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Funmed > Peerwise questions > Flashcards

Peerwise questions Flashcards

1
Q

Out of 29 mutations identified in the APP (amyloid precursor protein) gene, which mutation is protective of Alzheimer’s Disease?

A
M665D

B
D678N

C
A692G

D
A673T

E
D694N

A

D
A673T

A673T decreases amyloid beta production and is therefore protective of Alzheimer’s Disease.

The remaining identified mutations generally increase amyloid beta production.

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2
Q

What is the drug substrate of CYP1A2?

A
Codeine

B
Erythromycin

C
Omeprazole

D
Theophylline

E
Cyclosporine

A

D
Theophylline

Drug substrate for CYP1A2 is Theophylline

Drug substrate for CYP2D6 is Codeine

Drug substrate for CYP3A6 is Cyclosporine

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3
Q

Which nerve innervates the cremaster muscle?

A
Femoral nerve

B
Iliohypogastric nerve

C
Ilioinguinal nerve

D
Genitofemoral nerve

E
Cremasteric nerve

A

D
Genitofemoral nerve

The cremaster muscle is innervated by the genitofemoral nerve which arises from L1 and L2.

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4
Q

Which of the following is supplied by the Inferior Mesenteric Artery?

A
Proximal 2/3 of transverse colon

B
Distal 1/3 of transverse colon

C
Ileum

D
Liver

E
Stomach

A

B
Distal 1/3 of transverse colon

Proximal 2/3 of transverse colon & Ileum are supplied by branches of the Superior Mesenteric Artery

Stomach and Liver are supplied by branches of the coeliac trunk

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5
Q

What signal added to newly synthesised proteins directs them to the endoplasmic reticulum?

Mannose-6-phosphate

Ubiquitin

KDEL

5 basic amino acids

Phosphate group

A

KDEL

K—Lysine
D—Aspartic acid
E—Glutamic acid
L—Leucine

KDEL is a peptide sequence added to the C-terminus of a synthesised polypeptide that directs the protein to the ER

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6
Q

What disease is caused by Vitamin B3 deficiency?

A
Beriberi

B
Pallegra

C
Wernicke–Korsakoff syndrome

D
Neural tube folding defects

E
Anaemia

A

B
Pallegra

Pallegra is caused by Vitamin B3 deficiency

Symptoms: cracked, scaly and discoloured skin with digestive problems, generalised and muscle weakness

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7
Q

Which of the following diseases can be caused by a mutation in a collagen-encoding gene?

A
Sickle cell anemia

B
Osteoporosis

C
Albinism

D
Osteogenesis Imperfecta

E
Malaria

A

D
Osteogenesis Imperfecta

Osteogenesis imperfecta is a genetic disorder of connective tissues caused by an abnormality in the synthesis or processing of type I collagen.

The vast majority (90 percent) of OI is caused by a single dominant mutation in one of two type I collagen genes: COL1A1 or COL1A2.

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8
Q

Which active drug forms by the demethylation of Codeine?

A
Aspirin

B
Paracetamol

C
Morphine

D
Cimetidine

A

C
Morphine

Codeine is a prodrug which is demethylated to Morphine (oxidation reaction) in Phase I drug metabolism

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9
Q

Which of the following is not an X-linked recessive disorder?

A
Haemophilia B

B
Hunter syndrome

C
Haemophilia C

D
Haemophilia A

A

C
Haemophilia C

The rest are X-linked

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10
Q
A
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10
Q

Which of the following is a resident cell present in connective tissue?

A
Chondrocyte

B
Osteoblast

C
Leukocyte

D
Adipocyte

E
Chondroblast

A

D
Adipocyte

Resident cells include: fibroblasts + myfibroblasts, adipocytes, marchophages, mast cells, adult stem cells

Chondro(cytes/blasts) in connective tissue of bone

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11
Q

Which layer of the skin primarily houses melanocytes, the specialized cells responsible for producing the pigment melanin, contributing to skin coloration and protection from UV radiation?

