Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CPP Cert Study Flash Cards > Personnel Security (12%) > Flashcards

Personnel Security (12%) Flashcards

1
Q

Civil Rights

What does the Civil Rights Act of 1964 entail

A

Prohibits discrimination, failure or refusal to hire, discharge, limitation, segregation, or classification in any way adverse to an employee or employment applicant on the basis of race, color, religion, sex, or national origin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Civil Rights

Together with the Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 & the Equal Pay Act of 1963, make up a formidable federal legal arsenal to suppress discrimination in employment

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Civil Rights

Bringing a charge under federal civil rights law results in an investigation by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC)

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Civil Rights

Created by the Civil Rights Act of 1964

A

Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Civil Rights

Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC)

A

Investigates employment discrimination that violates Title VII of the Civil Rights Act and its amendments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Civil Rights History

  • 24th Amendment to the Constitution barred poll taxes in 1964
  • US Supreme Court ruled “one man, one vote” in 1964
  • Civil Rights Act of 1964
  • Affirmative action began in the early 1960’s & guidelines were toughened in 1969 & 1970
  • The EEOC & office of Federal Contract Compliance helped make significant progress in minority and female employment opportunities
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Civil Rights

American’s with Disabilities Act (ADA) 1990

  • Expanded the Access Board’s mandate to include
A
  • Developing the accessibility guidelines for facilities & vehicles covered by the law
  • Providing technical assistance & training on the guidelines
  • Conducting research to support & maintain the guidelines
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Civil Rights

Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)

A
  • Title 1 addresses attitudinal barriers
  • Titles 2 & 3 address physical barriers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Civil Rights

What is the key to accommodating disabled persons?

A

Accessibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Civil Rights

A permanent or transitory psychological, physiological, or anatomical loss or abnormality of structure or function, such as an amputated limb, paralysis after polio, diabetes, mental retardation, impaired hearing, near-sightedness

A

Impairment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Civil Rights

Restriction on, or prevention of, carrying out an activity because of an impairment in the manner or within the range considered normal for a human, such as a difficulty in walking, seeing, speaking, hearing, counting, lifting, reading, writing, etc…

A

Disability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Civil Rights

A disability that interferes with what is expected at a particular time in one’s life such as an inability to care for oneself

A

Handicap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Civil Rights

Occurs when some employees or applicants are treated less favorably than others, based on race, color religion, sex, or national origin; plaintiff must prove intent

A

Disparate Treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Civil Rights

Occurs when an employer’s practices, though facially neutral, fall more harshly on one group or another, without a justification of business necessity, no proof of intent is required

A

Disparate Impact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Civil Rights

A selection rate for any race, sex, or ethnic group less than 4/5 of the rate for the group with the highest rate will generally be regarded by federal enforcement agencies as evidence of adverse impact

A

“Four-Fifths Rule”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Civil Rights

Requires employers to give equal pay for equal work regardless of age, sex, national origin, etc…

A

Equal Pay Act (1963)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Civil Rights

EEOC Definition of Harassment

A

Unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, and other verbal or physical conduct of a sexual nature constitute sexual harassment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Civil Rights

Harassment

A
  • Submission to such conduct is made either explicitly or implicitly a term on condition of an individual’s employment
  • Submission to a rejection of such conduct by an individual is used as the basis for employment decisions affecting such individuals
  • Such conduct has the purpose or effect of unreasonably interfering with an individual’s work performance or creating an intimidating, hostile or offensive working environment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Civil Rights

BFOQ

Bona fide Occupational Qualification

(Title 7 of the Civil Rights Acts of 1964)

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Civil Rights

The member of a “favored” or majority group alleges that he or she was the victim of discrimination by a member of a “disfavored” or minority group

A

Reverse Discrimination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Civil Rights

The employer does not discriminate against the entire class, such as all women, but only against a subcategory of the class, such as women with children, married women, or women of childbearing age

A

Sex Plus Discrimination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Labor Law

Taken together, the following make up the bulk of the national labor relations law of the US

A
  • The National Labor Relations Act (Wagner Act 1935)
  • Labor-Management Relations Act (Taft-Hartley Act 1947)
  • Labor-Management Reporting & Disclosure Act (Landrum-Griffin Act 1959)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Labor Law

National Labor Relations Act

(NLRA 1935)

A
  • Most significant “foundational” labor relations law
  • Known as the “Wagner Act” after its sponsor Senator Robert Wagner, it remains the fundamental charter of organized labor
  • Gave workers the right to representation in collective bargaining
  • Amended in 1947 by the Taft-Hartley Act
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Labor Law

Labor Management Relations Act (1947)

A

Known as the Taft-Hartley Act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Labor Law

Labor-Management Reporting & Disclosure Act (1959)

A

Known as Landrum-Griffin Act

Prohibited “hot cargo” agreements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Labor Law

Voluntary agreements between a union and a neutral employer by which the employer agrees to cease handling or otherwise dealing with the products of a company with which the union has a dispute

A

“Hot Cargo” Agreements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Labor Law

Activities defined as unfair labor practices by the NLRA

A
  • Interfering with restraining or coercing employees in the exercise of their rights
  • Dominating or interfering with the information of any Labor organization or contributing financial or other support to it
  • Encouraging or discouraging membership in any labor organization
  • Discharging or discriminating against any employee because he or she filed charges or gave testimony under NLRA
  • Refusing to bargain with representatives of a majority of the employees in the bargaining unit
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Labor Law

What is a basic test of unfair labor practice?

A

Whether it results in or is likely to result in, the kind of coercion or discrimination prohibited by the NLRD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Labor Law

Secure activities that may contribute to unfair labor practice charges

A
  • controlling admittance to the work site through checkpoints
  • Addressing the presence or distribution of union literature on employer property
  • Investigating the background or activities of a job application or current employees
  • Security investigations into protected, legal union activities can be considered unfair labor practices
  • Use of undercover investigations during periods of labor turmoil or during an organizing campaign is particularly perilous
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Labor Law

Security activities that may contribute to unfair labor practice…ctd

A
  • undercover investigators should avoid learning about union activities when investigating legitimate concerns, and should not report such information if learned
  • Background investigations that inquire about prior union membership, in conjunction with a finding of more-than-random rejection of applicants with union background may be considered an unfair labor practice
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Labor Law

Types of strikes

A

Economic Strike

Unfair Labor Practice Strike

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Labor Law

Strike Planning

(three phases of planning

A

Pre-strike Planning

Strike Operations

Post strike analysis & evaluation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Labor Law

Planning for a strike begins with?

A

The first indication a strike my occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Labor Law

Executive management should develop a temporary organization chart that clearly delegates on-the-spot decision-making authority to one or more individuals who will always be present

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Labor Law

Central Planning Center

A
  • Coordinates matters concerning internal operations & strike strategy and includes executive liaison
  • The senior executive should be located here
  • Security planning center: coordinates physical security matters; the senior security executive should be located here
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Labor Law

The chief weapon of strikers other than withholding their labor is…?

A

Discourage access to the facility & prevent shipments to/from the facility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Labor Law

The basic premise for planning access to a struck facility is…?

A

To use the fewest entries possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Labor Law

Where should the labor strike entry be?

A
  • Located in areas easily policed
  • They should be situated so that loss of control by police would produce traffic control problems
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Labor Law

Normally vehicular access to a struck facility is preferred

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Labor Law

It is important to refrain from documenting ____ activities but to be sure to document ____activities as fully as possible?

A
  • Avoid documenting legal activities
  • Be sure to document illegal activities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Labor Law

What legal doctrine of precedent does not apply to arbitration

A

Starte Decisis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Labor Law

Objectives of Security handling strikes

A
  • Prevent injury & property damage
  • Preserve the integrity of the work site for the early resumption of normal activities
  • Maintain order
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Labor Law

Security must do the following to meet its objectives during a strike

A
  • Plan properly
  • Deploy resources effectively
  • Respond quickly to incidents
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Labor Law

Security must be seen as taking what kind of position during labor disputes?

A

Neutral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Labor Law

Directions to field security must come directly from who?

A

Security Department

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Labor Law

The most important external relationship during a strike is with who?

A

Local Police

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Labor Law

In the handling of strikes, it is best to follow what?

A

Incident Command Protocols

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Labor Law - Strikes

What is the “clear zone”?

It should be maintained between the perimeter & parked vehicles or stored materials

A

65 - 100 ft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Labor Law

This better zone (clear zone) serves 3 purposes

A
  1. Moves target a considerable distance from the picket time
  2. It creates a clear area in which any person is immediately obvious
  3. it establishes a positive line of demarcation between company security forces & police
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Labor Law

An existing guard force should be placed on emergency status to maintain maximum manpower during peak periods

A

Overlapping shifts often provides this coverage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Labor Law

If no guard force is available, supervisory personnel should be organized into a patrol group

A

The patrol function is not to enforce the law but to detect the presence of a crime & promptly report to the police

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Labor Law - After Strike

When the strike ends, what should security do immediately?

