PERIO Flashcards

1
Q

During chronic adult periodontitis, bone is:

A.	formed only.
B.	resorbed only.
C.	formed and resorbed.
D.	neither formed nor resorbed.
A

C. formed and resorbed:

Periodontitis involves gradual loss of bone over time through microbial and host interactions. Some of these interactions cause bone resorption. However, all bones undergo constant remodeling by osteoblasts and osteoclasts. Alveolar bone is no exception to this rule. There is an equilibrium of bone deposition and resorption in disease-free individuals. In periodontal disease, however, this balance could be disrupted, leading to greater resorption and less deposition. But, bone deposition still occurs (choice C). Therefore, choices A, B and D are incorrect.

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2
Q

Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans is most commonly associated with:

A.	chronic periodontitis.
B.	acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG).
C.	localized aggressive periodontitis.
D.	gingivitis.
A

C. Localized aggressive periodontitis (LAP):

is associated with early onset (children and adolescents), rapid bone destruction (unlike that found in chronic adult periodontitis), and preference for first molars and incisors as sites of bone destruction. Lack of clinical inflammation, deep periodontal pockets, and advanced bone loss are the striking features of LAP. The amount of plaque on the affected teeth is minimal, which forms a thin biofilm on the teeth and rarely forms calculus. Although quantity of plaque is limited, it contains elevated levels of:

  • Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitansand
  • P. gingivalis. (in some patients)

In chronic periodontitis, the bacteria most often cultivated at high levels include:

  • P. gingivalis
  • T. forsythia
  • P. intermedia,
  • C. rectus
  • E. corrodens
  • F. nucleatum
  • A. actinomycetemcomitans
  • P. micros
  • Treponema & Eubacterium species.
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3
Q

All of the following are TRUE with regards to a full-thickness flap EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?

A.	Dissection of the tissue is done with a blunt surgical instrument.
B.	It is recommended for osseous recontouring.
C.	A layer of periosteum must be left on the bone.
D.	It is recommended for apical repositioning of the flap.
A

C. A layer of periosteum must be left on the bone:

A full-thickness flap requires the removal of the complete soft tissue from the bone. This tissue will contain the epithelium, the connective tissue, and the periosteum. When it is reflected properly, it will expose the bare bone. After the initial incision is made, the dissection is carried out with a blunt surgical instrument (choice A) to help prevent the tearing of the tissue during the reflection of the flap. This technique is used when surgical osseous recontouring is required (choice B); therefore, you do not want to have attached periosteum remaining on the bone, which makes choice D incorrect.

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4
Q

The two PRIMARY constituents of plaque are:

	A.	food and bacteria.
	B.	bacterial products and food.
	C.	pellicle and bacteria.
	D.	pellicle and food.
	E.	bacteria and bacterial products.
A

E. bacteria and bacterial products:

Plaque is composed primarily of bacteria and their products. These products may include secreted dextrans, levans, acids, and other waste products. While the bacteria are dependent on food as an energy source, food particles are not considered part of the actual plaque mass, making choices A, B and D incorrect. Similarly, pellicle is required for initial attachment of bacteria to a clean tooth surface. Pellicle is composed primarily of salivary glycoproteins, but it is not a part of plaque, making choice C incorrect. It is merely an initiator of the bacterial attachment.

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5
Q

The GREATEST advantage of a home oral hygiene program that includes the use of a water irrigation system is:

A.	elimination of supergingival calculus.
B.	reduction of pocket depth.
C.	elimination of the microflora responsible for periodontal disease.
D.	reduction of the concentration of bacteria and their products.
A

D. reduction of the concentration of bacteria and their products:

Water irrigation systems were developed to help reduce the effects of the dental biofilms on the gingival tissues. The primary purpose of oral irrigation is the reduction of harmful bacteria that contribute to periodontal disease (choice D). Irrigation of periodontal pockets may reduce pathogenic bacteria up to 6 mm. Water irrigation may help remove some supragingival calculus if a magnetized water device is used (choice A). Reduction of periodontal pockets is an advantage of water irrigation (choice B), due to generalized bacterial reduction that contributes to the development and advancement of periodontal disease. The microflora is reduced, not eliminated. with oral irrigation (choice C).

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6
Q

Which treatment would be LEAST indicated for patients with acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis?

