Penal Code Flashcards

1
Q

means a government or governmental subdivision or agency, trust, partnership, or two or more persons having a joint or common economic interest

A

Association

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1
Q

means a written or electronic instruction to pay money that is authorized by the person giving the instruction and that is payable on demand or at a definite time by the person being instructed to pay. The term includes a check, an electronic debit, or an automatic bank draft.

A

Sight order

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2
Q

(a) A defense to prosecution for an offense in this code is so labeled by the phrase: “It is a defense to prosecution . . . .”
(b) The prosecuting attorney is not required to negate the existence of a defense in the accusation charging commission of the offense.
(c) The issue of the existence of a defense is not submitted to the jury unless evidence is admitted supporting the defense.
(d) If the issue of the existence of a defense is submitted to the jury, the court shall charge that a reasonable doubt on the issue requires that the defendant be acquitted.
(e) A ground of defense in a penal law that is not plainly labeled in accordance with this chapter has the procedural and evidentiary consequences of a defense.

A

DEFENSE

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3
Q

means the constitution or a statute of this state or of the United States, a written opinion of a court of record, a municipal ordinance, an order of a county commissioners court, or a rule authorized by and lawfully adopted under a statute.

A

Law

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3
Q

means a person who:

(A) has title to the property, possession of the property, whether lawful or not, or a greater right to possession of the property than the actor; or

(B) is a holder in due course of a negotiable instrument.

A

Owner

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4
Q

means bodily injury that creates a substantial risk of death or that causes death, serious permanent disfigurement, or protracted loss or impairment of the function of any bodily member or organ.

A

Serious bodily injury

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4
Q

includes affirm

A

Swear

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5
Q

includes consent by a person legally authorized to act for the owner. Consent is not effective if:

(A) induced by force, threat, or fraud;

(B) given by a person the actor knows is not legally authorized to act for the owner;

(C) given by a person who by reason of youth, mental disease or defect, or intoxication is known by the actor to be unable to make reasonable decisions; or

(D) given solely to detect the commission of an offense.

A

Effective consent

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6
Q

includes authority, board, bureau, commission, committee, council, department, district, division, and office

A

Agency

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6
Q

means a person elected, selected, appointed, employed, or otherwise designated as one of the following, even if he has not yet qualified for office or assumed his duties:

(A) an officer, employee, or agent of government;

(B) a juror or grand juror; or

(C) an arbitrator, referee, or other person who is authorized by law or private written agreement to hear or determine a cause or controversy; or

(D) an attorney at law or notary public when participating in the performance of a governmental function; or

(E) a candidate for nomination or election to public office; or

(F) a person who is performing a governmental function under a claim of right although he is not legally qualified to do so.

A

Public servant

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7
Q

means physical pain, illness, or any impairment of physical condition.

A

Bodily injury

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8
Q

means an act or omission and its accompanying mental state.

A

Conduct

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9
Q

a) Conduct does not constitute an offense unless it is defined as an offense by statute, municipal ordinance, order of a county commissioners court, or rule authorized by and lawfully adopted under a statute.
(b) The provisions of Titles 1, 2, and 3 apply to offenses defined by other laws, unless the statute defining the offense provides otherwise; however, the punishment affixed to an offense defined outside this code shall be applicable unless the punishment is classified in accordance with this code.
(c) This code does not bar, suspend, or otherwise affect a right or liability to damages, penalty, forfeiture, or other remedy authorized by law to be recovered or enforced in a civil suit for conduct this code defines as an offense, and the civil injury is not merged in the offense.

A

EFFECT OF CODE

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9
Q

means a facility that generates electric energy for distribution to the public.

A

Electric generating plant

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10
Q

(b) If the offense is criminal homicide, a “result” is either the physical impact causing death or the death itself. If the body of a criminal homicide victim is found in this state, it is presumed that the death occurred in this state. If death alone is the basis for jurisdiction, it is a defense to the exercise of jurisdiction by this state that the conduct that constitutes the offense is not made criminal in the jurisdiction where the conduct occurred.

A

TERRITORIAL JURISDICTION

Part B

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12
Q

A person commmits an offense if he recklessly causes the death of an individual.

felony of the second degree

A

MANSLAUGHTER

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13
Q

(A) a firearm or anything manifestly designed, made, or adapted for the purpose of inflicting death or serious bodily injury; or

(B) anything that in the manner of its use or intended use is capable of causing death or serious bodily injury.