A
Papillary dermis

B
Reticular dermis

C
Stratum lucidum

D
Stratum granulosum

E
Stratum basale (Basal layer of epidermis)

A

E
Stratum basale (Basal layer of epidermis)

Melanocytes are primarily located in the basal layer (Stratum basale) of the epidermis, where they are most densely concentrated.

However, they are not exclusively confined to the basal layer; some melanocytes can be found in other layers of the epidermis, although they are fewer in number in these upper layers.

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12
Q

Which of the following is not found in the Mesencephalon?

A
Superior colliculus

B
Rostral reticular formation

C
Subcortical white structures

D
Periaqueductal grey area

E
Red nucleus

A

C
Subcortical white structures

Subcortical white structures are found in the telencephalon.

The mesencephalon is also known as the midbrain and includes: the pons, the medulla, the spinal cord and the fourth ventricle.

The telencephalon on the other hand is part of the forebrain alongside the diencephalon (thalamus and hypothalamus). It is known as the the cerebrum and covers the four cerebral lobes: frontal, temporal, parietal and occipital

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13
Q

Function of heparin in the blood clotting cascade

A
Competitively activates anti-thrombin which inhibits coagulation

B
Activates thrombin leading to coagulation

C
Combines with platelets and red blood cells to form a clot

D
Allosterically activates anti-thrombin which inhibits coagulation

E
Combines with factor X leading to coagulation

A

D
Allosterically activates anti-thrombin which inhibits coagulation

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14
Q

What is C1 in the vertebral column also called?

A
Axial

B
Appendicular

C
Aorta

D
Atlas

E
Apoenzyme

A

D
Atlas

C2 is the axis, think of Atlas carrying the world

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15
Q

Which of these is cholesterol not a precursor for?

A
Bile salts

B
Vitamin D

C
Neurotransmitters

D
Sex hormones

E
Steroids

A

C
Neurotransmitters

Bile Salts:
Cholesterol is a precursor for the synthesis of bile acids, which, when conjugated with the amino acids glycine or taurine, form bile salts.

Vitamin D:
Cholesterol in the skin, when exposed to ultraviolet B (UVB) radiation from the sun, undergoes a series of chemical reactions leading to the production of vitamin D.

Sex Hormones:
Cholesterol is a precursor for the synthesis of sex hormones, including oestrogen, progesterone, and testosterone.

Steroid Hormones:
Cholesterol is a precursor for the synthesis of steroid hormones, including cortisol, aldosterone, and others.

16
Q

Which vertebral region has transverse foramina?

A
Cervical

B
Thoracic

C
Lumbar

D
Sacral

E
Coccygeal

A

A
Cervical

Transverse foramina allow the passage of the vertebral artery and vein. The vertebral arteries arise from the first part of the subclavian artery.

17
Q

Which is not a drug with a low therapeutic index?

A
Digoxin

B
Phenytoin

C
Levothyroxine

D
Quinolone

E
Warfarin

A

D
Quinolone

Mnemonic of some drugs with low therapeutic index: Carefully Watch Drugs Possessing Low Therapeutic Indexes

Name of drugs: Carbamazepine, Warfarin, Digoxin, Phenytoin, Lithium/Levothyroxine, Theophylline, Immunosuppressants

Hence Quinolone is not a drug with a low therapeutic index

18
Q

What is an enzyme with a co-factor called?

A
Inactive apoenzyme

B
Active apoenzyme

C
Inactive holoenzyme

D
Active holoenzyme

E
Active proenzyme

A

D
Active holoenzyme

Co-factors attach to enzymes to activate them, turning them from apoenzymes to holoenzymes.

19
Q

Which of the following is Vitamin C not involved in?

