacia

A

inflammation => cysts and loss of white matter => Diplegic cerebral palsy

DX: Head US.
Complications: CP (PVL, Grades 3-4), hydrocephalus

52
Q

Retinopathy of prematurity? What is the treatment?

A

Vascular proliferation at the junction of vascularised and nonvascularised
retina => Fibrosis => detachment and blindness.

TX: Anti-VEGF and laser

53
Q

causes of neonatal jaundice?

A

< 24 hrs: Haemolysis (ABO: O mum and A baby, Rh,
Polycythaemia, Bruising, G6PD, HSC),
congenital infection

24h-2 W: Physiological, breast milk

> 2 W: Conjugated (Physiological, breast milk). Unconjugated >25 (Bile duct obstruction, neonatal hepatitis).

54
Q

What is the treatment of neonatal jaundice?

A

Hydration and Phototherapy => Intensive phototherapy
=> IVIG
=> Exchange transfusion (if severe) => Phenobarbital (very rarely).

55
Q

What are the main considerations in neonatal assessment?

A

o SGA WRT
S: Severity (Transcutaneous Bilimeter, blood sample). >
17 mg/dl is pathological
G: Gestation: PREM?
A: Age of Oncet: < 1 day or after 7-10: worrisome
W: Well? Sepsis? Dehydration?

R: Risk factors (Haemolysis, infection, Hepatitis, biliary
obstruction)
• FBC, blood film, DCT, blood types.
• Sepsis work-up, MSU for UTI
• Congenital infection screen
• Urinalysis for reducing substances (Galactosemia)
• A1AT
• HIDA scan
• CF sweat test

T: Treatment needed? Plot on gestation specific chart
and monitor change velocity to predict severity.

56
Q

respiratory distress in infants

Signs:

A
Tachypnea
Tachycardia
Increased work of breathing
• Accessory muscles
• Sub-costal and intercostal recessions
• Sternal retractions
Nasal flaring
Expiratory grunting
Cyanosis
57
Q

respiratory distress in infants

Causes:

A
Transient tachypnea of the newborn
RDS, Pneumothorax
Pneumonia
Aspiration (Meconium, milk)
CHD
Diaphragmatic hernia.
HIE
58
Q

What are the most common causes of neonatal sepsis?

o Early onset:

A

Time: < 48 hours.
Source: Ascended from birth canal (GBS, E-COLI) or
through placenta (Congenital infection, Listeria).
CP: pneumonia and sepsis. Listeria: Typically meconium
stained liquor and rash.
Mgt: Septic screen, CXR => IV amoxicillin and gentamicin
+/- CSF => Ceftriaxone

59
Q

What are the most common causes of neonatal sepsis?

o Late-onset:

A

Time: > 48 hours
Source: Nosocomial (CoNS and G-)
CP: Non-specific
Mgt: Same: TX: IV Fluoxacillin + gentamicin

60
Q

What are the indications for Intrapartum antibiotics prophylaxis for GBS?

A
Previous infant with GBS disease
Urine/ blood isolate
Pre-term labour
Pyrexia in labour
PPROM and Prolonged ROM > 18 hrs
61
Q

What are the causes of neonatal strokes?

A
o HIE
o CP
o Hypoglycaemia
o Meningitis
o Vascular (Ischemia, haemorrhage)
o Malformations
62
Q

What are the causes, embryology, complications and Mgt of cleft
lip and palate?

A

o Causes:
Inherited (polygenic)
Syndromes (Chromosomal)
Maternal anti-convulsants
o Lip: failure of frontonasal and maxillary fusion
o Palate: Failure of palatine and nasal processes fusion
o Complications: Feeding and OM
o Mgt: Lip: Closed at 3 M. Palate: Closed at 6-12 months

63
Q

presentation of oesophageal atresia?

A

o Absent stomach pubble on antenatal scan
o Constant drooling, salivation
o Feeding: cough, chock, Cyanosis and aspiration
o Continuous suction => surgical repair

64
Q

small bowel obstruction
causes
presentation
Mgt

A

o Causes: Duodenal atresia (DS), volvulus.
o CP: Bile-stained vomiting, absent meconium, abdominal
distension.

65
Q

large bowel
obstruction
causes

A

o HSP disease (DS)

o Rectal atresia