A

Quickly dismantle perimeter strike measures & restore the appearance of normal operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Labor Law

It is critical that police commanders be informed immediately when a strike ends

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Employee Screening

Verification of applicant-provided information

A

Background Check

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Employee Screening

Active search for information uncovers hidden information

A

Background Investigation or Screening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Employee Screening

What can be used alone or in conjunction with other information to identify a specific person

A

Personally identifiable information (PII) or Identifying Information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Employee Screening

A piece or pieces of information that can be associated with a unique individual & can result in harm to the individual if misused, particularly with regard to identifying theft

A

Sensitive PII (SPII)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Employee Screening

The best way to avoid employee theft?

A

Don’t hire a thief; the best way not to hire a thief is to investigate a potential employee’s background

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Employee Screening

The best prevention of exposure to workplace violence is…

A

Pre-employment Background Investigation Program

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Employee Screening

Industries subject to governmental regulations for background screening typically

A
  • Involve contact with vulnerable populations such as children or the elderly
  • Require professional licensing
  • Presents some type of high risk
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Employee Screening

The obligation to maintain a safe workplace arises from common law, including the following legal principles

A

- Premises Liability

- Respondent Superior

- Sexual & other forms of harassment prohibitions

- Negligence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Employee Screening

The value of an objective, fair, & competent pre-employment background screening is…?

A

That it will permit determination of facts not otherwise verifiable or known

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Employee Screening

As with many security programs, what first requires support from upper-management?

A

Development of a pre-employment screening & background investigation program

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Employee Screening

A comprehensive, legally permissible, fairly executed background investigation & pre-employment screening program is confirmatory** & **investigative in nature

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Employee Screening

In the pre-employment background screening process, as with any part of the hiring process, what 2 things are vital?

A

Consistency & Relevance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Employee Screening

Benefits of a pre-employment screening program

A
  • Discourages applicants with something to hide
  • Encourages applicants to be honest during the interview process
  • Applicants know the information they provide will be scrutinized
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Employee Screening

Benefits of a Pre-employment Screening Program (ctd…)

A
  • Demonstrates due diligence
  • Ensures that the candidate has the background, education, experience, & skills he or she claims
  • Hiring decisions can be based on facts, not instincts or promises
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Screening

The scope of the pre-employment background screen typically addresses 3 key elements

A
  1. Identity verification
  2. Personal history verification
  3. Credentialing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Screening

Screening programs vary according to…

A
  • Access to information
  • Nature of the position
  • Potential liability associated with incorrect job performance
  • Industry regulations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Screening

Generally, the higher the levels of responsibility the more involved the pre-employment screening should be

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Screening

What is the “common foundation” of pre-employment screening programs include?

A

Data Collection & Background Investigation/Screening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Screening

What is important to have already established prior to beginning any pre-employment background screening process

A

Company policies on the scope of the screens & handling of results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Screening

What does the investigator not do in a background investigation?

A

Does not reveal derogatory information received from interviews or other sources to subsequent interviewees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Screening

A pre-employment screening policy should be…

A

Cost-effective & conduct the most expensive components of the process last

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Screening

The primary reasons for governmental restrictions on pre-employment screening

A

Privacy & Data Protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Screening

The information that background investigation databases provide should be treated as supplimental

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Screening

Employers must disclose negative findings to an applicant & allow him or her to correct false or misapplied information

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Screening

According to the FCRA “a denial of employment or any other decision for employment purposes that adversely affects any correct or prospective employee”

A

Adverse Action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Screening

Required to inform the consumer that adverse action has been taken

A

Adverse Action Notice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Screening

Criminal convictions are typically public information (Defined under FOIA as…)?

A

“Public Interest Issues”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Screening

Overseen by the FTC?

A

Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Screening

FCRA

Established specific requirements that apply when an employer uses a third party to help conduct a pre-employment background screen and generate a consumer report for the employer

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

FCRA

Addresses the rights & obligations of four groups

A
  1. Consumer reporting agencies
  2. Users of consumer information
  3. Furnishers of consumer information
  4. Consumers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

FCRA

A consumer report or portion thereof in which information on a consumer’s character, general reputation, personal characteristics, or mode of living is obtained through personal interviews with neighbors, friends, associates or those with knowledge of the consumer

A

Investigative Consumer Report

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Screening

There is no FTC/FCRA rule that consumer information must be destroyed, however, the law does contain provisions for the destruction of the information should an employer choose to do so

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Screening

A claim must be made within 2 years of learning of the discrimination and not more than 5 yrs. after the discriminatory act

A

FCRA Statute of Limitations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Screening

FLRA limitations on reporting of criminal history

A
  • Arrest records: within the last 7 years
  • Conviction records: no limit
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Screening

If employers or recruiters use the internet directly without engaging the services of a CRA, the federal FCRA is not involved and its restrictions do not apply

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Screening

Government Records

A government program available to employers to verify an individual’s identity & right to work status, & can only be used after acceptance of an offer of employment & execution of an I9

A

E-Verify

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Military Records

Certificate of release or discharge from Active Duty

A

DD - 214

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Applications & Resumes

Verifying the experience & qualifications presented by the applicant

A

“Credentialing”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Applications & Resumes

Provides the first indication of whether an applicant is qualified for a position

A

Resume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Screening

The most common discrepancies in resumes

A

Education

Job Titles

Dates of Employment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Screening (Applications & Resumes)

Irrespective of whether the applicant offers a resume the employer should require the applicant complete a standard application form, which should be designed by the company

A
  • It is important for a company not to accept a resume in lieu of an employment application or complete work history, because it is a promotional device, and it is difficult to hold an applicant strictly accountable for the information it contains
  • Employment applications are the basic starting point for pre-employment screening
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Screening

What helps ensure uniformity, the obtaining of all necessary information, & a place for applicants to sign certain necessary statements

A

Employment Application

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Screening

Since applications are legally considered tests to determine suitability for a position, they must not have an adverse impact on applicant’s who are part of a protected class

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Screening

Applicant falsifications generally fall into 2 categories

A
  • Willful omissions of material facts
  • Misrepresentations of material facts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Screening

Some individuals believe the information provided by personal (listed) references is of no value because they are friends & would only say good things about the subject

A
  • Actual experience shows this often not true
  • Personal references may gratuitously provide information unfavorable to the person who listed them
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Screening

Ideally, criminal information should be requested int he broadest possible context such as requesting information on convictions, guilty pleas & nolo contendere

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Screening

Red flags on the application

A
  • Unassigned forms
  • Incomplete addresses or use of post office box numbers
  • Names of school but not the dates of attendance, or the degrees conferred
  • School w/ unfamiliar names
  • Conflicting dates of employment, education, or military service
  • Gaps in employment (all gaps in employment or life history, if more than one month, should be investigated)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Screening

Red Flags (contd…)

A
  • Changes of occupation/trade
  • Sketchy employment information or former employer out of business
  • Social security number variance
  • Omission of reasons for leaving
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Screening

A well-planned & executed interview can accomplish three goals

A
  1. Convoy critical information to the applicant in order to discourage inappropriate applicants and to encourage honesty
  2. Allow for the transfer of missing information from the applicant to the employer
  3. Permit an assessment of the candidate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Screening

Applicant interviews should be conducted in person

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Screening

Selection tools or tests…

A
  • Should be used in combination to make a hiring decision
  • Must be interpreted correctly
  • May have consequences for the organization if improperly administered
  • Personality test
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Screening

This type of testing is particularly helpful in determining an applicant’s compatibility with a position

A

Personality Tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Screening

Integrity or honest test

Measure an applicant’s propensity toward undesirable behaviors

A
  • Lying
  • Stealing
  • Drug or alcohol abuse
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Screening

Two categories for integrity or honesty tests

A
  1. Overt or direct testing asks explicit questions about an applicant’s past dishonest acts or behaviors
  2. Personality-oriented or indirect tests examine concepts such as dependability & respect for authority
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Screening

Intelligence Tests

A
  • Consist of logic problems, word problems, pattern identification & other questions
  • Intelligence is a good predictor of job performance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Aptitude Tests

Measure cognitive ability in a particular area, such as…

A
  • Memory recall
  • Vocabulary
  • Numerical perception
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Screening

Two most common cases for drug testing are…

A
  • Pre-employment
  • Random
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Screening

Drug testing policy must be communicated to all applicants & employees

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Screening

What should be treated as confidential medical information to protect employee privacy & avoid liability

A

Substance abuse test results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Screening

Requires all businesses connected with the federal government & receiving grants over $25,000 to certify they have policies for creating & maintaining a drug-free workplace

A

Drug-Free Workplace Act of 1988

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Screening

The DHHS-5 refers to the five controlled substances (in addition to alcohol) an employer may test for under federal regulations

A

Marijuana

Cocaine

Amphetamines

Opiates

PCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Screening

Under the ADA, what are not considered medical examinations? but alcohol tests are?

