Personality Flashcards

1
Q

What is personality?

A

A cluster of relatively predictable patterns of thinking, feeling and behaving that is generally consistent across time, space and context. It is generally a multi-dimensional spectrum rather than rigidly-defined categories

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2
Q

What are the components of the five factor model of personality?

A
  • openness
  • neuroticism
  • agreeableness
  • extraversion
  • conscientiosness
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3
Q

What are disorders of (adult) personality according to ICD10

A
  • individuals characteristic and enduring patterns of inner experience and behaviour deviate markedly as a whole from the culturally expected and accepted range
  • manifested in more than one of; cognition, affectivity, impulse control, interpersonal functioning
  • pervasive behaviours that is inflexible, maladaptive or dysfunctional
  • personal distress and or adverse impact on social environment
  • stable, long duration, onset in late childhood / adolescence
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4
Q

Describe the features of anankastic personality disorder

A
  • feelings of excessive doubt and caution
  • preoccupation with details, rules, lists, order, organisation or schedule
  • perfectionism that interferes with task completion
  • excessive conscientiousness and scrupulousness
  • undue preoccupation with productivity to the exclusion of pleasure and interpersonal relationships
  • excessive pedantry and adherence to social conventions
  • rigidity and stubbornness
  • unreasonable insistence that others submit to exactly his or her way of doing things, or unreasonable reluctance to allow others to do things
  • e.g. monica geller
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5
Q

Describe the assessment and rating of personality disorders

A
  • clinical assessment; complex, takes time, more than one appointment
  • rating scales;
  • zanarini rating scale for borderline personality disorder (ZAN_BPD)
  • personality assessment schedule (PAS)
  • personality disorders questionnaire (PDQ-4)
  • minnesota multiphasic personality inventory (MMPI)
  • borderline personality questionnaire (BPQ)
  • international personality disorder examination (IDPE)
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6
Q

Describe the classification of personality disorders in ICD10

A
Cluster A;
- paranoid 
- schizoid 
Cluster B; 
- dissocial 
- emotionally unstable (impulsive or borderline) 
- histrionic 
Cluster C; 
- anxious 
- dependent 
- anankastic
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7
Q

Describe the features of paranoid personality disorder

A

4 of;

  • excessive sensitivity to setbacks
  • tendency to bear grudges
  • suspiciousness and tendency to misconstrue the neutral / friendly actions of others as hostile / contemptuous
  • a combative and tenacious sense of personal rights out of keeping with the actual situation
  • recurrent suspicions, without justification, regarding sexual fidelity or partner
  • persistent self-referential attitude, associated particularly with excessive self importance
  • preoccupation with unsubstantiated ‘conspiratorial’ explanations of events in the world at large
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8
Q

Describe the features of schizoid personality disorder

A

4 of;

  • few, if any, activities provide pleasure
  • emotional coldness, detachment, or flattened affectivity
  • limited capacity to express warm feelings for others as well as anger
  • indifferent to either praise or criticism of others
  • little interest in having sexual experiences with another person
  • almost always chooses solitary activities
  • excessive preoccupation with fantasy / introspection
  • neither desires, nor has, any close friends or confiding relationships (or only one)
  • marked insensitivity to prevailing social norms . conventions
  • example; batman
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9
Q

Describe the features of shizotypal personality disorder

A
  • 5 or more of;
  • ideas of reference (excluding delusions of reference)
  • odd beliefs or magical thinking, inconsistent with subcultural norms (e.g. superstitious, belief in clairvoyance, telepathy or sixth sense)
  • unusual perceptual experiences, including bodily illusions
  • odd thinking and speech (e.g. vague, metaphorical etc)
  • suspiciousness or paranoid ideation
  • inappropriate behaviour or appearance that is odd, eccentric or peculiar
  • lack of close friend or confidants other than first degree relatives
  • excessive social anxiety that does not diminish with familiarity and tends to be associated with paranoid fear rather than negative judgements about self
  • e.g. willy wonka
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10
Q

Describe the features of dissocial personality disorders

A

3 of;

  • callous unconcern for feelings of others
  • irresponsible and disregard for social norms / rules / obligations
  • incapacity to maintain enduring relationships, though no difficult to establish them
  • very low tolerance to frustration and low threshold for aggression / violence
  • incapacity to experience guilt, or to profit from adverse experience, particularly punishment
  • marked proneness to blame others
  • e.g. the grinch
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11
Q

Describe the features of psychopathy

A
  • interpersonal; glibness, superficial charm, grandiose self worth, pathological lying, cunning, manipulative
  • affective; lack or remorse or guilt, shallow affect, callous/ lack of empathy, failure to accept responsibility for actions
  • lifestyle; need for stimulation, prone to boredom. parasitic lifestyle, lack of realistic long term goals, impulsivity, irresponsibility
  • antisocial; poor behavioural controls. early behavioural problems, juvenile delinquency, revocation of condition, criminal versatility
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12
Q