	A.	Topical steroids
	B.	Analgesics
	C.	Debridement
	D.	Normal saline rinses
	E.	Systemic antibiotics
A

A. Topical steroids:

act as strong anti-inflammatory compounds. As such, they may relieve symptoms but would inhibit the body’s defenses against infection. Using topical steroids on an acute infection such as ANUG will worsen the infection. Typical treatment of ANUG involves gentle debridement (choice C) (no scaling), rinses (choice D)(saline or dilute peroxide), antibiotics (choice E) if systemic symptoms are present, and analgesics (choice B) to relieve pain during healing. Note: The use of peroxide rinses is controversial. Some practitioners advise them. NDB, in the past, has not included peroxide rinse as part of its ANUG regimen.

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7
Q

All of the following are TRUEabout an autogenous free gingival graft EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?

A.	It can be used to help prevent additional gingival recession.
B.	It receives nutrients from its own blood supply.
C.	It can be used to widen the attached gingiva.
D.	The palatal tissue is an acceptable donor site.
E.	The graft epithelium will eventually slough off.
A

B. It receives nutrients from its own blood supply:

The autogenous free gingival graft procedure involves the selection of a donor site from which the graft will be taken; this is usually an edentulous region or the palatal area (choice D). Once the tissue is harvested from the donor site, it is placed over a viable connective tissue site. It is very important to understand that the graft receives nutrients from the connective tissue bed. The graft epithelium will degrade over time and will eventually slough off (choice E). This procedure is commonly used to increase the width of attached gingival (choice C) after recession has occurred; once placed, it can help in preventing additional recession (choice A).

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8
Q

Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG) has been associated with all of the following organisms EXCEPT:

	A.	Prevotella intermedia
	B.	  Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans.
	C.	Fusobacterium species
	D.	Treponema species
	E.	Spirochete
A

B. Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans (Aa):

is the causative organism strongly linked to localized aggressive periodontitis(LAP) and not ANUG.

Fusiform-spirochete bacterial flora has been associated with NUG. In addition, P. intermedia, Fusobacterium, Treponema, and Selenomanas species have also been associated with NUG. ANUG is characterized by pathognomonic signs and symptoms: crater-like, punched out depressions at the crest of the interproximal papillae extending into marginal gingiva; craters are covered by grey pseudomembranous slough, and, in some cases, the lesions are denuded, exposing the gingival margin; and are red, shiny, and hemorrhagic. Bleeding gingiva, offensive odor, and increased salivation are other characteristic signs. Local lymphadenopathy and a low-grade fever are systemic signs of low and moderate stages of the disease. It usually occurs in patients ages 18 to 30 years. There are several possible risk factors, including poor oral hygiene, smoking, poor nutrition, fatigue, stress, and immunocompromised status.

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9
Q

In which of the following conditions is plaque NOT a MAJOR etiologic factor?

A.	ANUG (Vincent disease)
B.	Adult chronic periodontitis
C.	Marginal gingivitis
D.	Juvenile periodontitis
A

D. Juvenile periodontitis (JP) has a number of unusual characteristics. It is usually detected through radiographs or when unexpected mobility or migration of incisors or first molars is noticed in a young patient. Large amounts of plaque or calculus are usually absent in JP. JP is related to the presence of Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans (Aa).

  • ANUG: is acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis and mostly associated with plaque formed by Fusobacterium and spirochetes.
  • Adult chronic periodontitis is associated with plaque formed by P. gingivalis, T. forsythia, P. intermedia, C. rectus, E. corrodens, F. nucleatum,Aa, P. micros, and Treponema and Eubacterium species.
  • Marginal gingivitis is also associated with plaque formed by S. sanguis, S. mitis, A. naeslundi, S.oralis, A. viscosis, P. micros, F. nucleatum, P. intermedia, V. parvula, Capnocytophaga, Haemophilus and Campylobacter species.
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10
Q

Which of the following is the BESTexample of a universal curette?

A.	Columbia 4R-4L
B.	Gracey 3-4
C.	Pigtail curette
D.	Jaquette sickle scaler
A

A. Columbia 4R-4L:

By definition, a universal curette can be used on any tooth, either anterior or posterior. Examples include the

  • Columbia 4R- 4L
  • Columbia 13-14

Gracey (choice B) curettes are specific curettes, with specific number curettes used for specific types of teeth and surfaces (anteriors, posterior linguals, etc.). Pigtails (choice C) are explorers rather than curettes or scalers. They are designed to help probe for calculus deposits. Jaquette sickle scalers (choice D) are scalers and not curettes.