A

Drug Tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Screening

Preliminary Drug Tests

A
  • Immunoassays
  • Radioimmunoassays (most accurate)
  • Thin layer chromatography (most common & least expensive)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Screening

Confirmatory Drug Tests

A
  • Highly accurate & identify the type of drug or metabolite present, & its concentration
  • High-performance liquid chromatography
  • Gas chromatography
  • Gas chromatography/mass spectrometry (most accurate)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Screening

Federal law requires testing of urine for drugs and saliva or breath for alcohol although states have latitude

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Screening

For failure to split a drug test sample in a state that requires it, a terminated employee must be reinstated

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Screening - Polygraph Tests

Generally used in 3 types of applications

A
  • Criminal investigations
  • Periodic employee testing
  • Pre-employment screening
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Screening - Polygraph Tests

Rarely used for pre-employment screening with some questions

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Screening - Polygraph Tests

Contemporary polygraph equipment measures 3 responses simultatenously

A

Breathing Pattern

Blood Pressure & Pulse

Skin Resistance to External Current

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Screening - Polygraph Tests

Which stage is the most important stage in the polygraph process?

A

Pre-stage of Questioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Screening - Polygraph Tests

Most important elements of success in polygraph use

A
  • Relevant-irrelevant (R-I) technique: may produce many false-positives
  • Control Question (CQ) technique
  • Directed lie control (DLC) technique
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Screening - Polygraph Tests

An extremely nervous person does not make a suitable subject for an examination

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Screening - Polygraph Tests

Prohibits any private employer (engaged in or affecting interstate commerce, or producing goods for interstate commerce) from requiring & employee or candidate to take any lie detector test, or from using the results of any lie detector test

A

Employee Polygraph Protection Act (EPPA 1988)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Screening - Polygraph

A polygraph, dictagraph, voice stress analyzer, psychological stress evaluator, or similar device, whether mechanical or electrical, that is used or whose results are used to reach an opinion as the honesty of an individual

A

Lie Detector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Screening - Polygraph

An instrument that continuously, visually, permanently, & simultaneously records changes in cardiovascular (blood pressure) respiratory (breathing) & electrodermal (skin electrical property) patterns

A

Polygraph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Screening

Employer’s primary business consists of providing armored car, security alarm, or other security personnel

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Screening - Polygraph Tests

Employer’s function includes the protection of

A
  • facilities, materials, or operations having a significant impact on US national security or the health or safety of any state
  • Currency negotiable instruments precious commodities or instruments or proprietary information
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Screening - Polygraphs

Applies to testing by any employer manufacturing distributing controlled substances in any of the first four schedules of the Controlled Substances Act, under the following conditions

A

Drug Security Exemption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Screening - Polygraph Tests

Government & National Security Exemption

A
  • Department of Defense (DoD)
  • Department of Energy (DoE)
  • Central Intelligence Agency (CIA)
  • Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA)
  • National Security Agency (NSA)
  • Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Screening - Polygraph

Prohibited in the private workplace for firms regulated under the EPPA

A

Voice stress analyzer & the EPPA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Workplace Violence

OSHA requires employers provide a safe workplace, and some states require similar conditions

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Workplace Violence

OSHA General Duty Clause

This duty is extended to the necessity of due diligence to ensure new hires do not pose a foreseeable risk

A

Each employer shall furnish to each of its employees & a place of employment free from recognized hazards causing or likely to cause death or serious physical harm to his employees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

OSHA General Duty Clause

The best prevention of exposure to workplace violence?

A

A pre-employment background investigation program

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

OSHA General Duty Clause

What are the primary prevention strategies against insider threats such as theft, workplace violence, and substance abuse

A

Applicant screening & employee socialization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

OSHA Workplace Violence Typology

Type 1: Strangers

No relationship exists between the perpetrator, the victim or target & the organization

A
  • Generally consists of serious crimes such as robberies & acts terrorism
  • Accounts for the majority of workplace homicides
  • Typical impact includes convenience stores and other retail establishment, taxis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

OSHA Workplace Violence Typology

Type 2: Customers

A business relationship existed or exists between the perpetrator & the organization

A
  • includes customers, clients, patients, students, inmates & other recipients of services from an organization
  • Typical impact includes healthcare providers, prisons, schools
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

OSHA Workplace Violence Typology

Type 3: Employees

The perpetrator had or has an employment relationship with the organization

A
  • Perpetrators include employees, former employees Independent contractors & temporary workers
  • Impacts all industries & organization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

OSHA Workplace Violence Typology

Type 4: Domestic Partners

The perpetrator is a former or current intimate party of an employee

A
  • Perpetrators include current & former spouses & domestic partners, family members & those who currently are or have been involved in a dating relationship with the employee
  • Impact all industries & organizations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Workplace Violence

The majority responsibility for establishing a workplace violence prevention & intervention program & conducting incident management will largely fall on which departments?

A

HR

Security

Legal Personnel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Workplace Violence

The long-term solution to each situation of potential violence lies where?

A

Understanding the emotional & mental state of the aggressor & diverting him from violence not solely in strengthening security measures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

The best prevention of workplace violence…?

A

Early Intervention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Workplace violence needs assessment

A

Evaluate any specific risks of violence affecting the workplace & readiness to respond to them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Most distinctive & important elements of a violence risk assessment program

A

Behavioral Recognition

Notification

Assessment

Intervention by planned disruption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Simplest roles of the Incident Management Team (IMT)

A
  • Receive & assess reports of workplace violence aggression, threats, stalking or potential violence
  • Gather further info as necessary
  • Intervene as appropriate to maintain the safety of the organization & personnel
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

It is essential that the IMT be empowered to commit company assets & personnel to resolve an incident

150
Q

Workplace Violence

Three levels of assessment for known aggressors

A
  1. Initial (“triage”) - determine if an immediate response is needed
  2. Threshold - determines if action is required or just monitoring based on thresholds considering
  3. Comprehensive - Uses detailed information
151
Q

One of the differences between behavioral investigative analysis (profiling) & violence risk assessment

A

Profiling is used to exclude people from an investigative pool of subjects so as to conserve investigative resources

Violence Risk assessment is focused on a particular individuals risk of committing a violent act

152
Q

Behavioral Assessment is…

A

Information - Intensive

153
Q

Workplace Violence

The ADA & related state laws do not offer protections to mentally-disordered employees who present what?

A

A “direct threat” of violence to the organization as legally defined

154
Q

Emotion-based (the vast majority of aggressors)

A

Affective Violence

155
Q

Workplace Violence

Unemotional (much more complex intervention process)

A

Psychopathic Violence

156
Q

Workplace Violence

Top 5 risk factors for homicide resulting from an abusive relationship (as identified by the DOJ)

A
  • Has the abuser ever used or threatened to use a gun, knife, or another weapon against abused
  • Has the abuser threatened to kill or injure the abused employee?
  • Has the abuser ever tried to strangle (choke) the abused employee?
  • Is abuser violently or constantly jealous?

Has abuser ever forced the abused employee to have sex?

157
Q

At a police agency’s request, the FBI’s NCAVC (National Center for the Analysis of Violent Crime) may agree to conduct a violence risk assessment and advise on what?

A

Possible intervention strategies, if the employee is assessed as presenting a serious risk of violence

158
Q

Intervention & Resolution

A
  • Primary goal: short-term and long-term safety of the target
  • The overriding consideration is to do no harm to either the target or the aggressor
159
Q

Intervention Options

A
  • Interviews including “knock & talks”
  • Administrative or disciplinary actions, including fitness for duty evaluations
  • Cease-and-desist requests (oral or written)
  • No trespass orders
  • Restraining or protective orders
  • Voluntary or involuntary mental health evaluations
  • Criminal case filing & prosecution
  • Probation & parole with close monitoring
160
Q

The choice of an intervention type depends on?

A
  • Assessment of the aggressor’s probable reaction to the intervention
  • Whether the intervention has a probability of correcting the aggressor’s perception of the target
161
Q

Any form of communications or interaction whether direct or indirect should be…?

A

Considered an Intervention

162
Q

Because of Law Enforcement’s average response time to crimes of violence (>11 min. in 40% of cases) and a company’s prior knowledge of the risk, what would be the only defensible option?

A

To use properly qualified private security personnel

163
Q

What should be one of the planned responses in the case of threats of workplace violence?

A

(at a predetermined threshold of assessed potential for immediate, physical violence) a response by correctly trained, armed personnel who will handle the situation

164
Q

Studies have shown the majority of protective or restraining orders aid in what?

A

Cessation of Violence

165
Q

Monitoring

Critical & underappreciated part of the violence risk assessment process

A

Monitoring for new behavior

166
Q

What does Passive monitoring rely on?

