Performance & Excuse of Nonperformance Flashcards

1
Q

```

~~~

what is a party’s basic duty at common law regarding performance?

A

party must substantially perform all that is called for in the contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is a party’s duty regarding performance under article 2?

A

party must deliver perfect tender (delivery and condition of the goods must be exactly as promised in the contract)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

if goods are not perfectly tendered, what can a buyer do? (art. 2)

A

buyer can choose to reject all goods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is a seller’s duty of performance in noncarrier cases? (art. 2, 3 rqmts)

A

seller must
1) put and hold conforming goods at the buyer’s disposition for a time sufficient for the buyer to take possession
2) give buyer notice reasonably necessary to enable them to take possession, and
3) tender said goods at a reasonable hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is a seller’s duty of performance to buyer in carrier cases where a particular destination is NOT agreed to? (shipment Ks)

A

seller need only:
1) put goods in the hands of a reasonable carrier and make a reasonable contract for their transportation to the buyer,
2) obtain/properly tender any docs necessary to enable the buyer to take possession, and
3) promptly notify the buyer of the shipment
**NOTE = seller NOT required to see that the goods reach the buyer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is a seller’s duty of performance to buyer in carrier cases where destination is IDENTIFIED? (destination Ks)

A

seller must, at the destination, put and hold conforming goods at the buyer’s disposition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is a buyer’s duty of performance in noncarrier cases?

A

price is due concurrently with tender of delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

generally, what is a buyer’s duty of performance in carrier cases?

A

price is due at the time and place at which the buyer receives the goods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

when is payment due in a shipment K? (carrier case)

A

due when goods are put in the hands of the carrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

when is payment due in a destination K? (carrier case)

A

due when goods reach the named destination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

when can seller demand payment on an installment K?

A

seller can demand payment for each installment (if the price can be so apportioned)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

true or false: generally, under art. 2, a buyer has a right to inspect the goods before they pay.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

in what 2 situations does a buyer NOT have a right to inspect goods before paying?

A

1) K provides for payment C.O.D. (upon delivery), or
2) K indicates that the buyer promised to pay without inspecting the goods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

true or false: paying for goods up front is an implied acceptance of those goods (no right to inspect).

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

when is payment by check NOT sufficient? (2 rqmts)

A

1) seller demands cash, and
2) gives buyer time to get it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the consequence of a K provision stating that a party does not have a duty to perform unless some condition is fulfilled?

A

party’s failure to perform is justified if the condition was NOT fulfilled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is a “condition”?

A

either:
1) an event or state of the world that must occur or fail to occur before a party has a duty to perform, OR
2) an event or state of the world, the occurrence or nonoccurrence of which releases a party from their duty to perform
NOTE = conditions are promise-modifiers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is a “promise”?

A

a commitment to do or refrain from doing something

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is the consequence of failing to perform according to the terms of an unconditional promise?

A

failure to perform = breach of K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is the consequence of the failure of a condition in a K?

A

NOT a breach of K BUT it discharges the liability of the promisor whose duties on the conditional promise never mature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what determines whether a K provision is a promise or condition?

A

the intent of the parties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what factors do courts consider in determining parties’ intent regarding a provision/condition?

A

words and phrases used by the parties, their prior practices, custom in the business community related to the provision, and whether performance is needed from a 3d party (if needed, more likely to be a condition)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

true or false: in doubtful situations, courts will hold that the provision in question is a promise and not a condition.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

if both parties can render performance at the same time (conditions concurrent), what is the effect on a party’s ability to put the other party under an immediate duty to perform (and breach if they fail to do so)?

A

party seeking to put other party under immediate duty to perform MUST tender their own performance first

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

if one party’s performance will take a period of time to complete while the other can be completed in an instant, what is the effect on the parties’ duty to perform?

A

completion of the longer performance must happen BEFORE (condition precedent to) the execution of the shorter/instant performance
**TLDR = instant performance not due until longer performance complete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is the remedy for parties that have fully or partially performed under a K that is no longer enforceable due to a failure/occurrence of a condition?