A

Deadly weapon

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13
Q

means actual care, custody, control, or management.

A

Possession

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14
Q

(d) This state includes the land and water and the air space above the land and water over which this state has power to define offenses.

A

TERRITORIAL JURISDICTION

Part D

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14
Q

(a) An affirmative defense in this code is so labeled by the phrase: “It is an affirmative defense to prosecution . . . .”
(b) The prosecuting attorney is not required to negate the existence of an affirmative defense in the accusation charging commission of the offense.
(c) The issue of the existence of an affirmative defense is not submitted to the jury unless evidence is admitted supporting the defense.
(d) If the issue of the existence of an affirmative defense is submitted to the jury, the court shall charge that the defendant must prove the affirmative defense by a preponderance of evidence.

A

AFFIRMATIVE DEFENSE

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15
Q

A) the forbidden conduct;

(B) the required culpability;

(C) any required result; and

(D) the negation of any exception to the offense.

A

Element of offense

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16
Q

means a human being who is alive, including an unborn child at every stage of gestation from fertilization until birth

A

Individual

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18
Q

means a threat, however communicated:

(A) to commit an offense;

(B) to inflict bodily injury in the future on the person threatened or another;

(C) to accuse a person of any offense;

(D) to expose a person to hatred, contempt, or ridicule;

(E) to harm the credit or business repute of any person; or

(F) to take or withhold action as a public servant, or to cause a public servant to take or withhold action.

A

Coercion

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19
Q

(a) A person commits an offense if he intentionally or knowingly abducts another person.
(b) It is an affirmative defense to prosecution under this section that:
(1) the abduction was not coupled with intent to use or to threaten to use deadly force;
(2) the actor was a relative of the person abducted; and
(3) the actor’s sole intent was to assume lawful control of the victim.(c)

a felony of the third degree.

A

KIDNAPPING

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21
Q

means anything reasonably regarded as economic gain or advantage, including benefit to any other person in whose welfare the beneficiary is interested.

A

Benefit

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22
Q

means assent in fact, whether express or apparent.

A

Consent

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23
Q

means a person other than the actor.

A

Another

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24
Q

means a place designated by law for confinement of persons arrested for, charged with, or convicted of an offense.

A

Penal institution

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25
Q

means any place to which the public or a substantial group of the public has access and includes, but is not limited to, streets, highways, and the common areas of schools, hospitals, apartment houses, office buildings, transport facilities, and shops.

A

Public place

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27
Q

means a place designated by law for the confinement of a person arrested for, charged with, or convicted of a criminal offense. The term includes:

(A) a municipal or county jail;

(B) a confinement facility operated by the Texas Department of Criminal Justice;

(C) a confinement facility operated under contract with any division of the Texas Department of Criminal Justice; and

(D) a community corrections facility operated by a community supervision and corrections department.

A

Correctional facility

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28
Q

means a belief that would be held by an ordinary and prudent man in the same circumstances as the actor.

A

Reasonable belief

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30
Q

means a facility used to switch or change voltage in connection with the transmission of electric energy for distribution to the public.

A

Electric utility substation

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31
Q

(a) A person commits an offense only if he voluntarily engages in conduct, including an act, an omission, or possession.
(b) Possession is a voluntary act if the possessor knowingly obtains or receives the thing possessed or is aware of his control of the thing for a sufficient time to permit him to terminate his control.
(c) A person who omits to perform an act does not commit an offense unless a law as defined by Section 1.07 provides that the omission is an offense or otherwise provides that he has a duty to perform the act.

A

REQUIREMENT OF VOLUNTARY ACT OR OMISSION

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32
Q

means a person elected, employed, or appointed as a peace officer under Article 2.12, Code of Criminal Procedure, Section 51.212 or 51.214, Education Code, or other law.

A

Peace officer

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34
Q

A person attains a specified age on the day of the anniversary of his birthdate.

A

COMPUTATION OF AGE

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35
Q

includes affirmation

A

Oath

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36
Q

a) A person commits an offense if he intentionally or knowingly abducts another person with the intent to:
(1) hold him for ransom or reward;
(2) use him as a shield or hostage;
(3) facilitate the commission of a felony or the flight after the attempt or commission of a felony;
(4) inflict bodily injury on him or violate or abuse him sexually;
(5) terrorize him or a third person; or
(6) interfere with the performance of any governmental or political function.
(b) A person commits an offense if the person intentionally or knowingly abducts another person and uses or exhibits a deadly weapon during the commission of the offense.
(c) Except as provided by Subsection
(d) , an offense under this section is a felony of the first degree.
(d) At the punishment stage of a trial, the defendant may raise the issue as to whether he voluntarily released the victim in a safe place.