A

The target & others who might witness new behavior to report to the IMT on a timely basis

  • Effective only in very low-risk cases in which a lapse in immediate reporting would not lead to a significant risk of harm
167
Q

What is the assessor actively pursues new behavioral information rather than passively waiting for a report

A

Active Monitoring

  • The more elevated the risk, the more often the contacts are made
  • The best option for a moderate-to-high-risk situation or one in which regular reports cannot be relied upon
168
Q

Workplace Violence

Symptoms of reduced morale & productivity after workplace violence may include…

A

Absenteeism

Sick Leave

Work Slowdowns

Management & Worker Distractions

General Disruption

169
Q

International Security

3 Stages of most corporate contingency plans for international travelers

A
  1. Alert state
  2. Preparation for evacuation stage
  3. Evacuation stage (May include “stand-fast”)
170
Q

International Security

International Evacuation plans should include

A

Policy statement

General Security requirements for office, vehicle & home

Crisis management team

Alert levels

Action plans

171
Q

International Security

Countermeasures that may be employed for foreign travel and operations

A

General Intelligence briefings

Threat-specific briefings

Intelligence forecasts

Contingency & evacuation planning

172
Q

International Security

Some forms of encryption may be illegal in some countries

173
Q

What Act prohibits a US person making a payment to a foreign official for the purpose of obtaining or retaining business for or with, or directing business to any person

A

Foreign Corrupt Practice Act

(FCPA)

174
Q

International Security

The abduction of a hostage in order to coerce someone else into committing a crime such as planting a bomb or robbing a bank

A

Tiger Kidnapping

175
Q

Employee Substance Abuse

What insurance typically covers ransom & extortion payments as a result of a kidnapping or extortion threat

A

Kidnap Ransom & Extortion Insurance

(KR & E or KRE)

176
Q

Employee Substance Abuse

A chemical substance that alters one of the following states of the user

A

Drug

physical, behavioral, psychological, emotion

177
Q

Legal or illegal psychoactive substances which affect the central nervous system & impair thinking & sensory input distorting perception of reality

A

Drugs of Abuse

178
Q

Employee Substance Abuse

Substance-Abusers

A
  • Have difficulty getting along with others
  • Tend to withdraw from friends & be more secretive
  • Avoid opportunities to socialize with non-abusers
179
Q

Employee Substance House

Comprehensive Substance Abuse Prevention and Control Act (CSA)

Who is responsible for enforcement & oversight of the classification

A

Drug Enforcement Administration

(DEA)

180
Q

Employee Substance Abuse

Drug-free workplace policies should avoid what phrase which applies only to alcohol (legally)?

A

“Under the Influence”

181
Q

Employee Substance Abuse

Organizations (supervisors, managers etc…) who are in denial…

A
  • Fail to create substance abuse policies
  • Fail to enforce the policies they have
  • Fail to respond to workplace incidents involving substance abuse
182
Q

Employee Substance Abuse

Managers and supervisors enforcing workplace substance abuse policy should be expected to do what?

A

Evaluate employee performance & be able to take remedial action when the performance is not adequate

183
Q

Employee Substance Abuse

An abuser may have surrendered relationships a home, a car, savings & other things, but the last thing to go is typical?…

A

The job which represents a “normal” life

184
Q

Employee Substance Abuse

Failure of intervention may result in what?…

A

An employee who exhibits resentment, uncaring & anger

185
Q

What is the practice of the dealer retaining a “pinch” of product for his own use to compensate for “credit” purchases by the buyer?

A

“Pinching”

186
Q

Alteration of normal body functions requiring the presence of a drug to prevent withdrawal

A

Dependence

187
Q

Employee Substance Abuse

An integral component of addiction; physiological craving brought on by chemical changes in the body, mental & physical. Denial of the drug causes withdrawal, which may be painful or violent

A

Chemical Dependency

188
Q

Employee Substance Abuse

A shortened duration & decreased intensity of a drug’s effect, leading to the need to consume larger doses for the same effect

189
Q

The disease of compulsion

190
Q

Employee Substance Abuse

Addiction may be an attraction to the social behavior around using the drug as much as the drug itself

191
Q

Employee Substance Abuse

3 Stages of Addiction

A
  1. increased tolerance, occasional memory lapse, lying about quantity & frequency of use, concern from other starts to rise, behavioral changes start to occur
  2. Increase in rationalization more frequent lying unreasonable resentment suspiciousness increased irritability, remorse, pleading for forgiveness, promising change, increased insolation
  3. Obsession a way of life, frequent memory loss, unusual accidents, unexplained absences, on-the-job impairment, paranoia, depression, anger, legal problems, home & work problems
192
Q

Employee Substance Abuse

Addiction

Requires a drug to function normally, often keep steady jobs, work regular hours, have families, & appear happy

A

Functional Abusers

193
Q

Addiction

Taking a drug repeatedly, in increasing doses

A

Binging or Bingeing

194
Q

Addiction

The sensation of insects creeping on the skin

A

Formication

195
Q

Addiction

What is the practice of injecting as much as a gram of methamphetamine every 2 to 3 hours over several days until the user runs out of the drug or is tax disorganized to continue

A

A “run”

196
Q

Addiction

Regular users of methamphetamine

A

“Speedsters” or “Crankster

197
Q

Enabling

Consciously or unconsciously allowing or encouraging the destructive behavior of others, shielding the abuser from the full impact & consequences of their abuse

198
Q

Enabling often extends from…?

199
Q

Enabling

Management enablers of substance abusers

A
  • Cover up for the abuser
  • Accept the abuser’s excuses
  • Believe the abuser’s rationalizations
200
Q

Employee Substance Abuse

Occurs when the behavior of another overshadow one’s own values & judgment

A

Codependency

201
Q

Drug Classification

Schedule 1

High potential for abuse

No accepted use in medical treatment in the US

202
Q

Drug Classification (schedules)

Schedule 2

  • High potential for abuse
  • Has an accepted medical use in the US with severe restrictions
  • Abuse may lead to severe psychological or physical dependency
203
Q

Drug Classifications (Schedules)

Schedule 3

  • Potential for abuse less than schedules 1 & 2
  • Has an accepted medical use in the US
  • Abuse may lead to moderate or low physical dependence or high psychological dependence
204
Q

Drug Classifications (schedules)

Schedule 4

  • Low potential for abuse, relative to schedule 3
  • Has an accepted medical use in the US
  • Abuse may lead to limited physical or psychological dependency
205
Q

Drug Classifications (schedules)

Schedule 5

  • Low potential for abuse, relative to schedule 4
  • Has an accepted medical use in the US
  • Abuse may lead to a lower physical or psychological dependency than cause by schedule 4 substances
206
Q

Employee Substance Abuse

Categories of Drugs

A

Depressants

Narcotics

Stimulants

Hallucinagens

Marijuana

Analogues

Prescription

207
Q

Depressants

A
  • In small doses, produce a calm feeling
  • Can be used for various medical purposes
  • In larger doses can cause impaired reflexes, slurred speech, & uncontrollable drowsiness
  • Are often combined with other depressants or with stimulants
  • When abused can lead to birth defects, overdose, & death
208
Q

Depressants

(Include the following)

A
  • Quaaludes (methaqualone)
  • Valium (diazpam)
  • Librium (chlordiazepoxide)
  • Nembutal (pentobarbital)
  • Seconal (Secobarbital)
  • Alcohol
209
Q

Depressants

Alcohol

A
  • Fast-acting central nervous system depressant that functions as an analgesic, with a sedative effect
  • In small quantities, produces a sense of well-being & slightly impaired reflexes
  • In larger quantities, produces disorientation, reduced inhibition, loss of coordination, & irrationality
210
Q

Depressants

Alcoholism

(Four Symptoms)

A

Cravings

Loss of Control

Physical Dependence

Tolerance

211
Q

Narcotics (Opiates)

Opium its derivatives & synthetic substitutes also called opioids

A

Indespensible in pain relief

212
Q

Narcotics

…is safe & rarely causes clinical addiction

A

Properly managed medical use

213
Q

Narcotics

A large dose can cause ____ and may lead to ____?

A
  • Severe respiratory depression
  • Death
214
Q

Narcotics

What do Narcotics-use results in?

A

Tolerance with chronic use

215
Q

Narcotics

Highly addictive & frequently used

216
Q

Narcotics

Usually taken orally, intravenously or smoked

217
Q

Narcotics

Relatively uncommon in the workplace as they are expensive & physiological effects are usually obvious

218
Q

Narcotics

In small doses, create effects like those of depressants

219
Q

Narcotics

In larger doses can cause severe respiratory depression that may lead to death

220
Q

Narcotics

Have euphoric effects described by abusers as being “high” or “on the nod”

221
Q

Narcotics

Causes tolerance & dependance with repeat use

A
  • Shorter-acting narcotics tend to produce shorter, more intense withdraw symptoms
  • Long-acting narcotics produce protracted but less severe symptoms
  • Withdrawl from narcotics is rarely life-threatening & concludes in seven to ten days
  • Psychological dependence may continue beyond withdrawal
222
Q

Narcotics

How do some abusers obtain the drug?