A
Cholesterol synthesis

B
Collagen synthesis

C
Noradrenaline synthesis

D
Carnitine synthesis

E
Gene transcription and translation

A

A
Cholesterol synthesis

Involved in synthesis of: collagen, hormones (noradrenaline, adrenaline, peptide), carnitine
Also involved in gene transcription and translation

20
Q

What connects the 3rd and 4th ventricles?

A
Corpus callosum

B
Hypophyseal fossa

C
Intervertebral foramen

D
Cerebral aqueduct

E
Foramen of Monro

A

D
Cerebral aqueduct

Interventricular foramen (Foramen of Monro) connects the lateral ventricles with the 3rd ventricle.

Cerebral aqueduct connects 3rd and 4th ventricles.

21
Q

Which of the following is not a symptom of pallegra?

A
Easily bruising

B
Cracked, scaly skin

C
Areas of discolouration

D
Redness on skin

E
Digestive problems

A

Pallegra is caused by Vitamin B3 deficiency
Symptoms: cracked, scaly, red and discoloured skin with digestive problems, generalised and muscle weakness

Note: easily bruising is a symptom of a mutation in the collagen gene (osteogenesis imperfeca)

22
Q

Edwards syndrome is a genetic condition caused by which mutation?

A
Trisomy 21

B
Trisomy 13

C
Trisomy 18

D
Disomy 21

E
Monosomy 18

A

C
Trisomy 18

Edwards syndrome is a genetic condition caused by trisomy 18 [autosomal]
Symptoms include: multiple malformations (heart, kidney), clenched hand with overlapping fingers

23
Q

What is the cofactor for DNA polymerase?

A
Ca2+

B
K+

C
Mg2+

D
Na+

E
Fe2+

A

C
Mg2+

24
Q

Which of the following is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern?

A
Haemophilia

B
Hunter’s syndrome

C
Huntington’s

D
Phenylketonuria

E
Tay-Sach’s

A

C
Huntington’s

Haemophilia A&B are inherited in an X-linked recessive pattern. (Haemophilia C is autosomal recessive)

Phenylketonuria and Tay-Sach’s are inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern

Huntington’s disease is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. Another example of autosomal dominant inheritance is Marfan syndrome.

25
Q

What type of glycosidic bond does lactose have?

A
Alpha 1-4

B
Beta 1-4

C
Alpha 1-2

D
Beta 1-2

E
Beta 1-6

A

B
Beta 1-4

Lactose is a disaccharide made of beta glucose and beta galactose, bonded at the carbon 1 and carbon 4, making it a beta 1-4 bond.

26
Q

Approximately how much residue is there per turn in an alpha-helix protein at secondary structure?

A
2.6

B
3.6

C
4.6

D
5.6

E
6.6

A

B
3.6

There are about 3.6 residue (R groups) per turn, so 36 amino acids per 10 turns.

27
Q

Which of the following is not identified as a Tumour Suppressor Gene?

A
Rb (retinoblastoma)

B
p53

C
BRCA1

D
BRCA2

E
HER2

A

E
HER2

All of the above are TSG except HER2 (an oncogene)

n.b. TSG mutations lead to loss of function; oncogenes lead to gain of function mutations

28
Q

What is the approximate diameter of platelets?

A

2 µm

29
Q

What are the three types of granulocytes and their approximate percentage of all white blood cells?

A

50 to 70% neutrophils
2 to 5% eosinophils
< 1% basophils

30
Q

What are two types of agranulocytes and their approximate percentage of all white blood cells?

A

25 to 30% lymphocytes
3 to 8% monocytes

31
Q

What are two major types of granules found in white blood cells?

A

Specific granules (or secondary granules)

Azurophilic granules (or primary granules)

32
Q

Neutrophil structure

A

multilobed nucleus with distinctive granules

33
Q

Eosinophil structure

A

Eosinophilic (pink) granules in their cytoplasm
Same size as neutrophils

34
Q

Basophil structure

A

Basophilic granules (blue)

35
Q

Lymphocyte structure

A

About the same size as RBCs.
Heavily stained - not much nucleus

36
Q
A

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