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PERIO > PERIO LECTURE NOTES > Flashcards

PERIO LECTURE NOTES Flashcards

1
Q

ATTACHEMNT loss precedes bone loss by

A

6-8 MONTHS

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2
Q

true or false

CAL is measured clinically occurs before radiographic evidence of bone loss is observed

A

true

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3
Q

study of Sri Lakan tea laborers showed what

A

the study showed that wihtout any oral hygiene and no dental care, there is 0.2 mm of bone per year lost on the facial and about 0.3 mm of bone per year lost on the proximal surface when periodontal disease goes untreated

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4
Q

MECHANISMS OF BONE DESTRUCTION

A

factors the cause bone resorption are derived form bacterail palque and the host. biofilm induce the differentiation of bone progentitos cell into osteoclast. the host produces PROSTAGLANDINS

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5
Q

interleukin 1
interleukin -beta
interleukin 6
tumor necrosis factor alpha

A

they contribute to induce bone resorption

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6
Q

. Buttressing bone formation is a;

A. congenital abnormality
B. occurs endosteally
C. occurs periosteally
D. due to trauma from occlusion

A

D. due to trauma from occlusion

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7
Q

.In response to traumatic occlusal forces ,alveolar bone has

A. Osteoblasts in areas of tension and osteoclasts in areas of pressure
B. Osteoclasts in areas of tension and osteoblasts in areas of pressure
C. Osteoid in areas of tension and osteoblasts in areas of pressure
D. Afunctional atrophy

A

Osteoblasts in areas of tension and osteoclasts in areas of pressure

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8
Q

Intrabony defects are;

A. one walled defects
B. two walled defects
C. three walled defects
D. combination of above

A

C. three walled defects

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9
Q

list systemic disorders that can lead to bone destruction and hence bone loss?

A

osteoporosis
hyperparathyroidism
leukemia

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10
Q

it is the most common pattern of bon loss in periodntal disease

A

horizontal bone loss.

often linked with suprabony pcokets

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11
Q

vertical or angular bone defect

A

Occur in an angular or oblique direction leaving a hollowed-out trough in the bone alongside the root.

Base of the defect is located apical to the surrounding bone.

Usually associated with an infrabony pocket

Surgical exposure is the only sure way to determine the presence and configuration of vertical osseous defects

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12
Q

most common osseous defect

A

interdental osseous crater; 2 wall defect

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13
Q

words sued to describe osseous topogrpahy

A

fenestrations

dehescene

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14
Q

dehiscence is often found onstly on

A

mandibular canines

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15
Q

fenestrations is found mostly on

A

maxillary first molars

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16
Q

Disuse atrophy

A

Nonfunction and hypo function of teeth (hypo occlusion).

Microscopic appearance = PDL fibers are arraigned in a loose functional arrangement. No principal fibers are demonstrable. Only loosely organized connective tissue present.

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17
Q

Hyper function

A

functional adaptation in which additional structural elements are formed on cementum and bone to withstand added forces. See a thickened Lamina dura, buttressing bone formation, osteosclerosis and cementum spurs. Periodontal ligament fiber bundles become thickened and functionally orientated.

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18
Q

PERIODONTAL OCCLUSAL TRAUMA

A

degenerative lesion (pathology) that develops when occlusal or other forces exceed the adaptive capacity of the supporting periodontal tissues.

Circulatory changes produced in supporting tissues
Breakdown of periodontal ligament fibers
Bone Resorption
Widening of periodontal ligament space
Mobility of teeth
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19
Q

what is tooth mobility

A

a measure of horizontal or vertical displacement created by the examiners force.

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20
Q

class I mobility

A

movement less than 1 mm

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21
Q

class II

A

movement with 1-2mm

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22
Q

class II

A

movemnt greater than 2mm and/or depressibility if tooth. (moves in axial direction)

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23
Q
  1. Which of the following is the antibiotic of choice to treat a periodontal abscess?
    A. Metronidazole- for aggressive periodontitis
    B. Acyclovir- Used for Acute herpetic gingivostomatitis 3 days of symptoms
    C. Tetracycline
    D. Doxycycline- for Moderate/chronic periodontitis
    E. Augmentin (from slides - says first drug of choice
A

Answer: Augmentin (from slides - says first drug of choice)