A

Through fraudulent prescriptions “doctor shopping” or with illicit drugs

223
Q

Narcotics

Recreational users may abuse narcotics sporadically for months or even years without becoming addicts

224
Q

Narcotics

Some experimental users become dependent younger experimenters are more likely to become dependent

225
Q

Narcotics

Includes morphine, heroin, and codeine

226
Q

Narcotics

The oldest compounded drug (except for alcohol)

227
Q

Narcotics

Used by the Egyptians for medicinal purposes in 1500 BC

228
Q

Narcotics

Used to cause sleep & reduce pain by the Romans

229
Q

Narcotics

Used as a pain reliever by European doctors in the 1700’s

230
Q

Narcotics

Prevalent among middle & upper-middle class in the 1800’s

231
Q

Narcotics

Opium alkaloids morphine & codeine discovered in the 1800’s

232
Q

Narcotics

Opium is smoked, taken orally, or taken as a suppository

233
Q

Narcotics

Morphine

A
  • One grain of morphine = 10 grains of opium
  • Morphine was administered during the civil war & led to much addiction
  • Heroin was derived from morphine in 1898; used to treat morphine addiction
234
Q

Substance Abuse

Stimulants

A
  • Users may appear more alert, eager & productive, but may actually waste efforts & make mistakes
  • Believed by abusers of energy & rationality
  • Actually, rob the abuser of energy & rationality
  • Cause frequent, severe mood swings
  • Cause abusers to become difficult to manage & to have difficulty getting along with others
  • Are often combined with other drugs or alcohol to attempt to control mood swings
235
Q

Substance Abuse

Stimulants

A
  • Over prolonged periods typically result in weight loss, drug-induced psychosis and addiction to multiple drugs
  • Cocaine, amphetamines, methamphetamine, methcathinone, methylphenidate (Ritalin) & anorectic drugs
236
Q

Substance Abuse

Stimulants: Cocaine

A
  • Cocaine hydrochloride is a white, crystalline substance extracted from the cocoa plant
  • Has some medicinal value as a topical anesthetic
  • Highly addictive
  • Snorted, injected or smoked
  • Stimulates the central nervous system
  • Dilates pupils, elevates blood pressure, increases heart rate, causes euphoria
  • Crack cocaine is made from powdered cocaine, baking soda & water
237
Q

Substance Abuse

Stimulants: Cocaine

A
  • High is limited to a few minutes or hours, causing a need for more
  • Duration of effect is dependant on method of dose
  • Snorting is slow in onset & lasts 15 - 30 min
  • Smoking is fast in onset & lasts 10 - 15 min
  • Large doses (>100 mg) intensify the high but may cause bizarre, erratic or violent behavior tremors vertigo muscle spasms paranoia or be toxic
  • The effects sometimes include restlessness, irritability & anxiety
238
Q

Substance Abuse

Stimulants: Cocaine

A
  • Rarely, sudden death can occur on the first use or unexpectedly thereafter, often the result of cardiac arrest or seizures followed by respiratory arrest
  • In some cases rather than increasing their tolerance, some users become more sensitive to the drug & may die after small doses
  • Eventually, some users may develop paranoid psychosis, lose touch with reality & experience auditory hallucinations
239
Q

Substance Abuse

A synthetic drug manufactured using common materials & simple laboratory equipment

A

Methamphetamine

240
Q

Substance Abuse

Methamphetamine

A
  • Also known as crank, meth, crystal meth, or speed
  • Has replaced cocaine as the drug of choice in many workplaces
  • Smoked, snorted, swallowed or injected
  • Alters moods depending on how it is ingested
  • Smoking or injecting results in an intense rush or “flash” that lasts only a few minutes
  • Snorting results in effects within 3 - 5 min. and swallowing produces effects within 15 - 20 minutes both produce a high that may last half a day
241
Q

Substance Abuse

Methamphetamine

A
  • Often used in a “binge & crash” pattern
  • Tolerance occurs within minutes
  • “Ice” is a smokeable, large & clear crystal of high purity, smoked in a glass pipe, it is odorless, leaves a residue that can be re-smoked & produces effects for up to 12 hours or more
  • Effects also include increases in wakefulness & physical activity & a decrease in appetite
  • High is a results of dopamine release, which causes a toxic effect on the brain over time
242
Q

Substance Abuse

Methamphetamine

A
  • Large doses can elevate body temperature to dangerous sometimes lethal levels & cause convulsions
  • Chronic abusers may exhibit violent behavior, anxiety, severe mood swings, weight loss, irritability, confusion, insomnia, general deterioration of health, psychotic disturbances, delusions, & homicidal or suicidal thoughts caused by the paranoia
243
Q

Found naturally in some plants & fungi & used in religious ceremonies

A

Hallucinogens

244
Q

Substance Abuse

Hallucinogens

A
  • Some are neurotoxic
  • This category of drugs is not well understood
  • High is described as “tripping”
  • Are unpredictable each time used, a user may experience flashbacks weeks or months after taking the drug, without having to take it again
  • Include LSD (lysergic acid diethylamide or “acid”) MDA (methylenedioxyamphetamine), MDMA (methylenedioxymethamphetamine or “ecstasy”) PCP (phencyclidine) or “angel dust”, mescaline (from peyote & mushroom
245
Q

Substance Abuse

Hallucinogens - LSD

A
  • Colorless, odorless, tasteless
  • Developed in a Swiss pharmaceutical laboratory in 1939
  • One of the most powerful hallucinogens sold in tablets, capsules or liquid
  • Oral ingestion
  • “Acid” “blotter acid” “window pane” “microdots” “mellow yellow”
  • Sometimes absorbed onto small pieces of paper or stamps
  • Rare to be found abused on the job
  • Maybe be substituted for meth or other stimulants in small doses
246
Q

Substance Abuse

Hallucinogens: PCP

A
  • Originally compounded as an anesthetic for large animals, but discontinued in veterinary use
  • Unpredictable with sometimes frightening side effects
  • Liquid or powder form
  • As a liquid has a strong-ether-like odor & kept in small dark bottles
  • Typically applied to tobacco or marijuana products & smoked
  • Effects last for hours high is described as being “dusted”
  • Sometimes causes the eyes to twitch uncontrollably
  • Overdose = convulsions coma & death
247
Q

Substance Abuse

What is the most commonly abused drug in the workplace (after alcohol)

248
Q

Substance Abuse

Marijuana produces effects similar to and may be used as?

249
Q

Substance Abuse

Marijuana side effects

A

Hallucinations

Memory Loss

Lethargy

250
Q

Substance Abuse

Half a marijuana cigarette is equal to?

A

The effects of six to eight mixed drinks lasting two to six hours

251
Q

Substance Abuse

What is marijuana’s principal psychoactive component?

A

THC

(tetrahydrocannabinol)

252
Q

Substance Abuse

It sometimes combined with other drugs it could increase what?

A

Potency & Salability

  • Can result in addiction to opiates or hallucinogens because of these combinations
253
Q

Substance Abuse

Marijuana highs are described as…

A

“Stoned” or “Buzzed”

254
Q

Substance Abuse

Marijuana: Hashish

A
  • Made from the THC-rich resinous material of the cannabis plant
  • Formed into balls, cakes or cookie-like sheets
  • Smoked in pipes
  • Produced mainly in the Middle East, North Africa, Pakistan & Afghanistan
  • THC content of hashish in the US has increased over the years
255
Q

Substance Abuse

Analog or Designer Drugs

A
  • Synthetic preparation with effects & characteristics similar to those of a natural substance
  • Developed in laboratories
  • Not initially classified as controlled substances
  • Often more powerful than the natural substances they imitate
  • Have led to death from overdoses
  • USAG can institute emergency scheduling of analogue substance
256
Q

Substance Abuse

Prescription Drugs

A
  • Frequently abused int he workplace
  • Include physical & psychological dependence
  • Most common prescription drugs sold at work are int he family of benzodiazepines
  • Effects include reduced inhibition & impaired judgment
  • Mixing benzodiazepines with alcohol is common & dangerous
  • Abuse of benzodiazepines is high among cocaine & heroin users
  • Workplace dealers often think they are doing their friends a favor by providing the drug
257
Q

Prescription Drugs

Most common prescription drugs sold at work are int he family of benzodiazepines

A
  • Depressants designed to relieve anxiety, tension & muscle spasms
  • Include Librium, Xanax, Valium
  • Flunitrazepam (Rohypnol, “roofies” “roach” date rape drug) is not legally manufactured in the US but its smuggled in
258
Q

Executive Protection

What is a business measure taken to preserve the organization?

A

Executive Protection

259
Q

Executive Protection

A good EP program costs less than the benefits it produces

260
Q

Executive Protection

Compromise of an executive can cause 3 types of financial losses

A
  1. Its stock price may slide
  2. The executive’s services will be lost either temporarily or permanently
  3. Employees may be distracted from their work
261
Q

Executive Protection

Things that Executive Protection can do for the business

A
  • Reduce dangers
  • Enable executives to concentrate on business
  • Giving executives the necessary confidence to travel in search of opportunities
262
Q

Executive Protection

Corporate EP started in the mid 20th Century

A
  • Initially former Secret Service, PD dignitary protection, military
  • EP training allowed specialists to rise through the ranks
263
Q

Executive Protection

EP grew in the early 90’s because of:

A
  • A rise in all types of crime
  • High profile executive kidnappings
  • Huge ransom payments
  • Kidnapping victim deaths
264
Q

Executive Protection

9/11 Drove further growth of EP

A
  • Soft targets
  • Stock volatility concerns
265
Q

Executive Protection

Motives of Aggressors

A
  • Financial gain, greed
  • Personal grievances
  • Objection to environmental or labor practices, political affiliation or animal testing
266
Q

What rarely plays a key role in assassination behaviors?

