Perfusion Flashcards

1
Q
A
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2
Q

What is Cardiac Output (CO)?

A

The total amount of blood ejected from one ventricle of the heart in liters per minute (L/min).

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3
Q

How is Cardiac Output calculated?

A

Cardiac Output (CO) = Stroke Volume (how much) X Heart Rate (how fast).

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4
Q

What factors affect cardiac output?

A
  • Vasoconstriction
  • Compliance of the arteries
  • Volume of blood entering the heart from the veins
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5
Q

Define Peripheral Vascular Disease (PVD).

A

Conditions that result in altered blood flow outside the brain and heart.

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6
Q

What are the two types of Peripheral Vascular Disease?

A
  • Chronic Venous Disease (CVD)
  • Peripheral Arterial Disease (PAD)
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7
Q

What characterizes Chronic Venous Disease (CVD)?

A

Damaged, occluded, or congenitally altered veins.

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8
Q

What is Peripheral Arterial Disease (PAD)?

A

Damaged, inflamed, or occluded arteries.

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9
Q

What are the consequences of Peripheral Venous Disease?

A
  • Venous stasis
  • Increased venous pressure
  • Thrombus
  • Incompetent valves
  • Damage to tissue (ulcer formation)
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10
Q

What are the signs of poor venous perfusion?

A

Signs include venous stasis and increased venous pressure.

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11
Q

Identify some cues for assessing Peripheral Venous Disease.

A
  • Smoking/Tobacco
  • Obesity
  • Pregnancies
  • Injury
  • Leg Pain
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12
Q

What are some treatments for Peripheral Venous Disease?

A
  • Compression therapy
  • Meticulous foot care
  • Leg exercises
  • Elevation of lower extremities
  • Weight reduction (if needed)
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13
Q

What are invasive treatments for Peripheral Venous Disease?

A
  • Vein stripping
  • Sclerotherapy
  • Laser ablation
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14
Q

What is the goal of caring for clients with Peripheral Vascular Disease?

A

Control or decrease manifestations of the disease, such as pain and edema.

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15
Q

What is Peripheral Artery Disease (PAD)?

A

A progressive disorder that affects blood flow to the arteries in the lower extremities.

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16
Q

What is a common cause of Peripheral Artery Disease?

A

Atherosclerosis.

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17
Q

What are the components of an ECG?

A
  • P Wave
  • PR Interval
  • QRS Complex
  • ST Segment
  • T Wave
  • QT Interval
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18
Q

What does the P Wave represent in an ECG?

A

Electricity passing through the atrium and atrial contraction.

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19
Q

What indicates Sinus Bradycardia?

A

Heart rate less than 60 bpm with P waves present.

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20
Q

What are some risk factors for Sinus Bradycardia?

A
  • Myocardial Infarction
  • Sleep apnea
  • Increased intracranial pressure
  • Certain medications
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21
Q

What is the primary function of blood pressure?

A

The force exerted by the blood against the walls of the blood vessel, required for adequate tissue perfusion.

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22
Q

What are the types of hypertension?

A
  • Primary
  • Secondary
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23
Q

What are some modifiable risk factors for hypertension?

A
  • High Sodium Intake
  • Smoking
  • Obesity
  • Alcohol Use
  • Physical Inactivity
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24
Q

What is the DASH diet?

A

A dietary approach to stop hypertension, emphasizing low sodium.

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25
Q

What is the Ankle Brachial Index used for?

A

Assessing blood flow in the lower extremities.

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26
Q

What does the QT Interval represent in an ECG?

A

The entire electrical depolarization and repolarization of the ventricles.

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27
Q

What are the signs of Acute Limb Ischemia?

A
  • Pain
  • Pallor
  • Pulselessness
  • Paralysis
  • Poikilothermia
28
Q

What is the goal of interventions for Sinus Tachycardia?

A

Ensure cardiac output is adequate to provide perfusion of blood to all vital organs.

29
Q

What is the primary goal of hypertension management?

A

Achieve and maintain the goal blood pressure

Goal blood pressure is defined as the target level of blood pressure that healthcare providers aim to achieve for patients with hypertension.

30
Q

What are key lifestyle modifications for managing hypertension?

A
  • Dietary changes (DASH diet, low sodium)
  • Weight reduction
  • Increased physical activity
  • Decreased alcohol use
  • Smoking cessation

The DASH diet emphasizes fruits, vegetables, whole grains, and lean proteins while reducing sodium intake.