A

performing party can usually recover under unjust enrichment theories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

when does a duty of immediate performance with respect to a conditional promise become absolute? (2 situations)

A

absolute only when the conditions either:
1) have been performed or
2) are legally excused

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is an express condition?

A

an express stmt in the K providing that either:
1) a party does not have a duty to perform unless some event occurs/fails to occur, or
2) if some event occurs or fails to occur, the obligation of the party to perform one or more of their duties under the K is suspended or terminated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is the effect of K provision stating that a party will pay only if “satisfied” with the other party’s performance?

A

promisor is under NO duty to pay unless they are satisfied (satisfaction = condition precedent)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

when is a condition of satisfaction fulfilled in Ks involving mechanical fitness, utility, or marketability?

A

satisfaction fulfilled by performance that would satisfy a reasonable person
**NOTE = it’s IMMATERIAL whether the promisor personally was satisfied so long as a reasonable person would have been

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

when is a condition of satisfaction fulfilled in Ks involving personal taste or judgment (art, etc)?

A

fulfilled only if the promisor is personally satisfied
**NOTE = lack of satisfaction must be honest/in good faith (ie – if promisor refuses to examine performance or rejects in bad faith, condition of satisfaction is EXCUSED)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

when will a condition of satisfaction of a THIRD PARTY be fulfilled?

A

when the third party is actually personally satisfied
**NOTE = dissatisfaction must be honest/good faith (same as for promisors in Ks involving personal taste/judgment)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what is the effect of a condition that clearly only benefits/protects one of the parties?

A

other party’s duty is NOT subject to the condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is a condition precedent?

A

one that must occur before an absolute duty of immediate performance arises in the other party

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is a condition concurrent?

A

those that are capable of occurring together and that the parties are bound to perform at the same time (each is a condition precedent to the other)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is a condition subsequent?

A

one that, when it occurs, cuts off an already existing absolute duty of performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is a constructive/implied condition of performance?

A

condition that the duty of each party to render performance is conditioned on the other party either rendering their performance OR making a tender of their performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is a constructive/implied condition of cooperation?

A

condition that the obligation of one party to render performance is impliedly conditioned on the other party’s cooperation in that performance

39
Q

when is a condition of notice usually implied?

A

when a party couldn’t reasonably be expected to know a fact (ie – need for repairs) that triggered the duty to perform unless notice was given

40
Q

true or false: a condition will be EXCUSED if a party whose duty to perform is protected by the condition wrongfully prevents the condition from occuring.

A

TRUE
**NOTE = doesn’t excuse conduct that the other party would have reasonably contemplated or assumed the risk for

41
Q

what is an excuse of a condition by waiver?

A

where the party having the benefit of the condition indicates by words or conduct that they will NOT insist on that condition being met

42
Q

true or false: generally, consideration IS required to waive a condition.

A

FALSE
**NOTE = but condition must be ancillary or collateral (NOT waiving the entire/substantially entire duty to perform/etc)

43
Q

when may a waiver of a condition be retracted?

A

at any time BEFORE the other party has changed their position in detrimental reliance on the waiver

44
Q

what is an election waiver of a condition?

A

when a condition doesn’t occur or a duty of performance is broken, BUT the party protected by the condition chooses to continue under the contract (impliedly waives that condition)

45
Q

can an election waiver of a condition be withdrawn?

A

NO (unlike an estoppel waiver)

46
Q

true or false: you can waive entitlement to the entire or substantially entire return performance.

A

FALSE

47
Q

true or false: a party waiving a condition does NOT as a result waive their right to damages (if performance is not rendered).

A

TRUE (just severs the right to treat the failure of the condition as a total breach that excuses performance; can still get damages if no performance)

48
Q

what is excuse of condition by actual breach?

A

an actual breach of the contract when performance is due will excuse the duty of counterperformance

49
Q

what kind of breach will excuse a duty of counterperformance at common law?