A

Mental Illness

267
Q

Executive Protection

Attributes of particularly dangerous attackers

A
  • Often do not make threats
  • Avoiding direct threats
268
Q

Executive Protection

What actions increase the likelihood the person may be a threat?

A

Inappropriate or unusual interest

(Coupled with Action)

269
Q

Executive Protection

Seven principles of Executive Protection

A
  1. Prevent & avoid danger
  2. Realize anyone can protect anyone
  3. Don’t stop to think
  4. Keep clients out of trouble
  5. Understand the security vs. convenience continuum
  6. Rely on brains, not technology
  7. Prevent & avoid danger
270
Q

Executive Protection

Executive Protection key phrase:

A

“Use your resources”

271
Q

Executive Protection

Appropriate allocation of resources to a specific situation is determined through?

A

Risk Assessment

272
Q

Executive Protection

“Bodyguard” is not the appropriate name for an EP specialist who seeks to draw as little attention as possible

273
Q

Executive Protection

Anyone with intelligence, training, & physical fitness can protect anyone

274
Q

Executive Protection

A thoughtful, deliberate reaction to a dangerous situation will almost always fail

275
Q

Executive Protection

The executive protection specialist’s primary job

A

To avoid dangerous persons or conditions

276
Q

Executive Protection

Overreliance by the EP specialist on technology tends to be too restrictive on the movements of the principal & aggressors are often intelligent enough to overcome those measures

277
Q

Executive Protection

The choreography used by the EP specialist to move about with the protected individual

278
Q

Executive Protection

3-part key security concept while on travel

A
  1. Keep a low profile
  2. Stay away from problem areas & situations
  3. Know what to do if trouble arises
279
Q

Executive Protection

When flying…

A
  • Use private aircraft as often as possible
  • Fixed-base Operators (FBO’s) as often as possible to reduce hassle & exert better control over the environment than possible in a public airport
280
Q

Executive Protection

Advance Work

A
  • Reduces the executive’s exposure by smoothing logistics (check-in, evacuation, parking etc)
  • Route advances should be performed at the same time of day as planned travel
281
Q

Executive Protection

EP ties to risk management in the protection of an important organizational asset

282
Q

Executive Protection

EP specialists must consider two factors when conducting a risk assessment

A
  1. The threats the executive faces
  2. The likelihood that threats could be carried out successfully
283
Q

Executive Protection

How often should EP risk assessments be profound?

A

On a recurring basis as the risks change

284
Q

Executive Protection

Key determinants of the threat level

A

How well the executive is known to potential adversaries - key opportunities to learn about executives are

285
Q

Executive Protection

It’s not the executive’s net worth that counts so much but…

A

How he/she is perceived by a prospective kidnapper

286
Q

Executive Protection

EP vehicles should…

A
  • Provide generous interior space
  • Have substantial protective bulk
  • Be equipped with a powerful engine
  • Be armed if warranted by the risk assessment
287
Q

Executive Protection

What vehicles blend in with other vehicles better than that armored after-market

A

Factory-Armored

288
Q

Executive Protection

Four steps in the chain of incident response for EP…

A
  1. Arm’s reach
  2. Sound off
  3. Cover
  4. Evacuate
289
Q

Of the following substance schedules, which has no current accepted medical use:

A) Schedule 1

B) Schedule 2

C) Schedule 3

D) Schedule 4

E) Schedule 5

A

A) Schedule 1

290
Q

Of the following substance schedule, which one has an accepted medical use in treatment and a high potential for abuse that could lead to severe psychological and physical dependence?

A) Schedule 1

B) Schedule 2

C) Schedule 3

D) Schedule 4

E) Schedule 5

A

B) Schedule 2

291
Q

Of the following substance schedule, which one has an accepted medical use in treatment and a low potential for abuse with limited psychological and physical dependence when compared to other substances and drugs?

A) Schedule 1

B) Schedule 2

C) Schedule 3

D) Schedule 4

E) Schedule 5

A

D) Schedule 4

292
Q

The Controlled Substances Act has imposed certain record-keeping requirements on those involved in the manufacturing, purchasing, and distribution of substances under the act. Which of the following is not one of the specific requirements?

A) Record-keeping requirements apply to all substances under control, regardless of schedule

B) Record-keeping requirements state that full records be kept of all qualities that are manufactured, purchased, sold, and inventoried of the substance by each handler.

C) Records for schedule 1 and schedule 2 drugs must be kept separate from all other records of the handler

D) Records for scheduled 3,4 and 5 drugs must be kept in a form defined as “readily available”.

E) Record-keeping requirements only apply to schedule 1,2 and 3 substances

A

E) Record-keeping requirements only apply to schedule 1,2 and 3 substances

293
Q

The primary federal law that provides the legal foundation for the current federal strategy of reducing the consumption of illicit drugs is:

A) The Harrison Narcotics Act

B) The Volstead Act

C) Title 2, Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970.

D) The Drug Enforcement Administration Act of 1982

E) None of the above

A

C) Title 2, Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970.

294
Q

Which of the following is correct in the regulatory requirements of schedule 5 substances under the Controlled Substances Act?

A) Keeping readily retrievable records

B) Registration by those who handle or intend to handle the substance

C) Use of Regulated Storage area

D) No written prescription is required

E) International transactions must be made with prior notice to the DEA

F) All of the above

A

F) All of the above

295
Q

The Federal Act mandates that for simple possession of any controlled substance, the first offense is:

A) Up to 1 year in jail/prison and/ or a $5,000 fine

B) Up to 2 years in jail/prison and/ or a $5,000 fine

C) Up to 3 years in jail/prison and/ or a $10,000 fine

D) Up to 5 year in jail/prison and/ or a $15,000 fine

E) Up to 15 year in jail/prison and/ or a $25,000 fine

A

A) Up to 1 year in jail/prison and/ or a $5,000 fine

296
Q

The federal trafficking penalty for a schedule 1 narcotic that is the first offense is:

A) 5 years in prison and/or a $10,000 fine

B) 10 years in prison and/or a $20,000 fine

C) 15 years in prison and/or a $25,000 fine

D) 20 years in prison and/or a $30,000 fine

E) 30 years in prison and/or a $50,000 fine

A

C) 15 years in prison and/or a $25,000 fine

297
Q

Which of the following is not correct regarding narcotics?

A) They have been used for a long period of time as a remedy for diarrhea

B) The term narcotic in its medical meaning refers to opium and opium derivatives or a synthetic substitute

C) They tend to intensify vision and increase alertness

D) They are the most effective agents known for the relief of intense pain

E) They can cause respiratory depression in some cases

A

C) They tend to intensify vision and increase alertness

298
Q

Which of the following is not designated as a narcotic?

A) Codeine

B) Morphine

C) Heroin

D) Cocaine

E) Librium

A

E) Librium

299
Q

The main source of non-synthetic narcotics is:

A) The laboratory

B) Poppy, Papaver somniferus

C) The coca plant

D) Peyote

E) None of the above

A

B) Poppy, Papaver somniferus

300
Q

Narcotics are known by a number of trade names. One of the trade names is:

A) Quaalude

B) Azene

C) Valium

D) Paregoric

E) Butisol

A

D) Paregoric

301
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of morphine?

A) It is the principal constituent of opium

B) It’s legal use is restricted primarily to hospitals

C) It is odorless and bitter tasting, and darkens with age

D) Only a small part of the morphine obtained from opium is used medically

E) Both a and d

F) All of the above

A

F) All of the above

302
Q

Watery eyes, runny nose, yawning, loss of appetite, irritability, tremors, panic, chills, and sweating, cramps, and nausea would indicate withdrawal symptoms of:

A) Barbiturates

B) Stimulants

C) Heroin

D) Cocaine

E) LSD

303
Q

Which naturally occurring narcotic is by far the most widely used and is often combined with other products such as aspirin or Tylenol?

A) Methadone

B) Codeine

C) Barbiturates

D) Chloral hydrate

E) None of the above

A

B) Codeine

304
Q

Which of the following is a correct statement pertaining to heroin?

A) The first comprehensive control of heroin in the United States was established with the Harrison Narcotics Act of 1914.

B) Pure heroin is rarely sold on the street

C) The Bayer company in Germany first started commercial production of heroin as a pain remedy in the latter part of the nineteenth century

D) Pure heroin is a white powder and is also known as “horse”

E) Both b and d

F) All of the above

A

F) All of the above

305
Q

Which of the following does not apply to synthetic narcotics?

A) Two of the most widely available synthetic narcotics are meperidine and methadone

B) Synthetic narcotics are produced entirely within the laboratory

C) Synthetic narcotics are also covered by the Controlled Substances Act

D) Meperidine can be administered by injection or taken orally

E) Large doses can result in convulsions

F) None of the above

A

F) None of the above

306
Q

Which of the following is not a correct statement regarding methadone?