If the defendant proves the issue in the affirmative by a preponderance of the evidence, the offense is a felony of the second degree.

A

AGGRAVATED KIDNAPPING

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36
Q

means any type of administrative, executive, legislative, or judicial proceeding that may be conducted before a public servant.

A

Official proceeding

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37
Q

(A) a municipal or county jail; or

(B) a confinement facility operated by or under a contract with any division of the Texas Department of Criminal Justice.

A

Secure correctional facility

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38
Q

means a bodily movement, whether voluntary or involuntary, and includes speech

A

Act

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39
Q

means criminal or tortious or both and includes what would be criminal or tortious but for a defense not amounting to justification or privilege.

A

Unlawful

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40
Q

(a) An exception to an offense in this code is so labeled by the phrase: “It is an exception to the application of . . . .”
(b) The prosecuting attorney must negate the existence of an exception in the accusation charging commission of the offense and prove beyond a reasonable doubt that the defendant or defendant’s conduct does not fall within the exception.
(c) This section does not affect exceptions applicable to offenses enacted prior to the effective date of this code.

A

EXCEPTION of PROOF BEYOND A REASONABLE DOUB

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42
Q

means failure to act

A

Omission

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43
Q

means anything reasonably regarded as loss, disadvantage, or injury, including harm to another person in whose welfare the person affected is interested.

A

Harm

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44
Q

includes nonprofit corporations, professional associations created pursuant to statute, and joint stock companies.

A

Corporation

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45
Q

has the meaning assigned by Section 481.002, Health and Safety Code.

A

Controlled substance

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47
Q

(c) An offense based on an omission to perform a duty imposed on an actor by a statute of this state is committed inside this state regardless of the location of the actor at the time of the offense.

A

TERRITORIAL JURISDICTION

Part C

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47
Q

means an offense so designated by law or punishable by fine, by confinement in jail, or by both fine and confinement in jail.

A

Misdemeanor

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48
Q

includes, for an individual who is an unborn child, the failure to be born alive.

A

Death

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50
Q

includes regulation

A

Rule

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51
Q

A person commits an offense if he causes the death of an individual by criminal negligence.

a state jail felony

A

CRIMINALLY NEGLIGENT HOMICIDE

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52
Q

The general purposes of this code are to establish a system of prohibitions, penalties, and correctional measures to deal with conduct that unjustifiably and inexcusably causes or threatens harm to those individual or public interests for which state protection is appropriate.

A

OBJECTIVES OF CODE

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53
Q

All persons are presumed to be innocent and no person may be convicted of an offense unless each element of the offense is proved beyond a reasonable doubt. The fact that he has been arrested, confined, or indicted for, or otherwise charged with, the offense gives rise to no inference of guilt at his trial.

A

PROOF BEYOND A REASONABLE DOUBT

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54
Q

means an individual, corporation, or association

A

Person

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55
Q

This state has jurisdiction over an offense that a person commits by his own conduct or the conduct of another for which he is criminally responsible if:

(1) either the conduct or a result that is an element of the offense occurs inside this state;
(2) the conduct outside this state constitutes an attempt to commit an offense inside this state;
(3) the conduct outside this state constitutes a conspiracy to commit an offense inside this state, and an act in furtherance of the conspiracy occurs inside this state; or
(4) the conduct inside this state constitutes an attempt, solicitation, or conspiracy to commit, or establishes criminal responsibility for the commission of, an offense in another jurisdiction that is also an offense under the laws of this state.

A

TERRITORIAL JURISDICTION

part A

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56
Q

means a person whose criminal responsibility is in issue in a criminal action. Whenever the term “suspect” is used in this code, it means “…”

A

ACTOR

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57
Q

means an offense so designated by law or punishable by death or confinement in a penitentiary

A

Felony

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58
Q

A) the state;

(B) a county, municipality, or political subdivision of the state; or

(C) any branch or agency of the state, a county, municipality, or political subdivision.

A

Government

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59
Q

Association

A

means a government or governmental subdivision or agency, trust, partnership, or two or more persons having a joint or common economic interest

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60
Q

Sight order

A

means a written or electronic instruction to pay money that is authorized by the person giving the instruction and that is payable on demand or at a definite time by the person being instructed to pay. The term includes a check, an electronic debit, or an automatic bank draft.