A

ONLY a material breach (minor breaches merely suspend performance)

50
Q

what is anticipatory repudiation?

A

when a promisor, prior to the time set for performance of their promise, indicates that they will not perform when the time comes

51
Q

what two things must be true for there to be a valid anticipatory repudiation?

A

1) contract is bilateral with unperformed duties on both sides, and
2) the words/conducts of the promisor are UNEQUIVOCAL in indicating they cannot/will not perform (mere doubt = not enough)

52
Q

when can anticipatory repudiations be effectively retracted?

A

at any time unless…
1) the other party has cancelled
2) the other party has materially changed their position in reliance on the repudiation, or
3) the other party has indicated they are treating the repudiation as final

53
Q

what is the effect of a party failing to give adequate assurances when asked?

A

treated as an anticipatory repudiation

54
Q

what are the nonrepudiating parties options after a party has repudiated? (4)

A

1) treat the AR as a total repudiation and sue immediately
2) suspend their own performance and wait to sue until the performance date
3) treat the repudiation as an offer to rescind the K and treat the K as discharged, or
4) ignore the repudiation and urge the promisor to perform

55
Q

what is a prospective inability or unwillingness to perform?

A

when a party has reasonable grounds to believe that the other party will be unable or unwilling to perform when performance is due

56
Q

true or false: propsective inability to perform is treated as an anticipatory repudiation.

A

FALSE (does not excuse counterperformance or count as breach)

57
Q

what is the effect of a prospective inability/unwillingness to perform?

A

innocent party can suspend their performance until they receive adequate assurances that performance will be forthcoming

58
Q

when may prospective inability/unwillingness to perform be treated as an anticipatory repudiation?

A

only when a demand for adequate assurances were made and the other party fails to provide them (innocent party can treat this as a repudiation)

59
Q

when can a party effectively retract their prospective inability/unwillingness to perform? (2 rqmts)

A

when they
1) regain their ability/willingness to perform, and
2) notify the innocent party of this fact

60
Q

what is an excuse of condition by “divisibility” of contract?

A

if a contract is divisible and a party performs one of the units of the contract, they are entitled to counterperformance as to that unit even if they fail to perform for other units

61
Q

what can an innocent party do when the other performs only as to some units of a divisible contract (but does NOT perform the others)?

A

they have a cause of action for failure to perform the other units and may withhold their counterperformance as to the unperformed units

62
Q

when is a contract “divisible”? (3 rqmts)

A

contract is divisible if
1) performance of parties is divided into two or more parts under the K
2) the number of parts due from each party is the same
3) the performance of each part by one party is agreed on as the equivalent of the corresponding part from the other party (quid pro quo)

63
Q

when may the price be demanded for each unit of an installment contract? (2 rqmts)

A

price may be demanded for each unit if…
1) the price can be apportioned as to each unit, and
2) the K doesn’t contradict this

64
Q

what must happen when it is determined that a party is under an immediate duty to perform?

A

the duty to perform must be discharged

65
Q

what is the effect of the occurrence of a condition subsequent?

A

it will discharge the duty to perform

66
Q

when will illegality discharge duty to perform?

A

when the subject matter of the K has become illegal due to a subsequently enacted law (ie – supervening illegality)

67
Q

what is mutual rescission?

A

when a contract is discharged by an express agreement between the parties to rescind (forms a binding K supported by consideration in the form of each party giving up their right to demand counterperformance from the other)

68
Q

what must be true about both parties’ performance in order for mutual rescission to effectively discharge a contract?

A

both parties must have some performance remaining

69
Q

true or false: mutual rescission must be written to be effective.

A

FALSE (may be an oral agreement)

70
Q

when may a contract NOT be discharged by an otherwise valid mutual rescission?

A

when the rights of a third party beneficiary have already vested

71
Q

what is an accord?

A

an agreement to accept a different, future performance to satisfy an existing duty

72
Q

what is the effect of an accord?