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24
Q
  1. Your patient has a history of bulimia and GERD. WHich of the following types of “wasting
    teeth “presentations is most likely to be observed clinically with your patient?
    A. Attrition- occlusal wear due to functional contact with opposing teeth. Habits
    B. Abfraction- abnormal occlusal loading due to bruxism causing tooth flexure and
    microfracturing in the CERVICAL AREA
    C. Abrasion
    D. Erosion occurs in acidic environment
    E. None of the above
A

Answer:Erosion occurs in acidic environment

Intrinsic factors for erosion include GERD, bulimia, chronic alcoholism, and pregnancy - SA

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25
Q

n order to ensure the patient has profound anesthesia to effectively scale, root plane and
debride #3, which of the following nerves will require local anesthesia

A

Answer:PSA, MSA, GP

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26
Q 
4- The angle used to insert a Gracey curette into a periodontal pocket for scaling is usually
A. 150-180 degrees
B. 45-90 degrees
C. 0-40 degrees
D. 95-120 degrees
E. None of the above
A

Answer: 0- 40 degrees (CUZ INSERTION)
Curettes are inserted into the periodontal pocket toe first. The curette is inserted at a 0 degree
angle and then the working angle is established.-SA

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27
Q
  1. Which of the following is caused by an autoimmune destruction of desmosomes leading to
    skin and mucosal ulcers that persist for weeks or months?
    A. Pemphigus
    B. Pemphigoid- autoimmune to the structural components of the basement membrane
    C. Aphthous ulcersD. Erythema multiforme-drug induced, hemorrhagic crusting at vermillion border
    E. Lupus erythematosus- butterfly malar rash, conjunction sjogrens syndrome
A

Answer:Pemphigus

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28
Q
  1. A sharp curette reflects light. A dull curette burnishes calculus on a root surface.
    A. The first statement is false. The second statement is true
    B. The first statement is false. The second statement is false
    C. The first statement is true. The second statement is true.
    D. The first statement is true. The second statement is false.
A

Answer: FALSE, TRUE

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29
Q
  1. Comprehensive periodontal treatment planning is always done in phase 1
    (nonsurgical/disease control) of the periodontal treatment plan. Periodontal maintenance is the
    same as prophylaxis.
    E. The first statement is false. The second statement is true
    F. The first statement is false. The second statement is false
    G. The first statement is true. The second statement is true.
    H. The first statement is true. The second statement is false.
A

Answer: False, False

False is right Periodontal maintenance is not the same as prophylaxis DS

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30
Q
  1. What is the biggest problem associated with periodontal maintenance that contributes to
    recurrence of disease and tooth loss in the long-term?
    A. Cost
    B. Aging
    C. Distance
    D. Philosophical beliefs
    E. Compliance
A

Answer: E - Compliance

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31
Q
  1. You suspect your patient has primary occlusal trauma because you not areas (miswritten on
    exam) of widened PDL on the FMX. How would you describe the cervical lesions depicted?
    A. Erosion
    B. Abrasion
    C. Abfraction
    D. Attrition
    E. None of the above
A

Answer:Abfraction

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32
Q
  1. Which of the following oral hygiene methods or products, when applied properly and used
    exclusively, could still result in a persistently high plaque score?
    A. C- flossing method
    B. Motorized (powered) toothbrush
    C. Bass method of tooth brushing
    D. waterpik/waterfloss
A

Answer:waterpik/waterfloss

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33
Q
  1. You are doing a comprehensive periodontal examination. Teeth #18-20 have 5-6 mm
    periodontal probing depths. What statement BEST describes how probing depth is measured
    clinically (i.e. What are your landmarks for measuring probing depth)?
    A. Measured from the free gingival margin to the mucogingival junction
    B. Measured from the CEJ to the base of the probleable crevice
    C. Measured from epithelial attachment to the alveolar crest
    D. Measured from CEJ to alveolar crest
A

Answer: Measured from free gingival margin to base of probalance crevice

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34
Q
  1. Two patients of the same age both have 25% periodontal bone loss, but Patient A has
    abundant calculus deposits while Patient B has little plaque or calculus. Which patient has the
    better periodontal prognosis? Patient A or Patient B?
    A. Patient B
    B. Patient A
A

Answer: Patient B

Wish all these questions were like this lol

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35
Q 
13. Which of the following conditions demonstrate a malar rash and often occurs along with 
Sjogren’s syndrome?
A. Aphthous ulcers
B. Lupus erythematosus
C. Pemphigus
D. Pemphigoid 
E. Erythema multiforme
A

Answer: Lupus erythematosus

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36
Q 
14. The following characteristics describes which periodontal instrument: Designed for area 
specific usage, face of the blade is offset at 70 degrees to the lower shank, has 2 cutting edges 
but only 1 is used.
A. Gracey
B. file 
C. chisel 
D. Universal curette
E. None of the above
A

gracey

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37
Q 
15. The Gracey curettes are characterized by which of the following: SELECT ALL THAT 
APPLY—---------- see ppt slide above 
A. Site specific usage, rounded tip 
B. Rounded tip
C. Pointed tip
D. 2 functional cutting edges
A

: Site specific usage, rounded tip (CHECK- should be correct tho)

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38
Q
  1. Which of the following is/are accurate regarding Re-Evaluation?
    A. Re-evaluation is a comprehensive periodontal evaluation
    B. Re-evaluation is like a post-op visit, no need to record probing depths
    C. Re-evaluation is the final procedure performed in phase I
    D. Re-evaluation is ideally performed 4-6 weeks following SRP
A

Answer: Re-evaluation is a comprehensive periodontal evaluation agreed
Re-evaluation is the final procedure performed in phase I agreed
Re-evaluation is ideally performed 4-6 weeks following SRPnot sure about this
one -SA, this is correct -BJ → should be done 4-12 after SCRP - powerpoints

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39
Q
  1. Which of the following is characteristic of the initial lesion in the pathogenesis of periodontal
    disease?
    A. Clinical signs of gingival redness and edema are evident -early lesion
    B. 60-70% collagen destruction occurs within lamina propria-early lesion (T lymphocytes) -
    early lesion
    C. C. Cellular infiltrate in the lamina propria is composed mainly of neutrophils
    (PMNs)
    D. Breakdown of collagen fiber attachment to the root
A

Answer: C. Cellular infiltrate in the lamina propria is composed mainly of neutrophils (PMNs)

choices A & B are early lesions

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40
Q
  1. Which of the following chemotherapeutic products DOES NOT kill bacteria?
    A. Actisite (tetracycline)-nonresorbable tetracycline fiber
    B. Atridox (doxycycline in syringe gel)
    C. Arestin (minocycline powder - syringe into pocket)
    D. Periostat (doxycycline
A 
A:Periostat (doxycycline) -candy- bacteriostatic not bacteriocidal
Ac 
Periochip (Chlorhexidine chip, resorable) does kill bacteria
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41
Q
  1. Which phase of treatment is also known as Bacterial Control or Disease Control phase?
    a. Phase IV-periodontal maintenance
    b. Phase II-surgical therapy
    c. Phase I-simple operative restorative
    d. Preliminary phase
    e. Phase III -definitive treatments does NOT include simple operative/restorative
A

Answer: Phase I-simple operative restorative

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42
Q 
20. Which of the following is NOT a valid reason to prescribe antibiotics for a patient with a 
periodontal abscess?
A. Cellulitis 
B. Lymphadenopathy 
C. Pain 
D. Immunocompromised patient 
E. Fever
A

A: C- Pain

43
Q
  1. According to Kwok and Caton, which of the following categories of prognosis is assigned to
    a tooth that demonstrates a periodontal condition that is influenced by systemic factors that may
    or may not be adequately controlled.
    A. Questionable
    B. Favorable
    C. Hopeless
    D. Unfavorable
A

questionable

44
Q

favorable

[kwak and caton classification system]

A

can be stabilized with comprehensive periodontal treatment. maintenance, and with less chance of future breakdwon

45
Q

questionable

A

influenced by local and or systemic factors that may or may not be controlled; the peridontium can be maintained with proper care

46
Q

hopeless prognosis

A

must be extracted

47
Q

gracey currte

A

off-set angulation

48
Q
  1. The Jacquet scaler has the following properties: Select all answers that apply:
    A. Is also called a sickle scaler
    B. Is a subgingival scaler
    C. Has a pointed tip and triangular sides
    D. Can be used more than 2 mm subgingivally
A

Answer: A & C
A - is also called a sickle scaler
C - Has a pointed tip and triangular sides
The sickle scaler used at Howard is called a Jacquette Scaler.

49
Q
  1. Your patient has “generalized moderate chronic periodontitis”. His medical history is noncontributory. He has a negative social history. What would be the best regimen of adjunctive
    antibiotic therapy to use in the treatment of his periodontal disease?
    a. Doxycycline
    b. Metronidazole
    c. Penicillin
    d. Amoxicillin
    e. None
A

A: A-Doxycycline

50
Q
  1. Which of the following is/are accurate regarding prognosis? (More than one answer)
    A. It is assigned at the beginning and cannot be changed
    B. McGuire and Nunn classification is based on initial presentation
    C. It is influenced by the clinicians previous experience
    D. Kwok and Caton classification is based on likely treatment outcome
    E. It can be re-evaluated based on response to treatment
A

Answer: B. McGuire and Nunn classification is based on initial presentation
C. It is influenced by the clinicians previous experience
D. Kwok and Caton classification is based on likely treatment outcome
E. It can be re-evaluated based on response to treatment

51
Q
  1. Which of the following is/are accurate regarding Maintenance (Supportive) therapy? (More
    than one answer)
    A. One goal of maintenance therapy is to prevent further attachment loss
    B. SPT involves localized scaling and root planing where inflammation persists
    C. Maintenance therapy is also known as a Prophylaxis
    D. SPT Is recommended every three months for a year following SRP
A

Answer: A. One goal of maintenance therapy is to prevent further attachment loss
B. SPT involves localized scaling and root planing where inflammation persists
D. SPT Is recommended every three months for a year following SRP
C is wrong. Maintenance therapy is not the same as prophylaxis don’t know about A-DS

52
Q
  1. Patient A is 50 years old while Patient B is 30 years old, however both demonstrate 25%
    periodontal bone loss. Which patient has the better periodontal prognosis? Patient A or Patient
    B
    A. Patient A
    B. Patient B
A

A: Patient A

53
Q 
28. What is it called when slight rubbing of the skin results in exfoliation of its outermost layer?
A. Systemic lupus erythematosus
B. Nikolsky’s sign 
C. Benign mucous membrane pemphigoid
D. Apthous ulcers
E. Desquamative gingivitis
A

Answer: Nikolsky’s sign - MB
Nikolsky’s sign is positive when slight rubbing of the skin results in exfoliation of the skin’s
outermost layer. The more technical term is acantholysis which is the loss of the normal
adhesion of the epithelial skin cells which allows for this sloughing-SA

54
Q 
29. After evaluating the patient’s radiographs, which sextant demonstrates the poorest 
prognosis?
A. Maxillary anterior sextant
B. Mandibular right posterior sextant
C. Maxillary right posterior sextant
D. Mandibular anterior sextant
E. Maxillary left posterior sextant
A

C. Maxillary right posterior sextant

55
Q
  1. Your patient is taking Nifedipine and presents with gingival enlargement. You notice on the
    radiograph that the CEJ is approximately 2 mm from the alveolar crest. What type of pocket
    would be associated with this clinical scenario?
    A. Pseudo pocket
    B. Suprabony pocket
    C. Healthy sulcus
    D. Infrabony pocket
    E. None of the above
A

Answer: Healthy sulcus

56
Q
  1. Using a dull curette may lead to operator fatigue, incomplete calculus removal, and shorter
    use-life of the instrument. Before using a periodontal probe determine the incremental marking
    scale.
    F. The first statement is false. The second statement is false.
    G. The first statement is true. The second statement is false.
    H. The first statement is true. The second statement is true.
    I. The first statement is false. The second statement is true.
A

Answer: True, true

57
Q 
32. Which of the following is most often used for confirmation of diagnosis for lesions that 
present as desquamative gingivitis?
A. Immunofluorescence
B. Nikolsky's sign
C. Hematoxylin & eosin staining
D. Culture and sensitivity tests
E. Dark Field microscopy
A

Answer: Nikolsky’s sign

58
Q
  1. Which of the following is non-plaque-induced gingival disease?
    A. Puberty or gingivitis - plaque induced
    B. Pregnancy gingivitis plaque induced
    C. Nifedipine-related gingival enlargement - plaque induced
    D. Juvenile spongiotic gingival hyperplasia
A

Answer: Juvenile Spongiotic Gingival Hyperplasia (correct)- Agreed the etiology is
unknown. Below are plaque induces therefore can’t be correct answers. Calcium channel
blockers (nifidepine) are mentioned in the ppt slides too- SA

59
Q 
34. Patients with which of the following should NOT be treated with ultrasonic instruments?
A. Infectious diseases 
B. Deep periodontal pockets 
C. Controlled diabetics 
D. Edematous tissue
A

A: Infectious diseases

60
Q
  1. Your patient has generalized 5-6mm periodontal pocket depth, generalized CAL of 3-4mm,
    generalized subgingival calculus. The patient needs periodontal instrumentation. You are writing
    out the treatment plan and treatment based on the diagnosis. What is the most approximate
    periodontal instrumentation your patient needs for phase I therapy based on the clinical
    presentation and diagnosis?
    A. Periodontal maintenance - phase IV
    B. Polishing - no
    C. Prophylaxis - no
    D. Scaling and root planing
    E. Scaling in the presence of gingival inflammation
A

scaling and root planning

61
Q 
36. In which phase would definitive orthodontics and fixed prosthodontics be performed?
A. Phase IV
B. Phase II
C. Phase III
D. Preliminary
E. Phase I
A

phase III

62
Q
  1. You are reviewing your notes in preparation for treating John tomorrow. He is 35 y/o. #3 has
    the following probing depth (in mm): B: 3 2 8 P: 3 2 8 (from distal to mesial). What would be the
    best instrument to use to treat #3 based on your diagnosis, the etiology and contributing
    factor(s)?
    A. 11/12 explorer
    B. 330 bur on high speed
    C. 11/12 gracey curette
    D. 13/14 Gracey curette
    E. None of the above
A

11/12 Gracey curette

63
Q 
38. Necrotizing periodontal diseases may be strongly associated with which of the following?
A. Poor diet
B. smoking 
C. stress 
D. Poor oral hygiene
E. All
A

E. ALL

64
Q
  1. Which of the following is correct regarding gingivitis?
    A. Gingivitis develops in 2-3 weeks following cessation of oral hygiene
    B. Gingivitis is accompanied by attachment loss
    C. Gingivitis is irreversible
    D. Gingivitis always progresses to periodontitis
    E. Gingivitis causes mobility
A

Answer: Gingivitis develops in 2-3 weeks following cessation of oral hygiene
Agreed-SA

65
Q 
40. Which of the following is usually associated with calculus in a deep pocket?
A. Periodontal abscess
B. Pericoronal abscess
C. Gingival abscess
D. Peritonsillar abscess
E. Periapical abscess
A

Answer: Periodontal abscess (p sure correct, check pls)?????- agree mb
Yes. Periodontal abscess is defined as an infection located adjacent to the periodontal pocket
that may result in rapid destruction of the periodontal ligament and alveolar bone-SA

66
Q 
41. You have diagnosed your patient as having localized aggressive periodontitis. Which should
be your first choice of adjunctive antibiotic therapy used in conjunction with scaling and root 
planing?
A. Metronidazole with PenVK
B. PenVK with Amoxicillin
C. Metronidazole with Amoxicillin
D. Doxycycline and ibuprofen 
E. None of the above
A

Answer: Metronidazole with Amoxicillin

67
Q 
42. According to MacGuire and Nunn, which of the categories of prognosis is assigned to a tooth that demonstrates approximately) 25 % periodontal attachment loss and Class I furcation involvement?
A. Good
B. Hopeless
C. Questionable 
D. Poor 
E. Fair
A 
Answer: Fair
A. Good- control of etiologic factors
B. Hopeless- severe attachment loss
C. Questionable greater than 50%
D. Poor 50%
E. Fair 25%
68
Q 
43. A furcal involvement may be due to
A. Perforation
B. Occlusal discrepancy/occlusal trauma 
C. Presence of an accessory canal 
D. Cervical enamel pearl or projection 
E. All of the above 
Answer: All of the above
A

Answer: All of the above

69
Q 
44. Which of the following timelines is/are correct?
A - 4 to 7 days 
B - 2 to 4 days
C - 2 to 3 weeks 
D - 14 to 21 days
A

Answer: B - 2 to 4 days - Initial Lesion,
A - 4 to 7 days - Early lesion,
D - 14 to 21 days - Established lesion
C - 2 to 3 weeks - Chronic Gingivitis
Agreed, Established lesion is associated with chronic gingivitis

70
Q
  1. Both the 4R/4L curette and the Gracey 11/12 curette are universal curettes. The 4R/4L is
    used primarily in the posterior and the Greacey 11/12 curette is used primarily in the anterior.
    A. The first statement is false. The second statement is false.
    B. The first statement is true. The second statement is false.
    C. The first statement is true. The second statement is true.
    D. The first statement is false. The second statement is true.
A

A: False, false

4R/4L is universal posterior, gracey 11/12 is site specific mesial posteriors

71
Q 
46. In the preferred sequence of dental therapy, what phase of treatment immediately follows 
Phase I?
A. Phase IV
B. Phase II
C. Phase III
D. preliminary
A

Answer:Phase IV
Immediately after completion of phase I therapy, the patient should be placed on the
maintenance phase (phase IV) to preserve the results obtained and prevent any further
deterioration and recurrence of disease. While on the maintenance phase, with its periodic
evaluation, the patient enters into the surgical phase (phase II) and the restorative phase (phase
III) of treatment.-SA

72
Q
  1. Why were vertical bitewing radiographs exposed versus horizontal bitewing radiographs for
    this patient ?
    A. BOP
    B. Suspected interproximal caries
    C. Less radiation exposure
    D. Increased image of alveolar bone in relationship to CEJ
    E. More comfortable for the patient
A

Answer: D - Increased Image of Alveolar Bone Relationship to CEJ

73
Q
  1. You are reviewing your notes in preparation for treating Jhon tomorrow. He is 13 y/o #14
    has the following probing depths (in mm ): B: 3 2 6 P : 7 3 4. You remembered the tissues
    appeared cyanotic (purplish/blue) on the distal of #14. What is contributing to the probing depths
    noted on the distal #14?
    A. Caries
    B. Age
    C. Calculus
    D. None of the above
A

Answer: Calculus

74
Q
  1. Which of the following organisms is associated with plaque-induced gingival diseases?
    A. Neisseria gonococcus - non plaque induced
    B. Treponema pallidum - non plaque induced
    C. Histoplasmosis - non plaque induced
    D. Actinomyces viscosus- root caries
    E. Herpes simplex virus 1 - non plaque induced
A

Answer: Actinomyces viscosus- root caries

75
Q
  1. Which of the following is characteristic of the early lesion in the pathogenesis of periodontal
    disease?
    A) T-lymphoctes are predominant in the inflammatory infiltrate
    B) This lesion is reconginzed clinically as chronic gingivitis
    C) Collagen destruction within the attachment apparatus
    D) It shows increased vasoconstriction and decreased vascular permeability
A

A: Collagen destruction within the attachment apparatus

76
Q
  1. Which of the following is correct regarding periodontal abscesses?
    A. Emergency treatment involves periodontal flap surgery and bone grafting
    B. Deep Periodontal pockets and angular bone defects can be found in gingival abscesses
    C. Foreign body entrapment could lead to all three types of periodontal abscesses
    D. Arestin, locally delivered antimicrobial, is an adequate antibiotic to trat the abscess
A

A: foreign body impact

77
Q 
52. Which of the following is usually associated with a large carious lesion?
A. Gingival Abscess
B. Periocoronal abscess
C. Perapical abscess
D. Peritonsillar abscess
E. Periodontal abscess
A

pulpal abscess

78
Q 
53. In which phase of dental treatment would periodontal surgery be performed? 
A. Phase II
B. Phase III
C. Preliminary Phase
D. Phase I
E. Phase IV
A

A: Phase II

79
Q 
54. In which phase in maintenance therapy ( Supportive Periodontal Treatment) performed?
A. Phase IV
B. Phase III
C. Phase II
D. Phase I
E. Preliminary Phase
A

Answer: Phase IV

80
Q
  1. Your patient is 22. He’s a 2nd year dental student taking final exams during the COVID 19
    pandemic. There is uncertainty as to when clinical and laboratory classes will resume. He is
    dealing with stress and anxiety. He has not been sleeping well or eating a proper diet. He has
    started smoking. Based on his periodontal diagnosis, what gingival characteristic BEST
    describes the interdental papillae between #6 to #8?
    A) Festooned
    B) Bulbous and Edematous
    C) J-Shape cleft
    D) Cratered and punched out
    E) None of the above
A

A: Cratered n punch

81
Q 
56. In which dental treatment would an acute periodontal abscess be treated?
A) Surgical
B) Maintenance
C) Surgical
D) Initial
E) Preliminary
A

A: Preliminary

Correct, preliminary phase = acute problems

82
Q
  1. Which of the following is/are accurate regarding modulation therapy?
    A. 20mg doxycycline dosage inhibits enzymes, cytokines and osteoclasts
    B. 20mg doxycycline is given b.i.d. For up to 9 months
    C. 20mg doxycycline is marked under the brand name Periostat
    D. 20mg doxycycline kills the periodontal bacteria
A

A: A. 20 mg doxycycline inhibits enzymes, cytokines, B. Is given b.i.d, C. Periostat
Shouldnt it be 100mg of doxycycline?

83
Q
  1. Which of the following are correct regarding the clinical changes that occur in gingivitis?
    a. Gingival morphology changes from knife edged to rolled or enlarged
    b. Gingival attachment to the tooth is lost and true pockets develop
    c. Gingival color changes from pink to red (erythematous)
    d. Gingival surface texture changes from strippled to smooth
    e. Gingival consistency changes from firm to spongy
A

Answer: A. Gingival morphology changes from knife edged to rolled or enlarged
C. Gingival color changes from pink to red (erythematous)
D. Gingival surface texture changes from strippled to smooth
E. Gingival consistency changes from firm to spongy

84
Q 
59. Which of the following is NOT known to predispose a tooth to gingival recession?
A. Occlusal trauma
B. Thin bony housing
C. Frenum attachment 
D. Dehiscence 
E. Tooth position
A

A - Occlusal Trauma

85
Q
  1. Which of the following forms of lichen planus is most common and demonstrates Wickhams
    Striate ?
    A. Erosive- also most common but not Wickhams
    B. Atrophic
    C. Papillary
    D. Erythematous
    E. Reticular
A

Answer:Reticular

86
Q
  1. What type of bony architecture associated with periodontal disease is characterized by a
    denuded area that extends up through the marginal bone ?
    A. Fenestration
    B. Dehiscence
    C. Interdental osseous crater- most common osseus bone defect, common in posterior
    regions
    D. Exostosis
    E. None of the above
A

A Dehiscence

87
Q
  1. When determining the working end of a curette, the instrument is held so that the terminal
    shank is perpendicular to the floor and the edge that is lower or closer to the floors is the
    working end. When testing for instrument sharpress , a sharp instrument will slide along a test
    stick.
    A. The first statement is false. The second statement is false.
    B. The first statement is true. The second statement is false.
    C. The first statement is true. The second statement is true.
    D. The first statement is false. The second statement is true.
A

A: D-True, False

88
Q
  1. Which of the following chemotherapeutics is NOT a biodegradable product and thus would
    require a 2nd appointment for its removal ?
    A: Periostat (doxycycline)
    B: Periochip (chlorhexidine)
    C. Arestin (minocycline)
    D. Atridox (doxycycline)
    E. Actisite (Tetracycline, nonresorbable tetracycline fiber -powerpointsBJ)
A

Answer: E. Actisite (Tetracycline, nonresorbable tetracycline fiber -powerpointsBJ

89
Q
  1. Which of the following is the antibiotic of choice to treat necrotizing periodontal disease ?
    A. Metronidazole (think…Nec..hurts when taking the Metro,BJ)
    B. Augmentin- first choice for perio abscess
    C. Acyclovir- for herpetic gingivostomatitis
    D. Tetracycline- for aggressive periodontitis
    E. Doxycycline- for chronic periodontitis
A

Metronidazole

90
Q 
65. Topical NaF gel should stay in the patient's mouth for how long? 
A. 30 minutes
B. 1 minute
C. 30 seconds
D. 4 minutes
E. 10 minutes
A

A: 4 minutes

91
Q

NaF varnish

A

5% NaF varnish advantages over 4-min in-office application
highre concentration of fluoride
best for patient for high risk for caries
can be applied without prior oral prophy

92
Q

APF 1.23% (Acidulated fluoride)

A

Contraindicated with porcelain, composite, glass ionomer restorations, or sealants because acid (pH 3.5) will etch restorations

Raising the acidity increases the fluoride uptake by the enamel

Applied every 6-months in-office

Indicated for patients taking medications that have a high sugar content on a long-term basis

93
Q 
66. Your patient has ANUG. How much horizontal bone loss do you expect to see?
A. 2mm
B. 3mm
C. 1mm
D. none
E. Not enough information to answer
A

answer: none

94
Q
  1. Which of the following accounts for most of the cases of desquamative gingivitis?
    a. Lichen planus
    b. Aphthous ulcers
    c. Erythema multiforme
    d. Necrotizing stomatitis
    e. Pemphigus vulgaris
A

Answer: A. Lichen planus - sa + mb agree
E. Pemphigus vulgaris
Why would this not be lichen planus? - SA; I also think its Lichen planus- in class stated it is
75% of the time - mb, correct-BJ from lecture

95
Q 
68. Which of the following is NOT associated with increased gingival bleeding?
A. Bleeding disorders
B. Local plaque retentive factors 
C. Hormones
D. Medications
E. Occlusal trauma
A

Answer: Occlusal trauma

The answer is occlusal trauma - SA See slide below; agree mb

96
Q
  1. Your patient is a 79-year old African American female. She reports she has not had a dental
    check-up for several years. Her chief complaint: “My teeth have not been cleaned in a long time
    and are in bad shape.” She suffered from a stroke four years ago which left her with some
    paralysis on her right side. She has difficulty with home care. She is in recovery for alcoholism.
    She is a non-smoker. Her plaque score is 90%. Generalized probing depths are 2-10 mm.
    Generalized mobility (grade 2-3). Generalized furcations (grade 2-3). Based on her periodontal
    diagnosis, all of the following microorganisms will MOST likely be identified in this patient’s
    microflora (plaque biofilm) except one. What is the Exception?
    A. T. forsythia
    B. T. denticola
    C. P. gingivalis
    D. C. Albicans
    E. P. Intermedia
A 
A: C. Albicans -mb, correct NA, MH → correct because Albicans for yeast/fungi -BJ 
A. T. forsythia Red complex 
B. T. denticola Red complex check 
C. P. gingivalis Red complex check
D. C. Albican 
E. P. Intermedia check Orange comple
97
Q 
70. Biologic width is approximately\_\_\_\_\_\_ mm. FILL IN THE BLANK
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
A

A: C. 2mm

98
Q
  1. Patient is a 55-year old white Caucasion malle, 5’10” and weighs 130 lbs. He has been HIV
    positive for 20 years. His recent CBC panel indicated: CD4 T-lymphocyte count at 200,
    neutrophils at 400 cells uL (neutropenia). He is currently on HAART antiviral drug cocktail. He
    has been referred to you for years. He’s never had periodontal treatment. His chief complaint “I
    have canker sores frequently which are painful and burn. My tongue sometimes has sores on
    it, and I have a bas taste most of the time. There is a bad odor coming from my mouth. My
    gums bleed spontaneously sometimes. Which of the following BEST classifies the periodontal
    disease represented in the patient?
    A. Aggressive periodontitis
    B. Refractory periodontitis
    C. Necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis (key word is PAINFUL!, red on powerpoint -BJ)
    D. Chronic periodontitis
    E. Plaque induced gingivitis
A

A: Necrotizing ulcerative

99
Q
  1. Which of the following is characteristic of the established lesion in the pathogenesis of
    periodontal disease?
    A. Neutrophils (PMNs) are predominant in the inflammatory infiltrate
    B. The lesion is diagnosed clinically as chronic periodontitis
    C. T-lymphocytes are predominant in the inflammatory infiltrate
    D. b- lymphocytes and plasma cells are predominant in the inflammatory infiltrate
A

A: B- lymphocytes and plasma cells are predominant in the inflammatory infiltrate

100
Q 
73. #25 has a probing depth of 3mm(mid facial) with 4mm of recession. What is the CAL?
A. 7 mm
B. 4 mm 
C. 12 mm 
D. 1 mm 
E. 3 mm
A

A: A-7mm

PD + Recession = CAL

101
Q
  1. Vertical bone loss may be associated with aggressive periodontitis. Vertical bone loss is the
    most common pattern of bone loss associated with periodontitis.
    A. The first statement is true. The second statement is true.
    B. The first statemtne is false. The second statement is true
    C. The first statement is false. The second statement is false
    D. The first statement is true. The second statement is false
A

A: TRUE, FALSE

102
Q
  1. Vertical bone loss may be associated with aggressive periodontitis. Vertical bone loss is the
    most common pattern of bone loss associated with periodontitis.
    A. The first statement is true. The second statement is true.
    B. The first statemtne is false. The second statement is true
    C. The first statement is false. The second statement is false
    D. The first statement is true. The second statement is false.
A

A: TRUE, FALSE

103
Q 
75. What BEST describes the osseous defect in the mandibular defect in the mandibular right 
posterior periapical radiograph #31
A. Erosion
B. Infrabony
C. Intraosseous
D. Horizontal
E. Receded
A

A: Infrabony

PERIO (2 decks)

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