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61
Q

DEFENSE

A

(a) A defense to prosecution for an offense in this code is so labeled by the phrase: “It is a defense to prosecution . . . .”
(b) The prosecuting attorney is not required to negate the existence of a defense in the accusation charging commission of the offense.
(c) The issue of the existence of a defense is not submitted to the jury unless evidence is admitted supporting the defense.
(d) If the issue of the existence of a defense is submitted to the jury, the court shall charge that a reasonable doubt on the issue requires that the defendant be acquitted.
(e) A ground of defense in a penal law that is not plainly labeled in accordance with this chapter has the procedural and evidentiary consequences of a defense.

62
Q

Law

A

means the constitution or a statute of this state or of the United States, a written opinion of a court of record, a municipal ordinance, an order of a county commissioners court, or a rule authorized by and lawfully adopted under a statute.

63
Q

Owner

A

means a person who:

(A) has title to the property, possession of the property, whether lawful or not, or a greater right to possession of the property than the actor; or

(B) is a holder in due course of a negotiable instrument.

64
Q

Serious bodily injury

A

means bodily injury that creates a substantial risk of death or that causes death, serious permanent disfigurement, or protracted loss or impairment of the function of any bodily member or organ.

65
Q

Swear

A

includes affirm

66
Q

Effective consent

A

includes consent by a person legally authorized to act for the owner. Consent is not effective if:

(A) induced by force, threat, or fraud;

(B) given by a person the actor knows is not legally authorized to act for the owner;

(C) given by a person who by reason of youth, mental disease or defect, or intoxication is known by the actor to be unable to make reasonable decisions; or

(D) given solely to detect the commission of an offense.

67
Q

Agency

A

includes authority, board, bureau, commission, committee, council, department, district, division, and office

68
Q

Public servant

A

means a person elected, selected, appointed, employed, or otherwise designated as one of the following, even if he has not yet qualified for office or assumed his duties:

(A) an officer, employee, or agent of government;

(B) a juror or grand juror; or

(C) an arbitrator, referee, or other person who is authorized by law or private written agreement to hear or determine a cause or controversy; or

(D) an attorney at law or notary public when participating in the performance of a governmental function; or

(E) a candidate for nomination or election to public office; or

(F) a person who is performing a governmental function under a claim of right although he is not legally qualified to do so.

69
Q

Bodily injury

A

means physical pain, illness, or any impairment of physical condition.

70
Q

Conduct

A

means an act or omission and its accompanying mental state.

71
Q

EFFECT OF CODE

A

a) Conduct does not constitute an offense unless it is defined as an offense by statute, municipal ordinance, order of a county commissioners court, or rule authorized by and lawfully adopted under a statute.
(b) The provisions of Titles 1, 2, and 3 apply to offenses defined by other laws, unless the statute defining the offense provides otherwise; however, the punishment affixed to an offense defined outside this code shall be applicable unless the punishment is classified in accordance with this code.
(c) This code does not bar, suspend, or otherwise affect a right or liability to damages, penalty, forfeiture, or other remedy authorized by law to be recovered or enforced in a civil suit for conduct this code defines as an offense, and the civil injury is not merged in the offense.

72
Q

Electric generating plant

A

means a facility that generates electric energy for distribution to the public.

73
Q

TERRITORIAL JURISDICTION

Part B

A

(b) If the offense is criminal homicide, a “result” is either the physical impact causing death or the death itself. If the body of a criminal homicide victim is found in this state, it is presumed that the death occurred in this state. If death alone is the basis for jurisdiction, it is a defense to the exercise of jurisdiction by this state that the conduct that constitutes the offense is not made criminal in the jurisdiction where the conduct occurred.

74
Q

MANSLAUGHTER

A

A person commmits an offense if he recklessly causes the death of an individual.

felony of the second degree

75
Q

Deadly weapon

A

(A) a firearm or anything manifestly designed, made, or adapted for the purpose of inflicting death or serious bodily injury; or

(B) anything that in the manner of its use or intended use is capable of causing death or serious bodily injury.

76
Q

Possession

A

means actual care, custody, control, or management.

77
Q

TERRITORIAL JURISDICTION

Part D

A

(d) This state includes the land and water and the air space above the land and water over which this state has power to define offenses.