A

merely suspends the right to enforce the original contract in accordance with the accord contract

73
Q

what is satisfaction?

A

the performance of the accord agreement

74
Q

what is the effect of satisfaction?

A

discharges both the original contract and the accord contract

75
Q

how is an accord/satisfaction different than partial discharge by modification?

A

discharge by mod = excused immediately
discharge by A+S = only excused when satisfied

76
Q

true or false: an accord must be supported by consideration.

A

TRUE

77
Q

what kind of consideration is sufficient for an accord? (2 types)

A

sufficient if
1) it’s a different type than the consideration under the OG K, or
2) it’s to be paid to a third party

78
Q

what is a novation?

A

when a new contract substitutes a new party to receive benefits and assume duties that orginally belonged to one of the original parties under the terms of the old contract

79
Q

what are the 4 requirements for a valid novation?

A

1) a previous valid K
2) an agreement between all parties (including the new party to the K)
3) the immediate extinguishment of contractual duties as between the original parties, and
4) a valid and enforceable new K

80
Q

what is a delegation?

A

situation where one party to a K finds a replacement party to perform BUT the OG party still remains on the hook (OG party’s duty not discharged)

81
Q

what is discharge by impossibility?

A

contractual duties discharged where it has become impossible to perform them

82
Q

true or false: impossibility is determined by an objective standard (ie – duties can’t be performed by anyone).

A

TRUE
**NOTE = if duties can be performed by someone other than promisor, the duty won’t be discharged by impossibility

83
Q

when must an impossibility arise to be effective to discharge duties?

A

must arise AFTER the contract has been entered into
**NOTE = if facts giving rise to impossibility already existed, question becomes whether K is voidable bc of mistake

84
Q

true or false: a party that has partially performed a K that has since been discharged by impossibility MAY get restitution for their performance already rendered.

A

TRUE (ie – get back good delivered, payments made, etc)

85
Q

what is the effect of a partial impossibility on the duty to perform?

A

duty is discharged ONLY to the extent of the impossibility (remaining performance – even if more difficult – is still enforceable)

86
Q

what is the effect of a temporary impossibility?

A

will only SUSPEND the duty (not discharge it)

87
Q

what is the effect of the death or incapacity of a person necessary to the K?

A

serves to discharge it (person is considered essential to the K performance – if incapable, dead, it now becomes impossible)

88
Q

true or false: generally, if a K’s necessary subject matter or designated means of performance are destroyed, the contractual duties are discharged.

A

TRUE

89
Q

true or false: a contractor’s duty to construct a building will be discharged by destruction of the work in progress.

A

FALSE (will NOT be discharged)
**RATIONALE = construction is not impossible, contractor can always rebuild (but this will likely extend the deadline so long as contractor was not responsible for the destruction)

90
Q

if the risk of loss has already passed to the buyer, what is the effect of destruction of subject matter of the contract?

A

rules relating to discharge b/c of destruction do NOT apply (applies only if the risk is still with the seller)

91
Q

when will contractual duties be discharged due to impracticability? (2 rqmts)

A

discharged if party to perform has encountered
1) extreme and unreasonable difficulty and/or expense, AND
2) the nonoccurrence of this difficulty/expense was a basic assumption of the parties

92
Q

true or false: generally, a price increase alone WILL be treated as a sufficent impracticability.

A

FALSE (generally not sufficient to discharge duties for impracticability)

93
Q

what is discharge by frustration?

A

when the purpose of the contract has become valueless by virtue of some supervening event that is not the fault of the party seeking discharge (courts will discharge even though performance is still possible)

94
Q

what are the 4 requirements for a valid frustration (so as to discharge K)?

A

1) some supervening act or event leading to frustration,
2) at the time of entering K, parties did NOT reasonably foresee teh act or event occurring,
3) the purpose of the K has been completely or almost completely destroyed by this act or event, and
4) the purpose of the K was realized/known by both parties at the time of making the K