Describe the features of emotionally unstable personality disorder; impulsive

A

3 of;

  • tendency to act unexpectedly, without consideration of consequences
  • quarrelsome behaviour and conflicts with others, especially when impulsive acts are thwarted / criticised
  • liability to outbursts of anger or violence
  • difficulty in maintaining any course of action that offers no immediate reward
  • unstable mood
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13
Q

Describe the features of emotionally unstable personality disorder - bordlerine

A

Features of emotionally unstable PD - impulsive, plus 2 of;

  • disturbances in an uncertainty about self image, aims and internal preferences (including sexual)
  • intense and unstable relationships, often leading to emotional cries
  • excessive efforts to avoid abandonment
  • recurrent threats or acts of self harm
  • chronic feelings of emptiness
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14
Q

Describe the features of histrionic personality disorder

A

4 of;

  • self dramatisation, theatrically or exaggerated expression of emotions
  • suggestible
  • shallow / labile affectivity
  • continually seeks excitement and activities in which the subject is the centre of attention
  • inappropriately seductive in appearance or behaviour
  • overly concerned with physical attractiveness
  • e.g. regina george
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15
Q

Describe the features of narcissistic personality disorder

A

5 of;

  • a grandiose logic of self importance
  • a fixation with fantasies of infinite success, control, brilliance, beauty or idyllic love
  • a credence that they are extraordinary and exceptional
  • a desire for unwarranted admiration
  • a sense of entitlement
  • interpersonally oppressive behaviour
  • no form of empathy
  • resentment of other or a conviction that others are resentful of him of her
  • a display of egotistical and conceited behaviours or attitudes
  • e.g. walter white
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16
Q

Describe the features of anxious personality disorder

A

4 of;

  • persistent pervasive feelings of tension / apprehension
  • belief that oneself is socially inept / inferior to others
  • excessive preoccupation about being criticised / rejected in social situations
  • unwillingness to get involved with people unless certain of being liked
  • restrictions in lifestyle because of need of security
  • avoidance of social or occupational activities that involve significant interpersonal contact, because of fear of criticism, disapproval or rejection
  • e.g. charlie brown
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17
Q

Describe the features of dependent personality disorder

A

4 of;

  • encouraging or allowing other to make most of ones important life decisions
  • subordination of ones own needs to those of others whom one is dependent, and undue compliance with their wishes
  • unwillingness to make even reasonable demands on the people one depends on
  • feeling uncomfortable or helpless when alone, becuase of exaggerated fears of inability to care for oneself
  • preoccupation with fears of being left to take care of oneself
  • limited capacity to make everyday decisions without an excessive amount of advice / reassurance
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18
Q

Describe the treatment of personality disorders

A
  • generally, there isnt good quality evidence to guide treatment for most personality disorders
  • the treatment of comorbidity (e.g. depression, anxiety etc) is effective and should be the focus of treatment
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19
Q

What is the role of antipsychotic drugs in personality disorders?

A
  • given in low doses
  • can reduce the suspiciousness of cluster a PD (paranoid, schizoid and schizotypal)
  • can help with borderline disorder if people feel paranoid or are hearing voices
  • e.g. quetiapine, olanzapine, haloperidol
20
Q

What is the role of antidepressants in personality disorders?

A
  • can help with mood and emotional difficulties with cluster B PD (dissocial, emotionally unstable, histrionic and narcissistic)
  • some of the SSRIs can help people to be less impulsive and aggressive in borderline and antisocial personality disorders
  • can reduce anxiety in cluster C PD (anankastic, avoidant and dependent)
21
Q

What is the role of mood stabilisers in personality disorders?

A
  • can help with unstable mood and impulsivity that people with emotionally unstable personality disorders, borderline subtype may experience
  • examples include lamotrigine
22
Q

What is the role of benzodiazepines / hypnotics in personality disorders?

A
  • the short term use of sedative medication as part of a larger care plan can be useful during a crisis
  • examples include diazepam and zopiclone
23
Q

What is the pharmacological treatment for difficulties with impulse control?

A

1st line; SSRI
2nd line; olanzapine, sodium valporate, carbamazepine, low dose antipsychotic
3rd line; same as 2nd line but use a different one

24
Q

What is the pharmacological treatment for affective dysregulation?

A

1st line; SSRI or mirtazepine
2nd line; mirtazepine or different SSRI
3rd line; olanzapine, sodium valporate, carbamazepine, low dose antipsychotic

25
Q

Describe treatment specific to avoidant personality disorder

A
  • social skills training may be helpful for some people; helps people to increase self-efficacy and functioning
  • some evidence for antidepressants
26
Q

What is the main treatment for emotionally unstable personality disorder?