31
Q

What pharmacological treatments are commonly used for hypertension?

A
  • ACE inhibitors
  • Beta-blockers
  • Calcium channel blockers
  • Diuretics

Each category of medication works through different mechanisms to lower blood pressure.

32
Q

What is the mechanism of action for ACE inhibitors?

A

Slows the activity of the ACE enzyme, promoting vasodilation and decreasing blood pressure

Examples of ACE inhibitors include lisinopril and captopril.

33
Q

What are common side effects of ACE inhibitors?

A
  • Dry cough
  • Fatigue
  • Dizziness
  • Headache
  • Angioedema (Emergent)

Angioedema is a serious side effect that requires immediate medical attention.

34
Q

What is the action of beta-blockers?

A

Decreases SNS effects, heart rate, and contraction force

Examples include metoprolol and labetalol.

35
Q

True or False: Beta-blockers can mask symptoms of hypoglycemia.

A

True

This is important for diabetic patients who may not recognize low blood sugar levels.

36
Q

What is the role of calcium channel blockers in hypertension?

A

Blocks calcium from entering cells, promoting smooth muscle relaxation and decreasing systemic vascular resistance

Diltiazem is an example of a calcium channel blocker.

37
Q

What are the nursing implications for loop diuretics?

A
  • Assess blood pressure and hold for SBP < 90 mmHg
  • Monitor K+ levels

Loop diuretics include furosemide and bumetanide.

38
Q

What is the significance of potassium levels when administering diuretics?

A

Monitor K+ levels and notify HCP for levels < 3.5 or > 5.5

Hypokalemia can lead to serious complications, while hyperkalemia can occur with potassium-sparing diuretics.

39
Q

What defines gestational hypertension?

A

SBP ≥ 140 mmHg or DBP ≥ 90 mmHg, developing after 20 weeks gestation

Returns to normal within 6 weeks postpartum.

40
Q

What are the signs of severe pre-eclampsia?

A
  • SBP > 160
  • Proteinuria 3+ or greater
  • Severe headache
  • Epigastric pain
  • Visual disturbances
  • Fetal growth restriction

Severe pre-eclampsia requires immediate medical intervention.

41
Q

What is the primary treatment for severe pre-eclampsia?

A

Delivery is the only cure and often necessary

Medications such as hydralazine, nifedipine, and magnesium sulfate are also used.

42
Q

What are common symptoms of right-sided heart failure?

A
  • Peripheral edema
  • Abdominal ascites
  • Hepatomegaly
  • JVD

Right-sided heart failure often results from left-sided heart failure.

43
Q

Fill in the blank: The inability of the heart to provide adequate oxygenation needs to tissues and organs is called _______.

A

Heart Failure

Heart failure can be classified as left-sided, right-sided, or both.

44
Q

What factors contribute to heart failure?

A
  • Hypertension
  • Coronary artery disease
  • Uncontrolled arrhythmias
  • Heart valve disease
  • Myocardial infarction

These factors can lead to either systolic or diastolic dysfunction.

45
Q

What are the assessment cues for heart failure?

A
  • Fatigue and activity intolerance
  • Dyspnea
  • Tachycardia
  • Edema
  • Nocturia
  • Skin changes
  • Behavioral changes
  • Chest pain
  • Weight gain

These symptoms can vary based on the severity of heart failure.

46
Q

What are the key interventions to decrease hospital readmissions?

A

Interventions should focus on:
* Controlling and monitoring manifestations
* Adhering to medications
* Dietary restrictions
* Tracking daily weights

These interventions are essential for managing heart failure effectively.

47
Q

What are the goals of evaluating outcomes in heart failure management?

A

Goals include:
* Weight maintained
* Decreased edema
* Decreased hospital readmission
* Improved quality of life

These goals help assess the effectiveness of treatment strategies.

48
Q

What are some negative consequences of heart failure?

A

Negative consequences include:
* Pulmonary edema
* Pleural effusion
* Dysrhythmias
* Hepatomegaly
* Renal failure

These complications can severely impact a patient’s health.

49
Q

What occurs in pulmonary edema?

A

Engorgement of the pulmonary system leads to:
* Interstitial edema
* Fluid containing RBC’s moves into alveoli
* Decreased oxygenation
* Respiratory acidosis

Pulmonary edema is life-threatening and requires immediate medical attention.

50
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of pulmonary edema?

