Peri-operative Care Flashcards

1
Q

What patients fit into ASA grade 1?

A

A normal healthy patient. No smoking, minimal alcohol use.

Mortality: 0.1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What patients fit into ASA grade 2?

A
Mild systemic disease. All patients older than 80 years are put into this category. 
Currently smoking.
Social alcohol drinker.
Obesity
Well controlled diabetes
Mild lung disease 

Mortality: 0.2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What patients fit into ASA grade 3?

A

Severe systemic disease. This from any cause that imposes a definite functional limitation on their activity - eg. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.

Mortality: 1.8%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What patients fit into ASA grade 4?

A

Incapacitating systemic disease which is a constant threat to life.

Mortality: 7.8%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What patients fit into ASA grade 5?

A

A moribund patient unlikely to survive 24 hours with or without surgery.

Mortality: 9.4%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What pre-operative testing will ASA grade I adults need?

A

ECG if >40

U&Es if >60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What pre-operative testing will ASA grade II adults with cardiovascular disease need?

A

All require an ECG

Consider CXR if >40
FBC, U&Es and Urinalysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is malignant hyperpyrexia and how can it affect anaesthesia, and what is the immediate treatment?

A

Rare, autosomal dominant condition: on administration of certain anaesthetics (halothane, suxomethonium), CO2 levels, temperature and HR will increase, masseter spasm occurs and muscle cells are damaged.

Dantrolene is the immediate treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is suxomethonium apnoea?

A

Suxomethonium is a muscle relaxant
The enzyme plasma cholinesterase is used to break down suxomethonium in the body, and the effects of the drug usually last 3-4 minutes.

In suxomethonium apnoea, the individual lacks the enzyme so the body remains paralysed for up to 8 hours, therefore the patient cannot breathe.

Treatment: continuous ventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Why can you not give volatile anaesthetics in a patient with Duchenne muscular dystrophy?

A

Risk of hyperkalaemic cardiac arrest or rhabdomyolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is hypokalaemic periodic paralysis and how does this affect anaesthesia?

A

Hyperkalaemic periodic paralysis is autosomal dominant and is marked by episodes of flaccid weakness that resolve spontaneously.

There is an increased risk of pre and post operative paralysis as paralysis occurs whenever potassium falls.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the rules for preoperative fasting for children?

A

6 hours for solid food
2 hours for breast milk
1 hour for clear fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the rules for preoperative fasting for adults?

A

All healthy elective patients even with co-morbidities are allowed to drink clear fluids up until 2 hours of their surgery.

6 hours for solid food.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In patients with diabetes mellitus, how should pre-operative fasting be managed?

A

In those who will only miss one meal, do not give an insulin sliding scale and instead adjust their dosage of tablets.

In those who will miss more than one meal, offer a sliding scale insulin (give glargine/lantus alongside this and reduce by 20% after surgery)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In patients who miss more than one meal, the guideline is to offer a sliding scale insulin. However, what criteria need to be met for some patients to do this?

A

Patients who take metformin only or are on lifestyle modifications alone should only start a sliding scale if their capillary blood glucose is greater than 12mmol/L on two separate occasions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In pre-operative patients with diabetes, what is the recommended first line substrate solution for a sliding scale insulin?

A

5% dextrose in 0.45% sodium chloride

and

0.5% KCL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How often should capillary blood glucose be measured in diabetic patients during surgery?

A

Hourly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the blood glucose targets in diabetic patients for the pre-operative and post-operative period?

A

6-10mmol/L in pre-operative, anaesthetised and sedated patients and those taking hypoglycaemic drugs (insulin, sulfonylureas)

Down to 3.5mmol/L is safe in AWAKE patients who are not taking hypoglycaemic drugs and are not on a sliding scale. In those who are on a sliding scale, the range is 6-12.

You can not operate on a patient if the HbA1c is >8.5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the emergency treatment of hypoglycaemia in diabetics in the peri-operative period?

A

Glucogel and 20% dextrose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

If a patient is hyperglycaemic pre-operatively, what do you do?

A

Check if capillary blood ketones are greater than 3. If >3, cancel surgery, if <3:

Type 1 diabetes: give S/C rapid acting insulin (NovoRapid). 1 unit will drop BG by 3mmol

Type 2 diabetes: give S/C rapid acting insulin (NovoRapid) 0.1unit/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How would you manage a known obstructive sleep apnoea patient pre-operatively?

A

Mild OSA (AHI 5-15): proceed routinely

Moderate OSA or above: refer for CPAP or BIPAP.

Patients on established CPAP should continue therapy and bring their device to hospital. OSA patients will usually require prolonged post-operative recovery in HDU.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How would you manage a suspected obstructive sleep apnoea patient pre-operatively?

A

Use the STOP-BANG questionnaire.
Those with scores >5:

With co-morbidities and/or undergoing major elective surgery: refer for polysomnography

Without co-morbidities and undergoing minor surgery: refer for pulse oximetry overnight alone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How would you monitor a OSA patient intra-operatively?

A

High risk patients: manage with senior anaesthetist and surgeon

Monitor: pulse oximetry, ECG, BP, invasive arterial monitoring

Airway: pre-oxygenate adequately. Intubate and ventilate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

If GA is mandatory with OSA patients, what anaesthetics should you give?