78
Q

AFFIRMATIVE DEFENSE

A

(a) An affirmative defense in this code is so labeled by the phrase: “It is an affirmative defense to prosecution . . . .”
(b) The prosecuting attorney is not required to negate the existence of an affirmative defense in the accusation charging commission of the offense.
(c) The issue of the existence of an affirmative defense is not submitted to the jury unless evidence is admitted supporting the defense.
(d) If the issue of the existence of an affirmative defense is submitted to the jury, the court shall charge that the defendant must prove the affirmative defense by a preponderance of evidence.

79
Q

Element of offense

A

A) the forbidden conduct;

(B) the required culpability;

(C) any required result; and

(D) the negation of any exception to the offense.

80
Q

Individual

A

means a human being who is alive, including an unborn child at every stage of gestation from fertilization until birth

81
Q

Coercion

A

means a threat, however communicated:

(A) to commit an offense;

(B) to inflict bodily injury in the future on the person threatened or another;

(C) to accuse a person of any offense;

(D) to expose a person to hatred, contempt, or ridicule;

(E) to harm the credit or business repute of any person; or

(F) to take or withhold action as a public servant, or to cause a public servant to take or withhold action.

82
Q

KIDNAPPING

A

(a) A person commits an offense if he intentionally or knowingly abducts another person.
(b) It is an affirmative defense to prosecution under this section that:
(1) the abduction was not coupled with intent to use or to threaten to use deadly force;
(2) the actor was a relative of the person abducted; and
(3) the actor’s sole intent was to assume lawful control of the victim.(c)

a felony of the third degree.

83
Q

Benefit

A

means anything reasonably regarded as economic gain or advantage, including benefit to any other person in whose welfare the beneficiary is interested.

84
Q

Consent

A

means assent in fact, whether express or apparent.

85
Q

Another

A

means a person other than the actor.

86
Q

Penal institution

A

means a place designated by law for confinement of persons arrested for, charged with, or convicted of an offense.

87
Q

Public place

A

means any place to which the public or a substantial group of the public has access and includes, but is not limited to, streets, highways, and the common areas of schools, hospitals, apartment houses, office buildings, transport facilities, and shops.

88
Q

Correctional facility

A

means a place designated by law for the confinement of a person arrested for, charged with, or convicted of a criminal offense. The term includes:

(A) a municipal or county jail;

(B) a confinement facility operated by the Texas Department of Criminal Justice;

(C) a confinement facility operated under contract with any division of the Texas Department of Criminal Justice; and

(D) a community corrections facility operated by a community supervision and corrections department.

89
Q

Reasonable belief

A

means a belief that would be held by an ordinary and prudent man in the same circumstances as the actor.

90
Q

Electric utility substation

A

means a facility used to switch or change voltage in connection with the transmission of electric energy for distribution to the public.

91
Q

REQUIREMENT OF VOLUNTARY ACT OR OMISSION

A

(a) A person commits an offense only if he voluntarily engages in conduct, including an act, an omission, or possession.
(b) Possession is a voluntary act if the possessor knowingly obtains or receives the thing possessed or is aware of his control of the thing for a sufficient time to permit him to terminate his control.
(c) A person who omits to perform an act does not commit an offense unless a law as defined by Section 1.07 provides that the omission is an offense or otherwise provides that he has a duty to perform the act.

92
Q

Peace officer

A

means a person elected, employed, or appointed as a peace officer under Article 2.12, Code of Criminal Procedure, Section 51.212 or 51.214, Education Code, or other law.

93
Q

COMPUTATION OF AGE

A

A person attains a specified age on the day of the anniversary of his birthdate.

94
Q

Oath

A

includes affirmation

95
Q

AGGRAVATED KIDNAPPING

A

a) A person commits an offense if he intentionally or knowingly abducts another person with the intent to:
(1) hold him for ransom or reward;
(2) use him as a shield or hostage;
(3) facilitate the commission of a felony or the flight after the attempt or commission of a felony;
(4) inflict bodily injury on him or violate or abuse him sexually;
(5) terrorize him or a third person; or
(6) interfere with the performance of any governmental or political function.
(b) A person commits an offense if the person intentionally or knowingly abducts another person and uses or exhibits a deadly weapon during the commission of the offense.
(c) Except as provided by Subsection
(d) , an offense under this section is a felony of the first degree.
(d) At the punishment stage of a trial, the defendant may raise the issue as to whether he voluntarily released the victim in a safe place.

felony of the second degree.

96
Q

Official proceeding

A

means any type of administrative, executive, legislative, or judicial proceeding that may be conducted before a public servant.

97
Q

Secure correctional facility

A

(A) a municipal or county jail; or

(B) a confinement facility operated by or under a contract with any division of the Texas Department of Criminal Justice.

98
Q

Act

A

means a bodily movement, whether voluntary or involuntary, and includes speech

99
Q

Unlawful

A

means criminal or tortious or both and includes what would be criminal or tortious but for a defense not amounting to justification or privilege.

100
Q

EXCEPTION of PROOF BEYOND A REASONABLE DOUB

A

(a) An exception to an offense in this code is so labeled by the phrase: “It is an exception to the application of . . . .”
(b) The prosecuting attorney must negate the existence of an exception in the accusation charging commission of the offense and prove beyond a reasonable doubt that the defendant or defendant’s conduct does not fall within the exception.
(c) This section does not affect exceptions applicable to offenses enacted prior to the effective date of this code.

101
Q

Omission

A

means failure to act

102
Q

Harm

A

means anything reasonably regarded as loss, disadvantage, or injury, including harm to another person in whose welfare the person affected is interested.

103
Q

Corporation

A

includes nonprofit corporations, professional associations created pursuant to statute, and joint stock companies.

104
Q

Controlled substance

A

has the meaning assigned by Section 481.002, Health and Safety Code.

105
Q

TERRITORIAL JURISDICTION

Part C

A

(c) An offense based on an omission to perform a duty imposed on an actor by a statute of this state is committed inside this state regardless of the location of the actor at the time of the offense.

106
Q

Misdemeanor

A

means an offense so designated by law or punishable by fine, by confinement in jail, or by both fine and confinement in jail.

107
Q

Death

A

includes, for an individual who is an unborn child, the failure to be born alive.

108
Q

Rule

A

includes regulation

109
Q

CRIMINALLY NEGLIGENT HOMICIDE

A

A person commits an offense if he causes the death of an individual by criminal negligence.

a state jail felony

110
Q

OBJECTIVES OF CODE

A

The general purposes of this code are to establish a system of prohibitions, penalties, and correctional measures to deal with conduct that unjustifiably and inexcusably causes or threatens harm to those individual or public interests for which state protection is appropriate.

111
Q

PROOF BEYOND A REASONABLE DOUBT

A

All persons are presumed to be innocent and no person may be convicted of an offense unless each element of the offense is proved beyond a reasonable doubt. The fact that he has been arrested, confined, or indicted for, or otherwise charged with, the offense gives rise to no inference of guilt at his trial.

112
Q

Person

A

means an individual, corporation, or association

113
Q

TERRITORIAL JURISDICTION

part A

A

This state has jurisdiction over an offense that a person commits by his own conduct or the conduct of another for which he is criminally responsible if:

(1) either the conduct or a result that is an element of the offense occurs inside this state;
(2) the conduct outside this state constitutes an attempt to commit an offense inside this state;
(3) the conduct outside this state constitutes a conspiracy to commit an offense inside this state, and an act in furtherance of the conspiracy occurs inside this state; or
(4) the conduct inside this state constitutes an attempt, solicitation, or conspiracy to commit, or establishes criminal responsibility for the commission of, an offense in another jurisdiction that is also an offense under the laws of this state.

114
Q

ACTOR

A

means a person whose criminal responsibility is in issue in a criminal action. Whenever the term “suspect” is used in this code, it means “…”

115
Q

Felony

A

means an offense so designated by law or punishable by death or confinement in a penitentiary

116
Q

Government

A

A) the state;

(B) a county, municipality, or political subdivision of the state; or

(C) any branch or agency of the state, a county, municipality, or political subdivision.

117
Q

Unlawful restraint

A

A person commits an offense if he intentionally or knowingly restrains another person.

Class A misdemeanor

state jail felony if the person restrained was a child younger than 17 years of age

a felony of the third degree if:

(A) the actor recklessly exposes the victim to a substantial risk of serious bodily injury;

(B) the actor restrains an individual the actor knows is a public servant while the public servant is lawfully discharging an official duty or in retaliation or on account of an exercise of official power or performance of an official duty as a public servant; or

(C) the actor while in custody restrains any other person

118
Q

Smuggling Persons

A

state jail felony

person intentionally uses a motor vehicle, aircraft, or watercraft to transport an individual

conceal the individual from a peace officer or special investigator

flee from a person the actor knows is a peace officer or special investigator attempting to lawfully arrest or detain the actor

**felony of the third degree **

for pecuniary benefit

transported individual will suffer serious bodily injury or death

119
Q

TRAFFICKING OF PERSONS

A

Knowingly; Felony First degree

traffics another person with the intent that the trafficked person engage in forced labor or services

120
Q

CONTINUOUS TRAFFICKING OF PERSONS

A

during a period that is 30 or more days in duration, the person engages two or more times in conduct that constitutes an offense

felony of the first degree, punishable by imprisonment in the Texas Department of Criminal Justice for life or for any term of not more than 99 years or less than 25 years

121
Q

CONTINUOUS SEXUAL ABUSE OF YOUNG CHILD OR CHILDREN

A

during a period that is 30 or more days in duration, the person commits two or more acts of sexual abuse, regardless of whether the acts of sexual abuse are committed against one or more victims

at the time of the commission of each of the acts of sexual abuse, the actor is 17 years of age or older and the victim is a child younger than 14 years of age.

felony of the first degree, punishable by imprisonment in the Texas Department of Criminal Justice for life, or for any term of not more than 99 years or less than 25 years

122
Q

PUBLIC LEWDNESS

A

Class A misdemeanor

knowingly engages in any of the following acts in a public place or, if not in a public place, he is reckless about whether another is present who will be offended or alarmed by his

involving contact between the person’s mouth or genitals and the anus or genitals of an animal or fowl

123
Q

INDECENT EXPOSURE

A

exposes his anus or any part of his genitals with intent to arouse or gratify the sexual desire of any person, and he is reckless about whether another is present who will be offended or alarmed by his act

Class B misdemeanor

124
Q

INDECENCY WITH A CHILD

A

_felony of the second degree _

child younger than 17 years of age

sexual contact with the child or causes the child to engage in sexual contact

felony of the third degree

intent to arouse or gratify exposes the person’s anus or any part of the person’s genitals, knowing the child is present causes the child to expose the child’s anus or any part of the child’s genitals.

125
Q

IMPROPER RELATIONSHIP BETWEEN EDUCATOR AND STUDENT

A

felony of the second degree

engages in sexual contact, sexual intercourse, or deviate sexual intercourse with a person who is enrolled in a public or private primary or secondary school at which the employee works

126
Q

IMPROPER PHOTOGRAPHY OR VISUAL RECORDING

A

state jail felony

photographs or by videotape or other electronic means records, broadcasts, or transmits a visual image of another at a location that is not a bathroom or private dressing room with intent to arouse or gratify the sexual desire of any person;

127
Q

ASSAULT

A

Class A

Causes bodily injury

Class C

Threatens a person, or cause physical contact

Felony 3

Hitting a public servant

128
Q

SEXUAL ASSAULT

A

intentionally or knowingly

felony of the second degree,

except that an offense under this section is a

felony of the first degree

if the victim was a person whom the actor was prohibited from marrying or purporting to marry or with whom the actor was prohibited from living under the appearance of being married

129
Q

AGGRAVATED ASSAULT

A

felony of the second degree

causes serious bodily injury to another, including the person’s spouse; or uses or exhibits a deadly weapon during the commission of the assault

_felony of the first degree _

deadly weapon during the commission of the assault and causes serious bodily injury to a person

public servant

retaliation against or on account of the service of another as a witness, prospective witness, informant, or person who has reported the occurrence of a crime

person the actor knows is a security officer

Fires a weapon from a vehicle towards a habitation or building

reckless as to whether the habitation, building, or vehicle is occupieddischarging the firearm,

causes serious bodily injury to any person

130
Q

AGGRAVATED SEXUAL ASSAULT

A

Felony 1st

intentionally or knowingly

causes serious bodily injury or attempts to cause the death of the victim or another person in the course of the same criminal episode

victim is younger than 14 years

Elderly or disabled

Felony 1st plus 25 years

Victim younger then 6 years

younger then 14 years

131
Q

INJURY TO A CHILD, ELDERLY INDIVIDUAL, OR DISABLED INDIVIDUAL

A

Intentionally, knowingly, recklessly or with criminal neg

Felony 1st

SBI, Serious mental, Bodily Injury, Explotation

Felony 2nd

Recklessly

132
Q

ABANDONING OR ENDANGERING CHILD

A

Child < 15yoa

Intent to return SJF

Without intent F3

F2 if abandons

133
Q

Deadly Conduct

A

Recklessly engages in conduct the places another

Imminent danger SBI (Class A)

Knowingly Discharges Firearm

At one or more persons, habitation, building or vehicle

F3

134
Q

Terroristic Threat

A

Threatens any offense involving to any person or property

Reaction to volunteer Class B

Fear of SBI, Class B; Class A if aganist public servant or Family member

Prevent the use of building Class A unless 1.5k more in loss SJF

Interupts public public transport, water, gas, power

Public in fear of SBI

Affect fed state activites Felony 3

135
Q

AIDING SUICIDE

A

intent to promote or assist the commission of suicide by another, he aids or attempts to aid the other to commit or attempt to commit suicide

Class C misdemeanor

causes suicide or attempted suicide that results in serious bodily injury, in which event the offense is a state jail felony

136
Q

TAMPERING WITH CONSUMER PRODUCT

A

Knowingly or intentionally

Tampers with product is F2

Threatens to tamper is F3

Causing SBI is F1

137
Q

Leaving child in vehicle

A

Intentionally or knowingly leaves chlid in vehicle longer then 5 mins

Child under 7 yoa

Not being watched by 14 yoa or higher

Class C

138
Q

HARASSMENT BY PERSONS IN CERTAIN CORRECTIONAL FACILITIES; HARASSMENT OF PUBLIC SERVANT

A

Intent

while imprisoned or confined in a correctional or detention facility, causes another person to contact the blood, seminal fluid, vaginal fluid, saliva, urine, or feces of the actor, any other person, or an animal

F3

139
Q

BIGAMY

A

Cant get married twice.

F3

17 yoa is F2

16 and under is F1

140
Q

PROHIBITED SEXUAL CONDUCT

A

A person commits an offense if the person engages in sexual intercourse or deviate sexual intercourse with another person the actor knows to be, without regard to legitimacy F3

actor’s ancestor or descendant by blood or adoption F2

141
Q

INTERFERENCE WITH CHILD CUSTODY

A

Takes child younger then 18

Violates court order

Pending suit/out of area

non custodial parent entices child to leave

SJF

142
Q

AGREEMENT TO ABDUCT FROM CUSTODY

A

for remuneration or the promise of remuneration, to abduct a child younger than 18 years of age by force, threat of force, misrepresentation, stealth, or unlawful entry, knowing that the child is under the care and control of a person having custody or physical possession of the child under a court order, including a temporary order, or under the care and control of another person who is exercising care and control with the consent of a person having custody or physical possession under a court order, including a temporary order

SJF

143
Q

Entice child

A

with the intent to interfere with the lawful custody of a child younger than 18 years, he knowingly entices, persuades, or takes the child from the custody of the parent or guardian or person standing in the stead of the parent or guardian of such child

Class B

144
Q

CRIMINAL NONSUPPORT

A

intentionally or knowingly fails to provide support for the individual’s child younger than 18 years of age, or for the individual’s child who is the subject of a court order requiring the individual to support the child

SJF

145
Q

Harboring runaway child

A

knowingly harbors a child and he is criminally negligent about whether the child

is younger than 18 years

has escaped from the custody of a peace officer, a probation officer, the Texas Youth Council, or a detention facility for children, or is voluntarily absent from the child’s home without the consent of the child’s parent or guardian for a substantial length of time or without the intent to return

CLASS A

146
Q

VIOLATION OF CERTAIN COURT ORDERS OR CONDITIONS OF BOND IN A FAMILY VIOLENCE CASE.

A

Class A

147
Q

VIOLATION OF PROTECTIVE ORDER PREVENTING OFFENSE CAUSED BY BIAS OR PREJUDICE

A

Class A

convicted 2 or more times or violated by commiting assault F3

148
Q

ADVERTISING FOR PLACEMENT OF CHILD

A

person advertises in the public media that the person will place a child for adoption or will provide or obtain a child for adoption

Class A misdemeanor unless the person has been convicted previously under this section, in which event the offense is a felony of the third degree.

149
Q

INTERFERENCE WITH RIGHTS OF GUARDIAN OF THE PERSON

A

person takes, retains, or conceals a ward when the person knows that the person’s taking, retention, or concealment interferes with a possessory right with respect to the ward

SJF

150
Q

CONTINUOUS VIOLENCE AGAINST THE FAMILY

A

during a period that is 12 months or less in duration, the person two or more times engages in conduct that constitutes an offense

F3

151
Q
A