A

Signs and symptoms include:
* Dyspnea
* Orthopnea
* JVD
* Anxiety
* Cyanosis/Pallor
* Frothy pink sputum
* Crackles
* Tachypnea (Resp. Rate > 30)

Recognizing these symptoms can facilitate prompt treatment.

51
Q

Which diagnostic tests are used for heart failure?

A

Diagnostics include:
* History and physical examination
* Chest x-ray
* 12-lead ECG
* Echocardiogram
* Nuclear imaging
* Heart catheterization
* Serum chemistries (CBC, lipid profiles)
* Cardiac biomarkers (BNP)
* Liver function test
* Thyroid function test

These tests help identify the severity and underlying causes of heart failure.

52
Q

What are the treatment goals for managing heart failure?

A

Treatment goals include:
* Identification and treatment of underlying causes
* Maximize cardiac output
* Decrease symptoms
* Improve quality of life
* Preserve organ function
* Decrease mortality rate

Focusing on these goals can lead to better patient outcomes.

53
Q

What medications are commonly used in heart failure management?

A

Medications include:
* Diuretics
* ACE Inhibitors
* Beta Blockers
* Vasodilators
* Positive Inotropes

Each class of medication has specific roles in managing heart failure symptoms.

54
Q

What are the nursing implications for administering vasodilators?

A

Nursing implications include:
* Assess blood pressure and hold for SBP < 90 mmHg
* Monitor for signs of hypotension (increased dizziness)

Close monitoring is critical to avoid adverse effects.

55
Q

What are the implications for administering positive inotropes?

A

Nursing implications include:
* Assess heart rate and hold for HR < 50 bpm
* Monitor digoxin level (0.5-2 ng/dl)
* Assess for signs of digoxin toxicity

Digoxin toxicity can lead to severe complications.

56
Q

What are the side effects of loop diuretics?

A

Side effects include:
* Increased dizziness or orthostatic effects
* Hypokalemia and electrolyte disturbances
* Weakness, thirst, muscle cramps, and hypotension

Monitoring is essential to manage these side effects effectively.

57
Q

What are the characteristics of Coronary Artery Disease (CAD)?

A

CAD is characterized by:
* Atherosclerosis affecting coronary arteries
* Hardening of the arteries due to lipid deposits
* Injury and inflammation as major contributing factors

Understanding CAD is critical for prevention and management.

58
Q

What are the major chronic causes of injury leading to CAD?

A

Major causes include:
* Hypertension
* Tobacco use
* Hyperlipidemia
* Hyperhomocystenemia
* Diabetes
* Infections
* Toxins

Addressing these factors can help prevent CAD.

59
Q

What are the risk factors for CAD?

A

Risk factors include:
* Non-Modifiable
* Modifiable

Identifying risk factors is key for prevention strategies.

60
Q

What are the primary, secondary, and tertiary prevention strategies for CAD?

A

Prevention strategies include:
* Primary: Health promotion, dangers of smoking, dietary education
* Secondary: Cholesterol screenings, blood pressure screenings, diabetes screening
* Tertiary: Minimizing negative consequences after a major event

Each level of prevention plays a crucial role in managing CAD.

61
Q

What lifestyle modifications are key for CAD management?

A

Key lifestyle modifications include:
* Decreasing LDL cholesterol
* Moderate exercise (30 min., 5 days/week)
* Stress reduction
* Smoking cessation
* Weight control (BMI 18-24.9)

These changes can significantly reduce the risk of CAD.

62
Q

What are the therapeutic uses of cholesterol-lowering drugs?

A

Therapeutic uses include:
* Treating hypercholesterolemia
* Inhibiting coronary events
* Safeguarding against stroke and heart attack

Effective management of cholesterol levels is crucial for heart health.

63
Q

What are the characteristics of chronic stable angina?

A

Characteristics include:
* Pain lasts 3 to 5 minutes
* Subsides when precipitating factor is relieved
* Pain at rest is unusual
* ECG may show ST-segment depression and/or T-wave inversion

Recognizing angina can help in timely treatment.

64
Q

What is the most common form of valvular heart disease?

A

The most common form is:
* Mitral Valve Prolapse

While usually benign, it can lead to serious complications.

65
Q

What are the classic symptoms of mitral valve prolapse?

A

Classic symptoms include:
* Heart murmur (caused by regurgitation)
* Symptoms in 10% of patients

Early detection can help manage potential complications.