A
Short acting (desflurane, propofol)
Limit opioid use
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
How long before surgery should you stop warfarin?
5-7 days before surgery
26
How long before surgery should you stop apixaban?
1 day before surgery | If kidney function is bad, 2 days
27
What antibiotics may you need to stop before surgery?
Tetracycline and and neomycin as they increase neuromuscular blockade
28
When should you stop and re-start the COCP in relation to surgery?
Stop 4 weeks before surgery and re-start 2 weeks after surgery
29
How do you manage a patient that is on digoxin before and after surgery?
Continue up to and including the morning of surgery | Check for toxicity (ECG, plasma K+ and Ca2+)
30
How can TCAs affect surgery?
Enhance adrenaline and may cause arrythmias
31
What is the DVT prophylaxis you should give before surgery?
Graduated compression stockings Moderate risk: LMWH 20mg 2 hours pre-op then 20mg/24hrs High risk: LMWH 40mg 12h pre-op then 40mg/24h
32
If a patient has MRSA what prophylactic antibiotics should you give?
Vancomycin or teicoplanin
33
What pre-operative antibiotic regimen would you give for appendicectomy/colorectal resections and open biliary surgery?
Single dose of IV piperacillin/tazobactam 4.5mg/8h
34
What pre-operative antibiotic regimen would you give for oesophageal or gastric surgery?
1 dose of IV gentamicin
35
What pre-operative antibiotic regimen would you give for vascular surgery?
1 dose of IV piperacillin/tazobactam | Add metronidazole if at risk of anaerobes
36
What anti-emetics are best to use in surgery?
Ondansetron is the most effective agent, metoclopramide is also used
37
What antacids are used in surgery?
Ranitidine 50mg IV or omeprazole if there is an aspiration risk
38
What anxiolytics are used in surgery?
Lorazepam or temazepam | In children, oral meds such as midazolam are used as first choice. Give oral premedication 2h before surgery
39
What is the main side effect of thiopental?
Laryngospasm
40
What is the main side effect of propofol?
Respiratory/cardiac depression, pain on injection
41
What is the main side effect of volatile agents such as isofluorane?
Nausea and vomiting Cardiac depression Respiratory depression Vasodilation
42
Outline the typical 'conduct of anaesthesia' before surgery
Induction (IV propofol) Airway control (guedel airway, muscle relaxation with a neuromuscular blocker) Maintenance of anaesthesia (volatile agent/high dose opiates) Recovery (100% oxygen)
43
What is the anaesthetic of choice for rapid sequence induction? What is the muscle relaxant of choice?
Sodium thiopentone as it has an extremely fast onset of action Suxomethonium is the muscle relaxant of choice
44
What anaesthetic most commonly results in post operative vomiting?
Etomidate
45
What anaesthetic has the strongest analgesic effects?
Ketamine
46
What are the early causes of post operative pyrexia?
Blood transfusion Cellulitis UTI Atelectasis
47
What are the late causes of post operative pyrexia?
VTE Pneumonia Anastomotic leak Wound infection
48
List four common causes of post operative confusion
Hypoxia Drugs (opioids, sedatives) Urinary retention MI or stroke
49
What can post operative hypertension be caused by?
Pain Urinary Retention Idiopathic HTN Inotropic drugs Oral cardiac medicines including antihypertensives should be continued throughout the perioperative period even if NBM
50
When talking to an examiner about post operative complications, how should you subdivide the causes?
1) From the anaesthetic (e.g. respiratory depression) 2) From surgery in general (wound infection, haemorrhage) 3) From the specific procedure
51
When are naso gastric feeding tubes contra-indicated?
Contra indicated following head injury due to risks associated with tube insertion Complications are aspiration of feed or misplaced tube
52
List one benefit of naso jejunal feeding
Avoids food pooling in stomach (therefore decreased aspiration risk)
53
How long do you give VTE prophylaxis to following elective hip surgeries?
LMWH for 28 days combined with anti-embolism stockings
54
How long do you give VTE prophylaxis to following elective knee surgeries?
LMWH for 14 days combined with anti-embolism stockings
55
How long do you give VTE prophylaxis to following a fragility fracture?
Continue until the person no longer has significantly reduced mobility relative to their normal or anticipated mobility
56
Following orthopaedic surgery, when does NICE recommend you begin LMWH treatment?
6-12 hours after surgery
57
If you suspect an anastomotic leak, what imaging modality would diagnose this?
Abdominal CT
58
What anaesthetic agent is hepatotoxic?
Halothane
59
What medications can slow bone healing after surgery?
NSAIDs
60
What are three factors that can predispose a patient to pressure ulcers?
Incontinence Immobility Malnourishment
61
What is Grade 1 of pressure ulcers?
Non blanchable erythema of intact skin
62
What is Grade 2 of pressure ulcers?
Partial thickness skin loss involving epidermis, dermis or both The ulcer is superficial and presents clinically as an abrasion or blister
63
What is Grade 3 of pressure ulcers?
Full thickness skin loss involving damage to or necrosis of underlying subcutaneous tissue.
64
What is Grade 4 of pressure ulcers?
Extensive destruction or damage to muscle, bone or other supporting structures.
65
How do you manage a pressure ulcer?
Hydrocolloid dressings and hydrogels | Possible surgical debridement
66
What are the basic points to remember behind the Waterlow score?
Incontinence is measured, the more incontinent the higher the point. The older you are, the bigger point you score. Females score more than males. Neurological deficit is 5 points Recent surgery is scored for State of skin is measured