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11
Q

Lysozyme is an enzyme:

A.	produced by cariogenic streptococci.
B.	produced by anaerobic periodontal pathogens.
C.	produced by opportunistic fungi.
D.	produced by the body and acts on bacterial cell walls.
E.	produced by the body and acts on bacterial cell membranes.
A

D. produced by the body and acts on bacterial cell walls:

Lysozyme is a part of the salivary defense mechanism and plays a minor antibacterial role. It is believed to be a hydrolytic enzyme, which attacks glycopeptides in certain bacterial cell walls. Its concentration is higher in the saliva secreted from the submandibular and sublingual glands compared to the saliva secreted from the parotid gland.

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12
Q

Which of the following cells are associated with the production of a large number of immunoglobulins in a patient with advanced periodontitis?

	A.	Basophils
	B.	Plasma cells
	C.	B lymphocytes
	D.	T lymphocytes
	E.	Macrophages
A

B. Plasma cells:

In the answer choices, the only cell listed that can secrete a large number of immunoglobulins or antibodies is the plasma cell.

Basophils are responsible for the release of inflammatory mediators such as histamine. When a B cell is activated by an antigen, it differentiates into an effector cell. Effector B cells may start secreting antibody, but they finally mature into large plasma cells, which continuously secrete a large number of antibodies. T lymphocytes are responsible for cell-mediated immunity and delayed hypersensitivity. These cells are influenced by the thymus prior to migrating to the tissues. Macrophages are the cells that ingest microorganisms and other foreign material and help remove them from the site of injury or infection. Macrophages are derived from monocytes; monocytes are formed in the bone marrow, transported to the tissues, and transform into macrophages.

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13
Q

When hydrogen peroxide is used by the patient in a 50/50 mix of over-the-counter peroxide and water, the resulting peroxide solution is what percent hydrogen peroxide?

A.	50%
B.	6%
C.	3%
D.	1.5%
A

D. 1.5%:

Over-the-counter hydrogen peroxide is a weak solution of 3 parts peroxide to 97 parts water (3%) (choiceC). Peroxide is a powerful oxidant and extremely reactive chemically. Peroxides used in hair bleaching are often 6% (choice B), and 30% in walking bleach for endodontic teeth. A mixture of 50% peroxide (choice A) would be dangerous to have around. So, at home, 3% peroxide is mixed equally with water to form a 1.5% solution.

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14
Q

Which of the following bacteria is LEAST likely to be found in pockets affected by chronic adult periodontitis?

	A.	Streptococcus mitis
	B.	Campylobacter
	C.	Prevotella
	D.	Treponema
	E.	Eubacterium
A

A. Streptococcus mitis:

Gingivitis: mostly associated with
S. sanguis, S. mitis, A. naeslundi, S. oralis, A. viscosis, P. micros, F. nucleatum, P. intermedia, V. parvula, Capnocytophaga, Haemophilus,and Campylobacter species.

The bacteria most often cultivated at high levels in chronic periodontitis:
P. gingivalis, T. forsythia, C. rectus, E. corrodens, P. intermedia, F. nucleatum, A. actinomycetemcomitans, P. micros, and Treponema and Eubacterium species.

Note: Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG) is mostly associated with Fusobacterium and spirochetes. Also remember that the quantity of plaque in localized aggressive periodontitis (LAP) is limited, but it contains elevated levels of Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans and, in some patients, P. gingivalis.

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15
Q

A chronic periodontal pocket, in which immunoglobulins are found in high concentrations, must also have large numbers of which cell type present?

	A.	T lymphocytes
	B.	B lymphocytes
	C.	Macrophages
	D.	Plasma cells
	E.	Basophils
A

D. Plasma cells:

The answer depends on the fact that plasma cells are responsible for the production of large number of antibodies. They are derived from stimulated B lymphocytes (choice B). When a memory B cell is activated by antigen, it differentiates into an antibody-secreting effector cell. Effector B cells can begin secreting antibody while they are still small lymphocytes, but the end stage of their maturation pathway is a large plasma cell, responsible for the production of large number of antibodies. Most of the cells listed can be found in the chronic periodontal pocket. T lymphocytes (choice A) are primarily involved in cell-mediated immunity. Macrophages (choice C) are phagocytic cells derived from monocytes. Basophils (choice E) release several inflammatory response mediators, including histamine.