A) Methadone was synthesized in Germany during World War 2 because of a shortage of morphine

B) Methadone was introduced to the United States in 1947 and was distributed under such names as amidone, dolophine and methadone

C) Methadone is chemically like morphine and heroin

D) Methadone was widely used in the 1960’s in the treatment of narcotic addicts

E) Methadone is only effective when administered by injection

F) Both c and e

A

F) Both c and e

307
Q

Which of the following drugs is classified as a depressant under the controlled substances act?

A) Morphone

B) Cocaine

C) Phenmetrazine

D) Methaqualone

E) None of the above

A

D) Methaqualone

308
Q

Cold and clammy skin, dilated pupils, shallow breathing and a weak rapid pulse are overdose symptoms resulting from which of the following substances

A) Cocaine

B) Barbiturates

C) Methylphenidate

D) Heroin

E) LSD

A

B) Barbiturates

309
Q

Which of the following is not correct pertaining to the use of depressants?

  1. Excessive use results in drunken behavior similar to that with alcohol
  2. Taken as prescribed, they are beneficial for relief of tension and anxiety
  3. Taken in low does, they will produce mild sedation
  4. The intoxicating effects of depressants are the same as those narcotics
  5. Depressants can be used as a means of suicide
A

D. The intoxicating effects of depressants are the same as those narcotics

310
Q

Which of the following substances would be classified as a depressant under the Controlled Substances Act?

  1. Preludin
  2. Darvon
  3. Miltown
  4. Dilaudid
  5. Pethadol
  6. All of the above
311
Q

Depressants of various types are included in schedules 2, 3 and v of the Controlled Substances Act. Which of the following does not apply to the use of depressants?

  1. Depressants have a high potential for abuse
  2. Some drug abusers often resort to the use of depressants to sooth their nerves after the use of stimulants
  3. The use of depressants compounded with alcohol can cause death
  4. Moderate depressant poisoning closely resembles intoxication from alcohol
  5. One of the recognized features of the use of depressants is that tolerance will not develop.
A

E. One of the recognized features of the use of depressants is that tolerance will not develop.

312
Q

Which of the following withdrawal characteristics can result from the abrupt cessation or reduction of high dose depressant usage?

  1. The withdrawal symptoms associated with depressants are more serious than those of any other drugs of abuse
  2. Convulsions can be experienced that are indistinguishable from those occurring in the grand ma epilepsy
  3. Detoxification and treatment must be carried out under close medical supervision
  4. Both a and c
  5. All of the above
A

E. All of the above

313
Q

Which of the following is not a correct statement regarding chloral hydrate?

  1. It is the oldest of the sleep-inducing drugs, also known as hypnotic drugs
  2. It is a liquid marketed in the form of syrups and soft gelatin capsules
  3. Its popularity decreased after the introduction of barbiturates
  4. Its main abuse is by young adults
  5. It has a bitter caustic tastes and a slightly acrid odor
A

D. Its main abuse is by young adults

314
Q

Which of the following characteristics describes barbiturates?

  1. They are used by both physicians and veterinarians to induce sedation and sleep.
  2. Larger doses cause sleep 20 to 60 min after oral administration
  3. Some individuals may experience a sense of excitement before sedation takes effect.
  4. Barbiturates are classified as ultrashort, short, intermediate,
  5. All of the above
  6. None of the above
A

e. All of the above

315
Q

Barbiturates have about 2500 derivatives of barbituraic acid and are known by a variety of names. Which of the following is another name for a barbiturate?

  1. Demerol
  2. Pethadol
  3. Leritine
  4. Butisol
  5. Talwin
  6. All of the above
A

D. Butisol

316
Q

Which of the following is not another name for a barbiturate?

  1. Tunial
  2. Butisol
  3. Phenobarbital
  4. Amobarbital
  5. Dilaudid
  6. None of the above
A

E. Dilaudid

317
Q

Which of the following identifies the depressant methaqualone?

  1. It was once mistakenly thought to be effective as an aphrodisiac
  2. It is administered orally
  3. It is a schedule 1 drug in the Controlled Substances Act
  4. It is chemically unrelated to the barbiturates
  5. It is also known as Quaalude
  6. All of the above
A

F. All of the above

318
Q

Which of the following is not another name for methaqualone?

  1. Optimil
  2. Darvon
  3. Parest
  4. Spoor
  5. Voranil
  6. Both b and e
A

F. Both b and e

319
Q

Which of the following describes meprobamate?

  1. It was first synthesized in 1950
  2. It is primarily prescribed for the relief of anxiety and tension as well as muscle spasms
  3. It does not produce sleep at therapeutic does
  4. Excessive use can result in physical and psychological dependence
  5. All of the above
  6. None of the above
A

E. All of the above

320
Q

Which of the following is not a brand name for meprobamate

  1. Miltown
  2. Equanil
  3. Preluding
  4. SK-Bamate
  5. Kesso-Bamate
A

C. Preluding

321
Q

Which of the following is not correct with regard to benzodiazepine?

  1. This family of depressants is used to relieve anxiety and tension
  2. This depressant relives muscle spasms and prevents convulsions
  3. When used to induce a “high” this depressant is taken in combination with other substances such as alcohol or marijuana
  4. This depressant is safer to use than other depressants
  5. Excessive use may result in physical and psychological dependence
  6. None of the above
A

F. None of the above

322
Q

Which of the following is a member of the benzodiazepine group known in the United States

  1. Librium
  2. Klonopin
  3. Valium
  4. Serax
  5. All of the above
A

E. All of the above

323
Q

Excitation, increased alertness, euphoria, increase pulse rate and blood pressure, insomnia, and loss of appetite are symptoms of?

  1. Hallucinogens
  2. Depressants
  3. Stimulants
  4. Benzodiazepines
  5. Marijuana
A

C. Stimulants

324
Q

All of the following are controlled substances grouped as stimulates except:

  1. Cocaine
  2. Methylphenidate
  3. Mescaline
  4. Amphetamines
  5. Phenmetrazine
A

C. Mescaline

325
Q

Which of the following characteristics describes stimulants as a controlled substance?

  1. Younger individuals who use stimulants for euphoric effect often go on to experiment with other drugs of abuse
  2. Users tend to rely on stimulants to feel stronger, more decisive, and self-possessed
  3. Stimulants are usually administered by injection or taken orally
  4. Heavy use could result in psychological dependence
  5. Tolerance develops from heavy use
  6. All of the above
A

F. All of the above

326
Q

Which of the following is not known as a stimulant?

  1. Cocaine
  2. Doriden
  3. Ritalin
  4. Bacarate
  5. Preluding
A

E. Preluding

327
Q

Cocaine is derived from which of the following?

  1. Cactus plant
  2. Poppy plant
  3. Coffee bean
  4. Coca plant
  5. Mushrooms
A

D. Coca plant

328
Q

Which of the following is a correct statement regarding illicit cocaine?

  1. It is very popular as a recreational drug
  2. It has the potential for extraordinary psychic dependence due to its pleasurable effect
  3. It is distributed as a white crystalline powder and is known as snow
  4. It is often adulterated to about half its volume by a variety of other ingredients
  5. It is commonly administered by snorting thought he nasal passage
  6. All of the above
A

F. All of the above

329
Q

Cocaine is placed in which of the following controlled substance schedules

  1. Schedule 1
  2. Schedule 2
  3. Schedule 3
  4. Schedule 4
  5. Schedule 5
A

B. Schedule 2

330
Q

Which of the following is not known as an amphetamine

  1. Biphetamine
  2. Delcobese
  3. Desoxyn
  4. Dexedrine
  5. None of the above
A

E. None of the above

331
Q

Which of the follow substances would induce poor perception of time and distance?

  1. Stimulants
  2. Depressants
  3. Hallucinogens
  4. Cannabis
  5. Narcotic
A

C. Hallucinogens

332
Q

Which of the following does not describe hallucinogens?

  1. Pupils are dilated, with a rise in body temperature and blood pressure
  2. The induce a state of excitation of the central nervous system
  3. They are schedule 3 substances
  4. Long after hallucinogen are eliminated from the body, users may experience “flashbacks”
  5. Suicide can sometime result from severe depression after use
A

C. They are schedule 3 substances

333
Q

Which one of the following substances is not a hallucinogen?

  1. Lysergic acid diethylamide
  2. Mescaline
  3. Phencyclidine
  4. Phencyclidine analogs
  5. None of the above
A

E. None of the above

334
Q

The hallucinogen mescaline is derived from:

  1. The coca plant
  2. The sage bush
  3. The peyote cactus
  4. Mushrooms
  5. Dandelions
A

C. The peyote cactus

335
Q

Which of the following statements is correct regarding LSD?

  1. It is produced from lysergic acid, which is a substance derived from the ergot fungus that grows on rye
  2. Its psychotomimetic effects were discovered accidently
  3. Its popularity declined after the 1960s
  4. Tolerance develops rapidly
  5. All of the above
A

E. All of the above

336
Q

According to a consensus of drug treatment professionals, the drug that now poses a greater risk to the user than any other drug of abuse is:

  1. Heroin
  2. Cocaine
  3. Phencyclidine
  4. Chloral hydrate
  5. Marijuana
A

C. Phencyclidine

337
Q

Which of the following is not a true statement in regard to phencyclidine?