A

Dialetical behavioural therapy

27
Q

Describe dialectical behavioural therapy

A
  • individual sessions; learning new skills to replace harmful behaviour, reduce suicidal and self harm behaviour, address mental health / personal problems
  • skills training in groups; mindfulness, distress tolerance, interpersonal effectiveness, emotional regulation
  • telephone crisis coaching
  • lasts 6 months to a year
28
Q

Describe systems training for emotional predictability and problem solving (STEPPS)

A
  • CBT based skills training programme
  • focus on stabilisation
  • developed as an add on to usual treatment
  • 20 weeks and includes homework
  • significant others are involved as part of the reinforcement team and are given recommendations on how to respond to the person
29
Q

Describe the treatment of antisocial / dissocial personality disorder

A
  • group based cognitive and behavioural interventions, in order to address problems such as impulsivity, interpersonal difficulties and antisocial behaviour
30
Q

What is type 1 trauma?

A

Single incident trauma; sudden, unexpected

31
Q

What is type 2 trauma?

A

Repetitive trauma - x3 risk for PTSD

32
Q

Describe the biological findings in patients who have experienced trauma

A

Dysregulation of;

  • noradrenergic / catecholamine systems
  • serotonin system
  • HPA axis, especially corticotrophin-releasing factor
  • endogenous opioid system
  • immune response to trauma
  • GABA benzodiazepine system
  • excitatory amino acid system
  • thyroid function
  • links to neuropeptide Y
33
Q

The ‘fight or flight’ response originates in what systems?

A

Peri-aqueductal grey or ventral tegmental area

34
Q

Which areas of the brain is activated when a ‘predator’ is distant or close?

A

Distant;
- rostral anterior cingulate cortex (rACC)
- medial prefrontal cortex (mPFC)
- ventromedial prefrontal cortex (vmPFC)
Close;
- peri-aqueductal grey

35
Q

Which part of the brain plays a role in dissociation?

A

The insula

36
Q

Describe neuroception

A
  • how neural circuits distinguish whether situations or people are safe, dangerous, or life threatening
  • takes place in primitive parts of the brain, without conscious awareness
  • detection of person as safe or dangerous; triggers neurobiologically determined prosocial or defensive behaviours
37
Q

What are the neurobiological findings of trauma?

A
  • under threat, activity shifts from cortex to brainstem
  • areas of brain activation varies with type of PTSD
  • hippocampal atrophy
  • increased activation of the amygdala and other limbic areas
  • deactivation of brocas area when individuals access personal traumatic memories
  • right hemispheric lateralisation; may explain the timeless quality of traumatic memory
38
Q

What are the normal acute reactions to trauma?

A
  • numbness, shock, denial
  • fear
  • depression or elation
  • anger, irritability
  • guilt
  • impaired sleep
  • hopelessness, helplessness
  • perceptual changes
  • avoidance
  • intrusive experiences (e.g. flashbacks)
  • hyperarousal, hypervigilance
39
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria of PTSD?

A
  • traumatic event(s)
  • intrusive symptoms; > 1 of 5
  • avoidance symptoms; 1 or both of 2
  • negative alterations in cognitions and mood; >1 of 7
  • increased arousal and reactivity >2 of 6
  • functional impairment
  • symptoms for 1 month
40
Q

Describe the symptoms of intrusive phenomena

A
  • recurrent distressing recollections
  • nightmares
  • flashbacks (any sensory modality)
  • distress accompanying reminders
  • physiological reactions
41
Q

Describe the negative alterations in cognitions and mood symptoms in PTSD

A
  • amnesia for important aspects of trauma
  • loss of interest in activities
  • negative effect (fear, horror, anger, guilt or shame)
  • overly negative thoughts and assumptions about self / world
  • exaggerated blame (self or others) for causing traumatic events
  • feeling isolated / detached
  • difficulty experiencing positive emotion
42
Q

Describe the alterations in arousal and reactivity that can occur in PTSD

A
  • sleep disturbance
  • irritability / aggression
  • concentration difficulties
  • hypervigilance
  • exaggerated startle response
  • risky and destructive behaviour
43
Q

Describe complex PTSD

A
  • diagnosis consists of core PTSD symptoms plus
  • negative self concept; low self esteem, self blame, hopelessness, helplessness, pre-occupation with threat, pervasive shame or guilt
  • emotional dysregulation; violent or emotional outbursts, reckless or self destructive behaviour, dissociation
  • chronic interpersonal difficulties
44
Q

Describe the phased treatment of complex PTSD

A
  • stabilisation and safety; resourcing
  • trauma treatment; reprocessing
  • reintegration / rehabilitation
  • phase based approach
45
Q

Describe the psychological treatment of PTSD

A
  • CBT/EMDR recommended for single event PTSD / more straightforward presentations
  • importantly, the reactivation of memory does not require it to be put into communicable language
  • therapy should offer (re)processing in resourced ways