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16
Q

Recent research suggests a link between the presence of periodontal disease and all of the following EXCEPT:

A.	increased severity of type II diabetes.
B.	low birth weight in babies.
C.	sarcoma of the bone.
D.	cardiovascular disease.
A

C. sarcoma of the bone:

Although all of these linkages are very early in their research, and definitive findings are not yet clear, it appears that some linkage exists between periodontal disease and three medical conditions. These links are especially interesting, as they show an effect of the periodontal condition on the medical condition and not only the other way around. For example, it has been known for decades that type II diabetes (choice A) exacerbates periodontitis. It is beginning to become clear that, in some way, the presence of periodontal disease may exacerbate diabetes. Some studies have shown that eliminating the inflammation and infection from the periodontal disease, independent of other factors, can reduce hemoglobin A1c levels (a measure of severity of diabetes). A similar connection has been made by some researchers showing an independent linkage of periodontal infection and lower-weight babies at birth (choice B). Finally, a link between periodontal disease and cardiovascular disease (choice D), including myocardial infarction, is also beginning to surface. Again, all studies mentioned are preliminary, and the exact causative nature has not been worked out. It is believed that the bacterial load, bacterial toxins, and host response are involved in all cases. No link with osteosarcoma has been found.

17
Q

Of the following groups, the teeth MOST affected by periodontal disease are the:

	A.	mandibular molars.
	B.	maxillary incisors.
	C.	mandibular premolars.
	D.	mandibular incisors.
	E.	maxillary canines.
A

D. Mandibular incisors:

The effect of periodontal disease on different tooth groups is highly correlated with the amount of calculus accumulation on those teeth. Accordingly the teeth most affected are:

  • mandibular incisors
  • maxillary molars
  • mandibular molars
  • maxillary incisors
  • maxillary premolars
  • mandibular canines
  • mandibular premolars
  • maxillary canines

Note from your own experience the amount of calculus found on both mandibular incisors and maxillary molars.

18
Q

In an experiment, a patient does not brush his teeth for 1 week. The plaque was cultured and identified. The MOST common bacterial type found would be:

	A.	gram-negative rods.
	B.	gram-positive cocci.
	C.	strict anaerobes.
	D.	capnophiles.
	E.	spirochete.
A

B. gram-positive cocci:

Early plaque generally consists of gram-positive cocci, in particular, those bacteria of the:
viridans streptococci group, such as S. mutans, S. sanguis, S. mitis, S. salivarius, etc.

These organisms are facultative anaerobes and can use either aerobic or anaerobic respiration, so they are not strict anaerobes. Older anaerobic plaque, such as that found in deep periodontal pockets often includes capnophiles (carbon dioxide-loving bacteria), spirochetes, Bacteroides, etc.

19
Q

Gingival recession is related to all of the following etiologies EXCEPT:

	A.	toothbrushing.
	B.	frenum attachments.
	C.	  periodontal disease.
	D.	tooth malposition.
	E.	gingivitis.
A

E. gingivitis:

Gingival recession is related to a wide variety of factors. The combination of infection and the host response to the infection causes loss of periodontal and gingival attachment, with resultant root exposure. Loss of attachment from chronic infectious periodontal disease is the most commonly seen type (choice C). However, there are noninflammatory causes as well. Excessive tooth brushing (choice A), especially with hard bristles, in a horizontal direction, can cause recession. This is seen in patients with extremely good oral hygiene, often accompanied by cervical abrasions. High frenum attachments (choice B) pull soft tissue from the root surface, causing recession. Rotated or otherwise malpositioned teeth (choice D) often have thinner bone and soft tissue attachment, especially on the buccal surface, and are more susceptible to wear and recession. Gingivitis (choice E) is a reversible inflammation of the gingiva and by itself will not lead to gingival recession.

20
Q

Which of the following is FALSE with regard to tooth mobility?

A.	Mobility can be accurately tested with a mobilometer.
B.	Mobility is generally greatest in the buccolingual direction.
C.	Mobility is greater in the morning.
D.	Mobility is accurately and quantitatively measured with the grade 1 to 3 scale.
E.	Mobility is greater in periods of inflammation and infection.
A

D. Mobility is accurately and quantitatively measured with the grade 1 to 3 scale:

Tooth mobility is generally measured on a clinical scale of grades 1 to 3, with grade 1 being slightly more than physiologic mobility, grade 3 being severe mobility, etc. Note that these are highly descriptive and “nonquantitative.” Individual practitioners may disagree on the mobility grade of a given tooth. Mobilometers (choice A), while rarely used, do exist and give reproducible quantitative results. Mobility is always greatest buccolingually (choice B). In advanced cases, mesiodistal mobility is found, and, in the most advanced cases, vertical mobility may also be found. Increased mobility in the morning hours is usually attributed to slight vertical extrusion of the teeth after not being in contact during the sleeping period (choice C). Mobility is greater during periods of inflammation and infection (choice E) due to bone and soft tissue support loss, swelling of surrounding tissues, etc.

21
Q

The teeth most commonly affected by toothbrush abrasion are the:

	A.	mandibular molars.
	B.	maxillary molars.
	C.	mandibular anterior.
	D.	maxillary canines.
	E.	maxillary and mandibular molars.
A

D. maxillary canines:

Toothbrush abrasion is most commonly seen in areas of the oral cavity where the teeth are more prominent buccally and, as a result, get more strokes while brushing. Such areas include the maxillary and mandibular canine and the premolar teeth. Hence, choices A, B, C and E are incorrect.

22
Q

The likelihood of a patient developing Dilantin hyperplasia after 1 year of treatment is approximately:

A.	20% to 30%.
B.	50% to 60%.
C.	100%.
D.	80% to 90%.
A

B. 50-60%:

Drug-induced gingival enlargement has been associated with a number of medications, including anticonvulsants, immunosuppressants, and calcium-channel blockers. The drug Dilantin reg (phenytoin) was introduced in 1939 for the treatment of epilepsy. The side effect of Dilantin reg hyperplasia has been shown to occur in approximately 50% of patients (choice B) being treated with this medication. Hence, choices A, C and D are incorrect. Typical clinical features include bead-like enlargement of the interdental papilla that extends to include the facial and lingual gingival tissue. This enlargement can be severe enough to require surgical intervention. The excessive tissue can contribute to problems of mastication, aesthetics, and speech. Enlargement disappears in areas where teeth are extracted.

Note: Cyclosporine is a potent immunosuppressive agent used to prevent organ transplant rejection and treat several autoimmune diseases. Cyclosporine-induced gingival enlargement is more vascularized than phenytoin induced enlargement. It affects children more, and its magnitude is related to its plasma concentration rather than the periodontal status. Gingival enlargement is more in patients medicated with both cyclosporine and calcium-channel blockers.

Calcium-channel blockers are drugs used for treatment of cardiovascular diseases such as hypertension, angina pectoris, coronary artery spasm, and cardiac arrhythmias. Some of these drugs (such as nifedipine) can cause gingival enlargement.

23
Q

All of the following can be etiologies associated with gingival recession EXCEPTone. Which one is this EXCEPTION?

A.	Excessive tooth brushing
B.	Inflammation
C.	Malposition of teeth
D.	Location of frenum attachment
A

B. Inflammation:

Gingivitis is inflammation of the gingiva. Gingival inflammation is not indicative of loss of gingival attachment and recession (choice B). Recession from chronic periodontal disease is due to loss of attachment. It is the combination of infection and the host’s response to infection that leads to loss of periodontal and gingival attachment, resulting in the root exposure. Several non-inflammatory causes have been documented in the literature. Excessive or improper toothbrushing (choice A) with a hard-bristle brush can cause recession. It is important for the dentist/hygienist to review home-care oral hygiene instructions with patients at the hygiene appointment. Patients who have this type of recession will often also have areas of cervical abrasion. Teeth that are rotated or malpositioned (choice C), have thin underlying bone and gingival tissue attachment, which can lead to recession. These areas are usually seen on the buccal surface of the teeth and are also susceptible to tooth wear. High frenum attachments (choice D) pull the soft tissue away from the root surface, leading to recession.

24
Q

Fibroblasts are found in a healing wound site. The organelles MOST likely to be found in high numbers that aid these cells in their function are:

	A.	rough ER.
	B.	smooth ER.
	C.	mitochondria.
	D.	lysosomes.
	E.	free ribosomes.
A

A. rough ER:

Fibroblasts produce fibrous connective tissue for repair. In particular, they produce fibrous matrix proteins, especially collagen. Proteins to be exported outside the cell are produced on the ribosomes of the rough endoplasmic reticulum. They are then transferred in the lumen of the ER, where they are modified, packed into vesicles, and transferred to the Golgi apparatus. In the Golgi apparatus, they are sorted, packaged, and tagged for export. Smooth ER (choice B) lacks ribosomes, which are needed for protein synthesis. Mitochondria (choice C) supply energy for cell processes, including protein synthesis, so they are indirectly needed for this process. Lysosomes (choice D) produce digestive enzymes for intracellular use. They are not involved in protein synthesis. Free ribosomes (choice E) make protein for inside the cell but cannot export proteins without ER.

25
Q

The MAJOR change in leukocyte content in gingival tissues as gingivitis changes from early stages to advanced stages includes:

A.	high lymphocyte count to high PMN count.
B.	high macrophage count to high neutrophil count.
C.	high lymphocyte count to high eosinophil count.
D.	high neutrophil count to high lymphocyte count.
A

D. high neutrophil count to high lymphocyte count:

The question can be answered from the general observation that neutrophils (PMNs, or polymorphonucleocytes) are early in responding to inflammation and infection. Early responses of the gingiva to plaque include increased vessel permeability; adherence of neutrophils to vessel walls; and, later, a buildup of neutrophils in gingival epithelium, connective tissue, and in the sulcus. Some periodontal pathogens appear to promote neutrophil chemotaxis. At later stages, the following changes occur: increased vascularity, erythema, and increased infiltration of the gingival connective tissue by leukocytes (mainly lymphocytes) as well as significant numbers of mast cells, plasma cells, macrophages, and some neutrophils.

26
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding a split-thickness flap?

A.	It includes the connective tissue and the periosteum.
B.	It is indicated in the presence of a dehiscence or fenestration.
C.	The internal bevel incision ends on the root surface.
D.	Gingival tissue should be thick enough to split it.
A

A. It includes the connective tissue and the periosteum:

A split-thickness flap (partial-thickness flap) includes only the epithelium and a layer of connective tissue, leaving a layer of connective tissue and periosteum remaining on the underlying bone. The partial-thickness flap is indicated when the flap is to be positioned apically or when the operator does not desire to expose bone. It is indicated for placement of a subepithelial connective tissue graft. It is also used in areas where a dehiscence or fenestration is present and the removal of periosteum would lead to a defect. An internal bevel is used to reflect the tissue away from the underlying bone. The decision to use this flap is based on the thickness of the attached gingiva prior to the surgery. A split-thickness flap is recommended when there is a sufficient thickness of attached gingiva.

27
Q

Symptoms reported by patients with deep periodontal pockets due to adult chronic periodontitis include all of the following EXCEPT:

	A.	deep, dull, generalized jaw pain.
	B.	preference for eating on one side.
	C.	widespread sensitivity to heat or cold.
	D.	itchiness of gingiva.
	E.	grayish gingival craters.
A

E. grayish gingival craters:

The symptoms reported by patients with adult chronic periodontitis are often somewhat vague, widespread, and diffuse. This is in contrast to the specific symptoms of endodontitis. In adult chronic periodontitis, the swelling and inflammation is generalized; it may be painless; or there may be dull, generalized pain (choice A). The patient may want to chew only from the nonaffected side (choice B). Inflammation, swelling, and recession may make the teeth sensitive to heat and coldness (choice C). Itchiness (choice D) is common, with the patient wanting to scratch or treat the gingiva to relieve it. Foul taste and odor are common, and the patient may report food impaction and/or sucking blood or liquid from between the teeth.

Grayish, sloughing gingiva, and acutely painful craters are associated with ANUG and not adult chronic periodontitis.

28
Q

Classic signs and symptoms of bruxism include all of the following, except:

	A.	occlusal wear.
	B.	thickening of the lamina dura.
	C.	muscle soreness.
	D.	increased tooth mobility.
	E.	Discoloration of teeth.
A

E. Discoloration of teeth.

Bruxism involves the grinding or clenching of the teeth in an aggressive, repetitive manner. This can occur during day and/or night. Possible primary causes include occlusal prematurities, muscle tension, and psychological factors (e.g., stress). Signs and symptoms associated with bruxism include occlusal wear (choice A), thickening of the lamina dura, muscle soreness (choice C), increased tooth mobility (choice D), tooth fractures, recurrent fracture of restorations, unpleasant loud noise during sleep, limited mouth opening, clicking and tenderness of the temporomandibular joint, and headaches. Treatment should include a complete medical and dental history to identify all possible factors that would contribute to this disorder. Treatment should also be comprehensive, including behavioral and interceptive modalities. Treatment may involve the use of a hard mouth guard, which may not cure bruxism; however, it may help decrease the damage to the teeth and the surrounding structures. Discoloration of teeth would not be a direct symptom of bruxism (choice

29
Q

Which of the following classes of antibodies is MOSTcommonly found in saliva?

	A.	IgA
	B.	IgD
	C.	IgE
	D.	IgG
	E.	IgM
A

A. IgA:

IgA and IgG are both found in large quantity in the oral tissues. Secretory immunoglobulin A (SIgA) is a subclass of immunoglobulin A (IgA), an antibody that plays a critical role in mucosal immunity. SIgA is the main immunoglobulin found in mucous secretions from tear glands, salivary glands, mammary glands, the respiratory system, and the genitourinary and gastrointestinal tracts.

IgA is more prevalent in the saliva, whereas IgG is more commonly found within the sulcular fluid. IgA helps to prevent adhesion of some types of bacteria to the oral tissues, and many bacteria have been found to bind to IgA. Analysis has shown that both IgA and IgG are contained within plaque found on the tooth structure. IgM is a primordial all-purpose primary response. It is capable of complement activation but not direct opsonization. IgD is coexpressed with IgM on B cells and is believed to help B-cell response to antigen. IgE has an essential role in type I hypersensitivity and also in responses to allergens, such as anaphylactic drugs, bee stings, and antigen preparations used in desensitization immunotherapy.

30
Q

The internal bevel incision in a periodontal flap is designed to:

A.	remove the epithelium lining of the pocket.
B.	help the adaptation of the gingival margin to the bone-tooth junction.
C.	conserve the uninvolved surfaces of the gingival tissue.
D.	all of the above.
A

D. All of the above:

The internal or reverse bevel is an incision that is used to reflect a flap to expose the underlying bone. It is recommended in most periodontal surgical procedures. This technique will remove the epithelium lining in the pocket, produce a margin that is thin and sharp to allow for optimal adaptation of the gingival tissue to the bone-tooth junction, and conserve the healthy tissue on the outer surface of the gingiva.

31
Q

Which of the following statement is FALSE regarding drug-induced gingival enlargement?

A.	Cyclosporine-induced gingival enlargement is more vascularized compared to phenytoin enlargement.
B.	Nifedipine can induce gingival enlargement.
C.	Phenytoin-induced hyperplasia is more  frequently encountered in older adults.
D.	Drug-induced enlargement recurs after surgical resection.
A

C. Phenytoin-induced hyperplasia is more frequently encountered in older adults:

Phenytoin (Dilantin) is an anti-seizure medication that is known to cause gingival enlargement. The enlargement occurs in approximately 50% of patients and occurs more often in younger patients. Tissue culture experiments indicate that it stimulates proliferation of fibroblast-like cells and epithelium.

Cyclosporine is a potent immunosuppressive agent used to prevent organ transplant rejection and treat several autoimmune diseases. Cyclosporine-induced gingival enlargement is more vascularized than phenytoin-induced enlargement. It affects children more, and its magnitude is related more to its plasma concentration than the periodontal status. Gingival enlargement is more in patients medicated with both cyclosporine and calcium-channel blockers. Calcium-channel blockers are drugs used for treatment of cardiovascular diseases such as hypertension, angina pectoris, coronary artery spasm, and cardiac arrhythmias.

Some of these drugs (such as nifedipine) can cause gingival enlargement. Drug-induced gingival enlargement is chronic and increases slowly in size, when surgically removed, it recurs. Disappearance occurs within a few months after discontinuation of the drug. This condition may create interferences in occlusion, speech, mastication, and tooth eruption as well as aesthetic problems. It is usually generalized throughout the mouth but more severe in the maxillary and mandibular anterior regions. Enlargement disappears in areas where teeth are extracted.

32
Q

A violet marginal line noticed in the gingival is associated with excessive systemic intake of:

	A.	lead.
	B.	silver.
	C.	bismuth.
	D.	arsenic.
	E.	mercury.
A

B. silver:

Systemically absorbed metals are responsible for gingival pigmentation. A purplish violet line is associated with argyria, or excessive systemic silver intake.

Deep blue or blue-red is associated with lead intake. These lines are referred to as Burtonian lines.

Bismuth, arsenic, and mercury are associated with black lines. Usually, these conditions are associated with occupational exposure. The pigmentations can be temporarily decolorized by treatment with peroxides.