  1. It is also known as angel dust and PCP
  2. It is unique among popular drugs of abuse in its power to produce psychoses that are indistinguishable from schizophrenia
  3. Most phencyclidine is produces in clandestine laboratories
  4. It is a schedule 1 substance
  5. None of the above
A

D. It is a schedule 1 substance

338
Q

Marijuana comes from:

  1. The peyote cactus
  2. The cannabis plant
  3. The poppy plant
  4. The coca plant
  5. Mushrooms
A

B. The cannabis plant

339
Q

Marijuana and other cannabis products are usually administered by:

  1. Sniffing
  2. Injection
  3. Rubbing in to the skin
  4. Smoking
  5. “Mainstreaming”
A

D. Smoking

340
Q

Marijuana is known by which of the following names?

  1. Reefer
  2. Acapulco Gold
  3. Grass
  4. Pot
  5. Thai sticks
  6. All of the above
A

F. All of the above

341
Q

Hashish mainly comes from

  1. Peru
  2. Chile
  3. Colombia
  4. South Africa
  5. The Middle East
A

E. The Middle East

342
Q

The physiological adaptation of the body to presence of a drug whereby the body develops a continuing need for the drug is known as:

  1. Tolerance
  2. Addiction
  3. Psychological dependence
  4. Physical dependence
  5. Habituation
A

D. Physical dependence

343
Q

The condition whereby a user must keep increasing the dosage to maintain the same effect is known as:

  1. Tolerance
  2. Addiction
  3. Psychological dependence
  4. Physical dependence
  5. Habituation
A

A. Tolerance

344
Q

The condition whereby the user of a substance develops and attachment to the drug because of the substance’s ability to satisfy some emotional or personality need of the user is known as:

  1. Tolerance
  2. Addiction
  3. Psychological dependence
  4. Physical dependence
  5. Psychosis
A

C. Psychological dependence

345
Q

The state of the periodic or chronic intoxication produced by the repeated consumption of a substance is known as:

  1. Tolerance
  2. Addiction
  3. Drug dependence
  4. Habituation
  5. Psychosis
A

B. Addiction

346
Q

Which of the following is not a correct statement with regard to narcotics?

  1. The term narcotic in is medal meaning refers to opium and opium derivatives of synthetic substitutes
  2. They are the most effective agents known for the relief of intense pain
  3. They have been used for a long period of time as a remedy for diarrhea
  4. They tend to intensify vision and increase alertness
A

D. They tend to intensify vision and increase alertness

347
Q

Which of the following characteristics does not pertain to morphine?

  1. It is the principal constituent of opium
  2. Its legal use is restricted primarily to hospitals
  3. It tastes sweet and is marketed in the form of yellow crystals
  4. Tolerance and dependence develop rapidly
A

C. It tastes sweet and is marketed in the form of yellow crystals

348
Q

Most of this substance is produced from morphine, but it is often combined with other products such as aspirin or Tylenol. It is often used for relief of cough, and it is by far the most widely used naturally occurring narcotic in medical treatment it is:

  1. Barbiturates
  2. Mescaline
  3. Chloral hydrate
  4. Codeine
349
Q

German scientist synthesized methadone during World War 2 because of a shortage of morphine. Which of the following is not a characteristic of methadone and its usage?

  1. Although chemically unlike morphine and heroin, it produces many of the same effects.
  2. It was distributed under such names as amidone, dolophine, and methadone
  3. It was widely used in the 1960s in the treatment of narcotic addicts
  4. It is only effective when administered by injection
A

D. It is only effective when administered by injection

350
Q

Which of the following characteristics do not pertain to the use or effects of depressants generally?

  1. The usual methods of administration are oral or injection.
  2. Excessive use results in drunken behavior similar to that with alcohol
  3. There is no danger of tolerance developing
  4. Taken as prescribed, they may be beneficial for the relief of anxiety and tension
A

C. There is no danger of tolerance developing

351
Q

Another widely abused depressant is methaqualone. All of the following are factually descriptive of methaqualone except one. Identify this exception

  1. It is chemically unrelated to the barbiturates
  2. It was once mistakenly thought to be effective as an aphrodisiac
  3. It is administered orally
  4. It is one of the depressants that does not lead to tolerance and dependence
A

D. It is one of the depressants that does not lead to tolerance and dependence

352
Q

All of the following are controlled substances grouped as stimulants except one. Identify the exception.

  1. Cocaine
  2. Amphetamines
  3. Phenmetrazine
  4. Mescaline
A

D. Mescaline

353
Q

All of the following are factual statements descriptive of illicit cocaine except one, which is that:

  1. It is distributed on the street as a white to dark brown powder
  2. It is often adulterated to about half its volume by a variety of other ingredients
  3. This substance is only used through the process of injection
  4. It is popularly accepted as a recreational drug
A

C.This substance is only used through the process of injection

354
Q

Which of the following is another name for cocaine?

  1. Adipex
  2. Bacarate
  3. Piegine
  4. Snow
355
Q

Which of the following statements does not pertain to cocaine?

  1. It has a medical use as a sedative
  2. There is a possibility that sustained use could result in physical dependence
  3. There is a high possibility that sustained use could result in psychological dependence
  4. Tolerance is a distinct possibility
A

A. It has a medical use as a sedative

356
Q

The effects of illusions and hallucinations with poor perception of time and distance possibility indicate the use of which the following substances?

  1. Cannabis
  2. Hallucinogens
  3. Stimulants
  4. Depressants
A

B. Hallucinogens

357
Q

All of the following are hallucinogens except:

  1. LSD
  2. Marijuana
  3. Mescaline
  4. Phencyclidine
A

B. Marijuana

358
Q

The source of marijuana is the:

  1. Peyote cactus
  2. Mushrooms
  3. Coca plant
  4. Cannabis plant
A

D. Cannabis plant

359
Q

Cannabis products are usually taken:

  1. Through sniffing
  2. By injection
  3. By smoking
  4. By rubbing into the skin
A

C. Smoking

360
Q

The condition whereby a user develops an attachment to the use of a substance due to its ability to satisfy some emotional or personality need of the person is known as:

  1. Tolerance
  2. Physical dependence
  3. Addiction
  4. Psychological dependence
A

B. Physical dependence

361
Q

The state of periodic or chronic intoxication produced by the repeated consumption of a substance is known as:

  1. Tolerance
  2. Addiction
  3. Habituation
  4. Drug dependence
A

B. Addiction

362
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of a schedule 1 drug?

  1. Has high potential for abuse
  2. Has no acceptable medical use
  3. Can be purchased at a drugstore without a prescription
  4. Answer a and b
  5. None of the above
A

D. Answer a and b

363
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of narcotic use?

  1. Pinpoint pupils
  2. Apathy
  3. Drowsiness
  4. Insomnia
  5. Respiratory depression
A

D. Insomnia

364
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a schedule 2 drug

  1. Has a high potential for abuse
  2. Has no acceptable medical use
  3. Abuse may lead to severe psychological dependence
  4. Abuse may lead to severe physical dependence
  5. Has low potential for abuse
A

E. Has low potential for abuse

365
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of use

  1. Pinpoint pupils
  2. Apathy
  3. Drowsiness
  4. Insomnia
  5. Respiratory depression
A

D. Insomnia

366
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a schedule 3 drug

  1. Has a potential for abuse less than schedule 1 or 2 drugs
  2. Has no acceptable medical use
  3. Abuse may lead to low psychological dependence
  4. Has a current acceptable medical use
A

B. Has no acceptable medical use

367
Q

Which of the following is not an overdose characteristic of narcotic use

  1. Agitation
  2. Clammy skin
  3. Convulsions
  4. Possible death
  5. Slow and shallow breathing
A

A. Agitation

368
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a schedule 4 drug?

  1. Has low potential for abuse relative to the substances in schedules 1, 2 and 3
  2. Has a current acceptable medical use
  3. Abuse may lead to limited physical dependence
  4. Abuse my lead to low psychological dependence
  5. None of the above
A

D. Abuse my lead to low psychological dependence

369
Q

The possible effects generally associated with the use of stimulants include all of the following except:

  1. Euphoria
  2. Insomnia
  3. Decreased pulse rate and blood pressure
  4. Increased alertness
  5. Loss of appetite
A

C. Decreased pulse rate and blood pressure

370
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a schedule 5 drug?

  1. Has low potential for abuse relative to the substances in schedules 1, 2, 3, and 4
  2. Has a current acceptable medical use
  3. Abuse my lead to limited physical dependence
  4. Abuse may lead to limited psychological dependence
  5. None of the above
A

E. None of the above

371
Q

The overdose characteristics of stimulants include all of the following except:

  1. Agitation
  2. Increase in body temperature
  3. Hallucinations
  4. Yawning
  5. Convulsions
A

D. Yawning

CPP Cert Study Flash Cards (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions