Peer teaching (mix of all) Flashcards

1
Q
What is the structure that gives rise to the uterus?
A  Paramesonephric ducts
B   Mesonephric ducts
C   Primitive streak
D   Metanephros
E   Cloaca
F   Mesoderm
G  Ectoderm
H  Endoderm
A

A Paramesonephric ducts

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2
Q
What is the structure that gives rise to the GI tract?
A  Paramesonephric ducts
B   Mesonephric ducts
C   Primitive streak
D   Metanephros
E   Cloaca
F   Mesoderm
G  Ectoderm
H  Endoderm
A

H Endoderm

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3
Q
What is the structure from which the lower part of the vagina is formed?
A  Paramesonephric ducts
B   Mesonephric ducts
C   Primitive streak
D   Metanephros
E   Cloaca
F   Mesoderm
G  Ectoderm
H  Endoderm
A

E Cloaca

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4
Q
What is the structure that gives rise to the kidneys?
A  Paramesonephric ducts
B   Mesonephric ducts
C   Primitive streak
D   Metanephros
E   Cloaca
F   Mesoderm
G  Ectoderm
H  Endoderm
A

D Metanephros

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5
Q

True or false?

During development of the ovarian follicles the primary oocyte arrests at Metaphase of the first meiotic division

A

False: Prophase of the first meiotic division

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6
Q

True or false?

The first polar body is extruded prior to ovulation

A

True: the polar body is produced at the completion of the first stage of meiosis together with a haploid gamete

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7
Q

True or false?

Cardiac activity is evident from day 18

A

False: day 22

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8
Q

True or false?

hCG is produced by the corpus luteum

A

False: the corpus lute produces progesterone

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9
Q

True or false?

the blastocyst begins to form from day 7

A

False: day 5

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10
Q

True or false?

Implantation occurs on around day 9

A

True

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11
Q
Which of these shunts the blood from the right to left atrium?
A Ductus venous
B  Ductus arteriosus
C  Foramen ovale
D  Mitral valve
E  Umbilical vein
F  Umbilical artery 
G Intraventricular septum
A

C Foramen ovale

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12
Q
Which of these carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the foetus?
A Ductus venous
B  Ductus arteriosus
C  Foramen ovale
D  Mitral valve
E  Umbilical vein
F  Umbilical artery 
G Intraventricular septum
A

E Umbilical vein

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13
Q
Which of these allows blood from the right ventricle to bypass the lungs?
A Ductus venous
B  Ductus arteriosus
C  Foramen ovale
D  Mitral valve
E  Umbilical vein
F  Umbilical artery 
G Intraventricular septum
A

B Ductus arteriosus

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14
Q
Which of these, if fails to close at birth leads to pulmonary HTN?
A Ductus venous
B  Ductus arteriosus
C  Foramen ovale
D  Mitral valve
E  Umbilical vein
F  Umbilical artery 
G Intraventricular septum
A

C Foramen ovale

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15
Q
Which of these allows oxygenated blood to bypass the fetal liver?
A Ductus venous
B  Ductus arteriosus
C  Foramen ovale
D  Mitral valve
E  Umbilical vein
F  Umbilical artery 
G Intraventricular septum
A

A Ductus venous

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16
Q
Which of these suppresses secretion of FSH?
A  Oxytocin
B  Cortisol 
C  hCG
D  Prolactin
E  Progesterone
F  Inhibin
G  TSH
A

F Inhibin

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17
Q
hCG shares a common alpha subunit with this hormone?
A  Oxytocin
B  Cortisol 
C  hCG
D  Prolactin
E  Progesterone
F  Inhibin
G  TSH
A

G TSH

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18
Q
Which of these is secreted by lactotrophs?
A  Oxytocin
B  Cortisol 
C  hCG
D  Prolactin
E  Progesterone
F  Inhibin
G  TSH
A

D Prolactin

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19
Q
Which of these inhibits myometrial cell contractility?
A  Oxytocin
B  Cortisol 
C  hCG
D  Prolactin
E  Progesterone
F  Inhibin
G  TSH
A

E Progesterone

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20
Q
Which of these is the hormone required for milk ejection?
A  Oxytocin
B  Cortisol 
C  hCG
D  Prolactin
E  Progesterone
F  Inhibin
G  TSH
A

A Oxytocin

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21
Q
Which of these together with the decidua basilis and amnion forms part of the placenta?
Cytotrophoblast
Cotelydon
Amnion
Chorion
Decidua basilis
Syncytotrophoblast
Trophoblast
Yolk sac
A

Chorion

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22
Q
Which of these is the covering of the fetal side of the placenta?
Cytotrophoblast
Cotelydon
Amnion
Chorion
Decidua basilis
Syncytotrophoblast
Trophoblast
Yolk sac
A

Amnion

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23
Q
The double layer of epithelium of the villi comprises of syncytotrophoblast and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_?
Cytotrophoblast
Cotelydon
Amnion
Chorion
Decidua basilis
Syncytotrophoblast
Trophoblast
Yolk sac
A

Cytotrophoblast

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24
Q
The functional unit of the placenta ?
Cytotrophoblast
Cotelydon
Amnion
Chorion
Decidua basilis
Syncytotrophoblast
Trophoblast
Yolk sac
A

Cotelydon

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25
Q

True or false?

The oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve for the fetus is situated to the left of the mother’s

A

True

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26
Q

True or false?

Fetal haemoglobin has a lower affinity for oxygen

A

False

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27
Q

True or false?

Alveoli are present in the fetal lungs from 15 weeks

A

False

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28
Q

True or false?

Surfactant is produced by Type 1 alveolar cells

A

False

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29
Q

True or false?

Oral corticosteroids are given to women in preterm labour to promote fetal lung maturation

A

False

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30
Q

True or false?
Transient tachypnoea of the newborn is more common in babies born by elective caesarean section before 38 completed weeks

A

True

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31
Q
Deficiency of this vitamin is associated with neural tube defects?
Vitamin D
20 – 22 weeks
Vitamin C
Folic acid
Biparietal Diameter
10 – 14+1 weeks
Spina bifida
Crown rump length
Downs Syndrome
A

Folic acid

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32
Q
A vitamin deficiency common in women born from outside of the UK who live here and obese women?
Vitamin D
20 – 22 weeks
Vitamin C
Folic acid
Biparietal Diameter
10 – 14+1 weeks
Spina bifida
Crown rump length
Downs Syndrome
A

Vitamin D

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33
Q
The Combined test screens for which condition?
Vitamin D
20 – 22 weeks
Vitamin C
Folic acid
Biparietal Diameter
10 – 14+1 weeks
Spina bifida
Crown rump length
Downs Syndrome
A

Downs Syndrome

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34
Q
The Combined test is performed between   \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ weeks?
Vitamin D
20 – 22 weeks
Vitamin C
Folic acid
Biparietal Diameter
10 – 14+1 weeks
Spina bifida
Crown rump length
Downs Syndrome
A

10 – 14+1 weeks

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35
Q
The fetal anatomy scan is usually performed between \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ weeks?
Vitamin D
20 – 22 weeks
Vitamin C
Folic acid
Biparietal Diameter
10 – 14+1 weeks
Spina bifida
Crown rump length
Downs Syndrome
A

20 – 22 weeks

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36
Q
Ultrasound dating of a pregnancy between 8-12 weeks is done by measuring the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ ?
Vitamin D
20 – 22 weeks
Vitamin C
Folic acid
Biparietal Diameter
10 – 14+1 weeks
Spina bifida
Crown rump length
Downs Syndrome
A

Crown rump length

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37
Q

What do the results in the combined test mean?

A

In Downs: PAPP-A tends to be low and hCG and NT high

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38
Q

When do the diagnostic tests take place?

A

Amniocentesis – 15 weeks+

CVS – 11 to 15 weeks

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39
Q
May cause deafness if mother in contact with this virus after 13 weeks?
Parvovirus
Lithium
Downs syndrome
Azothioprine
Rubella
Group B Streptococcus
Folic acid
Patau syndrome
Sodium valproate
Chicken pox
CMV
Edwards syndrome
A

Rubella

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40
Q
Condition caused by a trisomy of chromosome 13? 
Parvovirus
Lithium
Downs syndrome
Azothioprine
Rubella
Group B Streptococcus
Folic acid
Patau syndrome
Sodium valproate
Chicken pox
CMV
Edwards syndrome
A

Patau syndrome

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41
Q
This drug increases the risk of ancephaly? 
Parvovirus
Lithium
Downs syndrome
Azothioprine
Rubella
Group B Streptococcus
Folic acid
Patau syndrome
Sodium valproate
Chicken pox
CMV
Edwards syndrome
A

Sodium valproate

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42
Q
Most likely to cause a problem to the baby if delivered within 7 days of a non-immune mother becoming infected?
Parvovirus
Lithium
Downs syndrome
Azothioprine
Rubella
Group B Streptococcus
Folic acid
Patau syndrome
Sodium valproate
Chicken pox
CMV
Edwards syndrome
A

Chicken pox

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43
Q
Colloquial name – slapped cheek virus?
Parvovirus
Lithium
Downs syndrome
Azothioprine
Rubella
Group B Streptococcus
Folic acid
Patau syndrome
Sodium valproate
Chicken pox
CMV
Edwards syndrome
A

Parvovirus

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44
Q
Associated with early onset Alzheimers?
Parvovirus
Lithium
Downs syndrome
Azothioprine
Rubella
Group B Streptococcus
Folic acid
Patau syndrome
Sodium valproate
Chicken pox
CMV
Edwards syndrome
A

Downs syndrome

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45
Q
This drug is associated with Ebsteins anomaly ?
Parvovirus
Lithium
Downs syndrome
Azothioprine
Rubella
Group B Streptococcus
Folic acid
Patau syndrome
Sodium valproate
Chicken pox
CMV
Edwards syndrome
A

Lithium

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46
Q
An important cause of neonatal meningitis?
Parvovirus
Lithium
Downs syndrome
Azothioprine
Rubella
Group B Streptococcus
Folic acid
Patau syndrome
Sodium valproate
Chicken pox
CMV
Edwards syndrome
A

Group B Streptococcus

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47
Q
A condition screened for at 26-28 weeks in women with a BMI > 30?
Eclampsia
Diabetes
Asthma
Cholestasis
Genital Herpes
Antiphospho-lipid syndrome
Pre-eclampsia
Rhesus incompatability
Hypothyroidism
A

Diabetes

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48
Q
A condition more common in primips ?
Eclampsia
Diabetes
Asthma
Cholestasis
Genital Herpes
Antiphospho-lipid syndrome
Pre-eclampsia
Rhesus incompatability
Hypothyroidism
A

Pre-eclampsia

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49
Q
A condition characterised by intense itching?
Eclampsia
Diabetes
Asthma
Cholestasis
Genital Herpes
Antiphospho-lipid syndrome
Pre-eclampsia
Rhesus incompatability
Hypothyroidism
A

Cholestasis

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50
Q
If first presentation of this condition is in late pregnancy caesarean section is recommended?
Eclampsia
Diabetes
Asthma
Cholestasis
Genital Herpes
Antiphospholipid syndrome
Pre-eclampsia
Rhesus incompatability
Hypothyroidism
A

Genital Herpes

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51
Q
Associated with macrosomic infants?
Eclampsia
Diabetes
Asthma
Cholestasis
Genital Herpes
Antiphospho-lipid syndrome
Pre-eclampsia
Rhesus incompatability
Hypothyroidism
A

Diabetes

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52
Q
A seizure after 20 weeks pregnant is assumed to be this condition until proven otherwise?
Eclampsia
Diabetes
Asthma
Cholestasis
Genital Herpes
Antiphospho-lipid syndrome
Pre-eclampsia
Rhesus incompatability
Hypothyroidism
A

Eclampsia

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53
Q
A condition associated with very preterm deliveries and venous thromboembolism?
Eclampsia
Diabetes
Asthma
Cholestasis
Genital Herpes
Antiphospho-lipid syndrome
Pre-eclampsia
Rhesus incompatability
Hypothyroidism
A

Antiphospho-lipid syndrome

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54
Q
A maternal disease associated with neural tube defects?
Eclampsia
Diabetes
Asthma
Cholestasis
Genital Herpes
Antiphospho-lipid syndrome
Pre-eclampsia
Rhesus incompatability
Hypothyroidism
A

Diabetes

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55
Q
More common in women with pre-pregnancy renal disease?
Pre-eclampsia
Hyperemesis
Eclampsia
Pulmonary embolism
Haemorrhagic stroke
Pulmonary oedema
HELLP syndrome
Rhesus incompatability
Choriocarcinoma
A

Pre-eclampsia

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56
Q
Risk of recurrence is reduced by an infusion of magnesium sulphate?
Pre-eclampsia
Hyperemesis
Eclampsia
Pulmonary embolism
Haemorrhagic stroke
Pulmonary oedema
HELLP syndrome
Rhesus incompatability
Choriocarcinoma
A

Eclampsia

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57
Q
Likely to occur in a woman with severe pre-eclampsia who is given large amounts of IV fluids?
Pre-eclampsia
Hyperemesis
Eclampsia
Pulmonary embolism
Haemorrhagic stroke
Pulmonary oedema
HELLP syndrome
Rhesus incompatability
Choriocarcinoma
A

Pulmonary oedema

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58
Q
Condition specific to pregnancy characterised by deranged AST and ALT, low platelets and anaemia?
Pre-eclampsia
Hyperemesis
Eclampsia
Pulmonary embolism
Haemorrhagic stroke
Pulmonary oedema
HELLP syndrome
Rhesus incompatability
Choriocarcinoma
A

HELLP syndrome

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59
Q

True or false?

Women found to have Group B Streptococcus on an HVS in pregnancy should receive antenatal antibiotics

A

False

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60
Q

True or false?

The presence of raised bile acids indicates obstetric cholestasis

A

True

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61
Q

True or false?

Fetal anaemia may be due to rhesus isoimmunisation

A

True

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62
Q

True or false?

Urinary tract infections are very rare in pregnancy

A

False

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63
Q

True or false?

Pain due to appendicitis in the third trimester occurs in the RUQ

A

True

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64
Q

True or false?

Urinary tract infections can increase the risk of preterm labour

A

True

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65
Q
An essential component of the ultrasound at 20 weeks?
Fetal sex determination 
Placental abruption
Minor
Placental localisation
Placenta praevia
Major
Cervical ectropion
Vasa praevia
A

Placental localisation

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66
Q
A painful, hard woody uterus without vaginal bleeding suggests \_\_\_\_\_\_ ?
Fetal sex determination 
Placental abruption
Minor
Placental localisation
Placenta praevia
Major
Cervical ectropion
Vasa praevia
A

Placental abruption

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67
Q
A \_\_\_\_\_\_ placenta praevia completely covers the cervical os?
Fetal sex determination 
Placental abruption
Minor
Placental localisation
Placenta praevia
Major
Cervical ectropion
Vasa praevia
A

Major

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68
Q
This cause of bleeding is associated with pre-eclampsia?
Fetal sex determination 
Placental abruption
Minor
Placental localisation
Placenta praevia
Major
Cervical ectropion
Vasa praevia
A

Placental abruption

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69
Q
Painless heavy vaginal bleeding can occur with this condition?
Fetal sex determination 
Placental abruption
Minor
Placental localisation
Placenta praevia
Major
Cervical ectropion
Vasa praevia
A

Placenta praevia

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70
Q
Bleeding after rupture of membranes may be due to this rare condition?
Fetal sex determination 
Placental abruption
Minor
Placental localisation
Placenta praevia
Major
Cervical ectropion
Vasa praevia
A

Vasa praevia

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71
Q
This finding is very common in pregnancy due to the high oestrogen levels, it causes postcoital bleeding?
Fetal sex determination 
Placental abruption
Minor
Placental localisation
Placenta praevia
Major
Cervical ectropion
Vasa praevia
A

Cervical ectropion

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72
Q
This technique used in IVF aims to reduce the risk of multiple pregnancy?
Blastocyst transfer
Gestational diabetes
Single embryo transfer
Monochorionic monoamniotic twins
Pre-eclampsia
Diachorionic diamniotic twins
Twin to twin transfusion syndrome
Rhesus isoimmunisation
A

Single embryo transfer

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73
Q
The lambda sign on an early pregnancy scan indicates this type of multiple pregnancy?
Blastocyst transfer
Gestational diabetes
Single embryo transfer
Monochorionic monoamniotic twins
Pre-eclampsia
Diachorionic diamniotic twins
Twin to twin transfusion syndrome
Rhesus isoimmunisation
A

Diachorionic diamniotic twins

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74
Q
This condition occurs when there are placental vascular anastomoses between the two fetoplacental circulations?
Blastocyst transfer
Gestational diabetes
Single embryo transfer
Monochorionic monoamniotic twins
Pre-eclampsia
Diachorionic diamniotic twins
Twin to twin transfusion syndrome
Rhesus isoimmunisation
A

Twin to twin transfusion syndrome

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75
Q
Various fetal abnormalities are more common with this type of twins?
Blastocyst transfer
Gestational diabetes
Single embryo transfer
Monochorionic monoamniotic twins
Pre-eclampsia
Diachorionic diamniotic twins
Twin to twin transfusion syndrome
Rhesus isoimmunisation
A

Monochorionic monoamniotic twins

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76
Q
One of the twins can become hydropic with this condition?
Blastocyst transfer
Gestational diabetes
Single embryo transfer
Monochorionic monoamniotic twins
Pre-eclampsia
Diachorionic diamniotic twins
Twin to twin transfusion syndrome
Rhesus isoimmunisation
A

Twin to twin transfusion syndrome

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77
Q
This pregnancy related condition is increased in a twin pregnancy  ?
Blastocyst transfer
Gestational diabetes
Single embryo transfer
Monochorionic monoamniotic twins
Pre-eclampsia
Diachorionic diamniotic twins
Twin to twin transfusion syndrome
Rhesus isoimmunisation
A

Pre-eclampsia

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78
Q
Vaginal infection associated with preterm, prelabour rupture of membranes (PROM)?
Augmentin
Erythromycin
UTI
Cryocautery to cervix
Bacterial vaginosus
Loop excision of cervix
Gestational diabetes
24 weeks
Cervical suture
28 weeks
Corticosteroids
Chorioamnionitis
Surfactant
A

Bacterial vaginosus

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79
Q
Gestation of ‘viability’ in the UK?
Augmentin
Erythromycin
UTI
Cryocautery to cervix
Bacterial vaginosus
Loop excision of cervix
Gestational diabetes
24 weeks
Cervical suture
28 weeks
Corticosteroids
Chorioamnionitis
Surfactant
A

24 weeks

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80
Q
Given to women in preterm labour to improve fetal lung maturation?
Augmentin
Erythromycin
UTI
Cryocautery to cervix
Bacterial vaginosus
Loop excision of cervix
Gestational diabetes
24 weeks
Cervical suture
28 weeks
Corticosteroids
Chorioamnionitis
Surfactant
A

Corticosteroids

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81
Q
Intrauterine condition associated with preterm labour?
Augmentin
Erythromycin
UTI
Cryocautery to cervix
Bacterial vaginosus
Loop excision of cervix
Gestational diabetes
24 weeks
Cervical suture
28 weeks
Corticosteroids
Chorioamnionitis
Surfactant
A

Chorioamnionitis

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82
Q
Antibiotics used in the management of premature PROM?
Augmentin
Erythromycin
UTI
Cryocautery to cervix
Bacterial vaginosus
Loop excision of cervix
Gestational diabetes
24 weeks
Cervical suture
28 weeks
Corticosteroids
Chorioamnionitis
Surfactant
A

Erythromycin

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83
Q
Previous treatment associated with pre-term delivery?
Augmentin
Erythromycin
UTI
Cryocautery to cervix
Bacterial vaginosus
Loop excision of cervix
Gestational diabetes
24 weeks
Cervical suture
28 weeks
Corticosteroids
Chorioamnionitis
Surfactant
A

Loop excision of cervix

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84
Q
Management aimed at reducing the risk of preterm delivery?
Augmentin
Erythromycin
UTI
Cryocautery to cervix
Bacterial vaginosus
Loop excision of cervix
Gestational diabetes
24 weeks
Cervical suture
28 weeks
Corticosteroids
Chorioamnionitis
Surfactant
A

Cervical suture

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85
Q
Pregnancy specific condition that causes fetal growth restriction?
Parvovirus
Pre-eclampsia
Head circumference
Excess caffeine intake
Gestational diabetes
Polyhydraminos
Chromosomal
Anhydraminos
Smoking
Abdominal circumference
Oligohydraminos
A

Pre-eclampsia

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86
Q
Condition that increases the chances of the fetus having a large abdominal circumference in comparison to their head circumference?
Parvovirus
Pre-eclampsia
Head circumference
Excess caffeine intake
Gestational diabetes
Polyhydraminos
Chromosomal
Anhydraminos
Smoking
Abdominal circumference
Oligohydraminos
A

Gestational diabetes

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87
Q
Symmetrical fetal growth restriction is often associated with these abnormalities?
Parvovirus
Pre-eclampsia
Head circumference
Excess caffeine intake
Gestational diabetes
Polyhydraminos
Chromosomal
Anhydraminos
Smoking
Abdominal circumference
Oligohydraminos
A

Chromosomal

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88
Q
An oedematous fetus may be due to this condition ?
Parvovirus
Pre-eclampsia
Head circumference
Excess caffeine intake
Gestational diabetes
Polyhydraminos
Chromosomal
Anhydraminos
Smoking
Abdominal circumference
Oligohydraminos
A

Parvovirus

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89
Q
In asymmetric growth restriction the \_\_\_\_\_\_ measurement is the most severe effected ?
Parvovirus
Pre-eclampsia
Head circumference
Excess caffeine intake
Gestational diabetes
Polyhydraminos
Chromosomal
Anhydraminos
Smoking
Abdominal circumference
Oligohydraminos
A

Abdominal circumference

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90
Q
Often the first indication of fetal growth restriction?
Parvovirus
Pre-eclampsia
Head circumference
Excess caffeine intake
Gestational diabetes
Polyhydraminos
Chromosomal
Anhydraminos
Smoking
Abdominal circumference
Oligohydraminos
A

Oligohydraminos

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91
Q
Will occur if there is renal agenesis?
Parvovirus
Pre-eclampsia
Head circumference
Excess caffeine intake
Gestational diabetes
Polyhydraminos
Chromosomal
Anhydraminos
Smoking
Abdominal circumference
Oligohydraminos
A

Anhydraminos

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92
Q
Probably the commonest cause of fetal growth restriction?
Parvovirus
Pre-eclampsia
Head circumference
Excess caffeine intake
Gestational diabetes
Polyhydraminos
Chromosomal
Anhydraminos
Smoking
Abdominal circumference
Oligohydraminos
A

Smoking

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93
Q

Can occur at the time of membranes rupturing ?
Postpartum haemorrhage due to vaginal trauma
Cord prolapse
Placenta abruption
Epileptic seizure
Second degree tear
Amniotic fluid embolism
Postpartum haemorrhage due to poor uterine tone
Eclampsia
Third degree tear
Cord presentation

A

Cord prolapse

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94
Q

Severe back pain, uterus firm and tender, small amount of bleeding in a women with pre-eclampsia?
Postpartum haemorrhage due to vaginal trauma
Cord prolapse
Placenta abruption
Epileptic seizure
Second degree tear
Amniotic fluid embolism
Postpartum haemorrhage due to poor uterine tone
Eclampsia
Third degree tear
Cord presentation

A

Placenta abruption

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95
Q

A seizure in a woman previously fit and well?
Postpartum haemorrhage due to vaginal trauma
Cord prolapse
Placenta abruption
Epileptic seizure
Second degree tear
Amniotic fluid embolism
Postpartum haemorrhage due to poor uterine tone
Eclampsia
Third degree tear
Cord presentation

A

Eclampsia

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96
Q

Bleeding very heavily just after a twin delivery?
Postpartum haemorrhage due to vaginal trauma
Cord prolapse
Placenta abruption
Epileptic seizure
Second degree tear
Amniotic fluid embolism
Postpartum haemorrhage due to poor uterine tone
Eclampsia
Third degree tear
Cord presentation

A

Postpartum haemorrhage due to poor uterine tone

97
Q

Bleeding heavily following a difficult forceps delivery?
Postpartum haemorrhage due to vaginal trauma
Cord prolapse
Placenta abruption
Epileptic seizure
Second degree tear
Amniotic fluid embolism
Postpartum haemorrhage due to poor uterine tone
Eclampsia
Third degree tear
Cord presentation

A

Postpartum haemorrhage due to vaginal trauma

98
Q
Tear involving the anal sphincter ?
Postpartum haemorrhage due to vaginal trauma
Cord prolapse
Placenta abruption
Epileptic seizure
Second degree tear
Amniotic fluid embolism
Postpartum haemorrhage due to poor uterine tone
Eclampsia
Third degree tear
Cord presentation
A

Third degree tear

99
Q

True or false?

Obturator internus is part of the levator ani

A

False

100
Q

True or false?

The pouch of Douglas lies posterior to the uterus

A

True

101
Q

True or false?

The ovary is attached to the uterus by the round ligament

A

False

102
Q

True or false?

Lymphatic drainage of the ovary is to the superfical inguinal and femoral nodes

A

False

103
Q

True or false?

The principle supports of the uterus include the uterosacral ligaments

A

True

104
Q
Cells that line the cervical canal?
Squamous cells
Glandular neoplasia
Columnar cells
Transformation zone
Squamous metaplasia
Squamous dysplasia
Squamous neoplasia
 Zona pellucida
A

Columnar cells

105
Q

How does the prodrome differ between the different types of seizures?

A

NEA: none
Epileptic: Aura (auditory, smell, premonition, déjà vu)
Syncope: Light headed, nausea sudden, palpitations,

106
Q

How does the onset differ between the different types of seizures?

A

NEA: Not much
Epileptic: Twitching,
Syncope: Pale, sweating, look like going to faint,

107
Q

How does the actual seizure differ between the different types?

A

NEA: Long duration, wild movements, NOT rhythmical, eye closed/ resisting eye opening, respond, pelvic thrusting
Epileptic: Short duration, anatomical/repetitive/
rhythmical, pelvis thrusting (less), eyes open
Syncope: Short/variable, anoxic seizure, sustained if stood up, eyes open

108
Q

How does the recovery differ between the different types of seizures?

A

NEA: Quicker to recover, cry/speak
Epileptic: Tired, drowsy, slow recovery, confused
Syncope: Fast

109
Q

What is purpura?

A

Purpura is the appearance of red or purple discolorations on the skin that do not blanch on applying pressure. They are caused by bleeding underneath the skin. Purpura measure 0.3-1 cm .

110
Q

What causes purpura?

A

(D)isseminated (I)ntravascular (C)oagulation
Consumptive coagulopathy
Bacteraemia > widespread Thrombosis in microvassaculature
Platelets used up and Clotting factors not produced by liver > Bleeding Tendency

111
Q

What are the non-infective causes of fever?

A

Kawasaki’s Disease – Diagnostic Criteria
Rheumatic Fever – Diagnostic Criteria
Reactive Arthritis
Malignancy (Leukaemia, Lymphoma, Neuroblastoma)
Connective Tissue Disorders (SLE, PAN, JIA)
Inflammatory Bowel Disease

112
Q

Jirou, a three year old boy presents with a seven day history of high fevers. He has now developed red eyes, a rash and is complaining of a sore mouth and throat. On examination he appears miserable and unwell with a diffuse maculopapular rash mainly on his torso. He has bilateral injected conjunctiva, red cracked lips and a strawberry tongue. He has a unilateral 3cm x 2cm cervical swelling, and swollen reddened palms.
What are the differential diagnosis?

A
Staphylococcus Scalded Skin Infection
Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis
Streptococcal Infection, Grp A (scarlet fever)
Toxic Shock Syndrome
Measles
Rheumatic Fever	
Rheumatic Heart Disease
Steven Johnson’s syndrome
Kawasaki’s Disease
113
Q

How can you remember the symptoms of Kawasaki’s?

A
M(y) = Mucosal involvement like dry chapped lips and strawberry tongue
H= Hands and feet with oedema and desquamation (late in the disease)
E= Eyes non-purulent bilateral conjunctivitis
A= Adenopathy often cervical unilateral > 1.5 cm lymph nodes enlargement
R= Rash usually truncal and pleomorphic
T= Temperature non remitting fever for at least five days
114
Q

How would you reduce the fluids in paediatric DKA?

A

Weight < than 10 kg, give 2 ml/kg/hour​
Weight between 10 and 40 kg, give 1 ml/kg/hour​
Weight more than 40 kg, give a fixed volume of 40 ml/hour.​

115
Q

What would you get on examination of congenital hypothyroidism?

A
Myxedematous facies
Large fontanelles
Macroglossia
Distended abdomen with umbilical hernia
Hypotonia
Persistent jaundice
Hypothermic/ mottled skin
Bradycardia
116
Q

How do you treat congenital hypothyroidism?

A

Act promptly
Urgent assessment
Check TFTs
Levothyroxine - 10-15 micrograms/kg/day
Aim to normalize T4 within 2 weeks and TSH within 1 month
Ensure growth and neurodevelopmental outcomes close to genetic potential

117
Q

What can happen if congenital hypothyroidism isn’t treated?

A
Progressive intellectual deterioration occurs with each passing week
Irreversible
Severe developmental delay by 6 months
Dwarfism
Delayed sexual maturations
Coarse dry skin
118
Q

10 days old
Collapsed and shocked

Differential diagnosis unwell neonate?

A
Sepsis, sepsis, sepsis
In any neonate
Cardiac
Non accidental injury/trauma
Metabolic
119
Q

A newborn is seen by the paediatric SHO for a routine baby check. O/E a heart murmur is noted. Further investigation is under taken and the baby is found to have a congenital heart disease.
Which prenatal Ix can be used to detect congenital heart conditions?

A

Echo

120
Q

A newborn is seen by the paediatric SHO for a routine baby check. O/E a heart murmur is noted. Further investigation is under taken and the baby is found to have a congenital heart disease.
Which direction does blood flow in acyanotic congenital heart disease? Give 2 causes

A

Left to right: ASD, VSD, PDA

121
Q

A newborn is seen by the paediatric SHO for a routine baby check. O/E a heart murmur is noted. Further investigation is under taken and the baby is found to have a congenital heart disease.
In which direction does blood flow in a cyanotic congenital heart disease? Give 2 causes

A

Right to left: ToF, ToGA

122
Q

A newborn is seen by the paediatric SHO for a routine baby check. O/E a heart murmur is noted. Further investigation is under taken and the baby is found to have a congenital heart disease.
What are the 4 features of ToF? What syndrome arises if left untreated?

A

Pulmonary stenosis, VSD, overriding aorta, RVH.

Eisenmenger’s syndrome – long standing R to L shunt increases Pul pressure over time, leading to thickening of pulmonary arteries, which causes RVH and increases pressure in RV, reversing the shunt L to R (cyanotic).

123
Q

A 4 year old girl attends A&E following 5 day hx of coughing and worsening difficulty in breathing – both get worse at night. She is normally fit & well apart from a short episode of coryzal symptoms.
What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Croup

124
Q

A 4 year old girl attends A&E following 5 day hx of coughing and worsening difficulty in breathing – both get worse at night. She is normally fit & well apart from a short episode of coryzal symptoms.
How is the cough associated with Croup normally described?

A

Barking

125
Q

A 4 year old girl attends A&E following 5 day hx of coughing and worsening difficulty in breathing – both get worse at night. She is normally fit & well apart from a short episode of coryzal symptoms
Give two symptoms not mentioned associated with Croup?

A

Stridor, Hoarseness

126
Q

A 4 year old girl attends A&E following 5 day hx of coughing and worsening difficulty in breathing – both get worse at night. She is normally fit & well apart from a short episode of coryzal symptoms.
Give two other causes other than croup of developing stridor in this age group?

A

Epiglottitis, Foreign body, anaphylaxis

127
Q

A 4 year old girl attends A&E following 5 day hx of coughing and worsening difficulty in breathing – both get worse at night. She is normally fit & well apart from a short episode of coryzal symptoms
Name the virus commonly associated with causing Croup? What treatment is typically prescribed? In severe disease, what else can be given before escalation to ICU?

A

Parainfluenza virus.
Dexamethasone oral 0.15mg/kg
Adrenaline

128
Q

What are the causes of bile stained vomiting?

A

Intestinal obstruction (distal to ampulla of vater) – malrotation, duodenal atresia, meconium ileus, necrotizing enterocolitis

129
Q

What are the causes of haematemesis?

A

Oesophagitis, peptic ulceration, oral/nasal bleeding

130
Q

What does projective vomiting in the first few weeks of life point towards?

A

Pyloric stenosis

131
Q

What does vomiting at the end of a paroxysmal cough point towards?

A

Whooping cough

132
Q

What does abdo tenderness/ pain on movement point towards?

A

Surgical abdomen

133
Q

What are the causes of abdo distention?

A

Intestinal obstruction, incl strangulated inguinal hernia

134
Q

What are the paediatric causes of hepatosplenomegaly?

A

Chronic liver ds, neonatal hepatitis, biliary atresia, primary sclerosing cholangitis

135
Q

What are the causes of blood in stool?

A

Intussusception, gastroenteritis (salmonella/campylobacter)

136
Q

What are the causes of severe dehydration/shock?

A

Severe gastroenteritis, systemic infection (UTI, meningitis), DKA

137
Q

What are the causes of failure to thrive?

A

GOR, coeliac ds, CMP allergy & other chronic GI conditions

138
Q

A young child attends A&E. His father is very concerned that he has started vomiting after feeds. The vomiting is getting worse after successive feeds. He is still trying to feed and seems to be hungry.
What is the most likely diagnosis? What is the surgery to treat it?

A

Pyloric stenosis.

Ramstedt’s pyloromyotomy

139
Q

A young child attends A&E. His father is very concerned that he has started vomiting after feeds. The vomiting is getting worse after successive feeds. He is still trying to feed and seems to be hungry.
At what age does pyloric stenosis usually present?

A

2-8 weeks

140
Q

A young child attends A&E. His father is very concerned that he has started vomiting after feeds. The vomiting is getting worse after successive feeds. He is still trying to feed and seems to be hungry.
Can bile be present as the pyloric stenosis progresses? & why?

A

No, above the ampulla of vater

141
Q

A young child attends A&E. His father is very concerned that he has started vomiting after feeds. The vomiting is getting worse after successive feeds. He is still trying to feed and seems to be hungry.
What acid-base disturbance would you expect to find? & what electrolyte imbalances?

A

Metabolic alkalosis, low K, low Cl

142
Q

A 20 year old lady presents to A&E with a new PV bleed and crampy abdominal pains. Her LMP was 9 weeks ago.

On examination: Suprapubic tenderness and cervical excitation +ve.
You perform a pregnancy test which is positive

What is your differential diagnosis?

A

Ectopic
Miscarriage
Molar

143
Q

A 20 year old lady presents to A&E with a new PV bleed and crampy abdominal pains. Her LMP was 9 weeks ago.

On examination: Suprapubic tenderness and cervical excitation +ve.
You perform a pregnancy test which is positive.

What 3 investigations would help you to establish the diagnosis?

A

PV examination
Cervical excitation/motion tenderness - Ectopic or PID
Os open or closed?

USS
Intrauterine pregnancy?
Tubal pregnancy? - Ectopic
Uterus large for dates? - Molar

Serum bHCG
Extremely high - Molar
Serial measurements show an increase over time?

144
Q

A 20 year old lady presents to A&E with a new PV bleed and crampy abdominal pains. Her LMP was 9 weeks ago.

On examination: Suprapubic tenderness and cervical excitation +ve.
You perform a pregnancy test which is positive.

PV examination shows cervical motion tenderness
USS shows a pregnancy in the fallopian tube
bHCG is raised
Mx of this ectopic pregnancy?

A

ABCDE
Salpingectomy (take tube out)
Salpingotomy (If she needs the tube)
Methotrexate - if bHCG low and systemically well. Requires follow up

145
Q

A 20 year old lady presents to A&E with a new PV bleed and crampy abdominal pains. Her LMP was 9 weeks ago.

On examination: Suprapubic tenderness and cervical excitation +ve.
You perform a pregnancy test which is positive.
USS shows bulky uterus with a ‘snow storm’ appearance
bHCG is v v raised
What is this and how would you manage it?

A

Molar pregnancy.

Suction Curettage

146
Q

A 31 year old lady who is 34 weeks pregnant presents to A&E with a bright red PV bleed.
Differential diagnosis?

A

Placenta praevia
Placental abruption
(Other: Vasa praevia, uterine rupture, domestic violence)

147
Q

A 31 year old lady who is 34 weeks pregnant presents to A&E with a bright red PV bleed.

On examination, the uterus is non-tender, and the baby is in an abnormal lie. What diagnosis would this support?

A

Praevia is painless, Abruption is painful
Praevia, the baby is often in an abnormal lie
If this were an abruption, you would see a ‘tender, woody uterus’

148
Q

If there is a praevia, what must you NOT do?

A

PV exam

149
Q

A 31 year old lady who is 34 weeks pregnant presents to A&E with a bright red PV bleed.

On examination, the uterus is non-tender, and the baby is in an abnormal lie.

What one investigation would you order to establish the diagnosis?

A

TV USS - would show praevia

Abruption is a clinical diagnosis of exclusion - would present in hypovolemic shock

150
Q

What is the initial management for abruption/praevia?

A
ABCDE
Admit
CTG
Plan for delivery: 
If fetal distress (often abruption):
Coag screen, crossmatch 
Steroids if gestation <34 weeks
Anti D (if Rhesus -ve mother)
If no fetal distress (often praevia):
elective C-section at 39 weeks (if placenta remains low lying)
151
Q

A 65 year old lady presents to her GP with spotting, she went through the menopause aged 50.

What one condition must be ruled out?

A

PMB is endometrial cancer until proven otherwise

152
Q

A 65 year old lady presents to her GP with spotting, she went through the menopause aged 50.

What risk factors may this lady have for endometrial cancer?

A
Unopposed oestrogen
Early menarche
Late menopause
Obesity +PCOS
Nullparity
T2DM
HRT
Tamoxifen for breast cancer
153
Q

What are protective factors against endometrial cancer?

A

Breaks in oestrogen e.g. COCP and pregnancy

154
Q

A 65 year old lady presents to her GP with spotting, she went through the menopause aged 50.

What 3 investigations would you do?

A

PV exam - Normal (+/- atrophic vaginitis)
TVUS - Endometrial thickening
Hysteroscopy + biopsy - staging

155
Q

A 65 year old lady presents to her GP with spotting, she went through the menopause aged 50.

A hysteroscopy and biopsy is diagnostic for endometrial adenocarcinoma. How will you proceed?

A

TAH + BSO = Total Abdominal Hysterectomy and Bilateral Salpingo-oophorectomy for treatment and staging

156
Q

What are the FIGO endometrial staging stages?

A

Stage 1 - confined to uterus
Stage 2 - Uterus + cervix
Stage 3 - Through wall of uterus
Stage 4 - Spread - bladder/bowel. Distant metastases

157
Q

27 year old lady presents to her GP with post-coital bleeding. On questioning she does not think she had the HPV vaccine at school.

What one condition must be ruled out?

A

Cervical carcinoma

158
Q

27 year old lady presents to her GP with post-coital bleeding. On questioning she does not think she had the HPV vaccine at school.

What risk factors may this lady have for cervical carcinoma?

A
HPV 16/18/33 
Smoking
Early first intercourse
Many sexual partners
Low socioeconomic group
159
Q

27 year old lady presents to her GP with post-coital bleeding. On questioning she does not think she had the HPV vaccine at school.

How would you investigate?

A

Colposcopy

Biopsy abnormal areas

160
Q

27 year old lady presents to her GP with post-coital bleeding. On questioning she does not think she had the HPV vaccine at school.

How would you manage a small lesion on colposcopy?

A

Simultaneous treatment at colposcopy with LLETZ, Cone biopsy

161
Q

27 year old lady presents to her GP with post-coital bleeding. On questioning she does not think she had the HPV vaccine at school.

How would you manage invasive cervical carcinoma?

A

Stage 0 = Carcinoma in situ (LLETZ/cone biopsy)

Stage 1A1 = Confined to cervix, <3mm depth = Cervical conization, or hysterectomy
Stage 1A2= Confined to cervix, >3mm depth = Total hysterectomy or radiotherapy

Stage 2-4 = Beyond cervix = Chemoradiotherapy

162
Q

When does cervical screening take place and how often?

A

25-64 year olds
25-49 = 3 yearly
50-64 = 5 yearly
Should be taken mid-cycle

163
Q

A 40 year old lady presents to your GP surgery complaining of heavy periods which soak her with the passage of clots.
What are the potential causes of her menorrhagia?

A
Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
Fibroids
Endometriosis
Adenomyosis
IUD Copper coil
Clotting disorders vWD
Hypothyroidism
164
Q

A 40 year old lady presents to your GP surgery complaining of heavy periods which soak her with the passage of clots.

What are the management options available to the GP?

A

IUS (Mirena) - If finished family
NSAIDS (Mefenamic acid) - Better if pain
Tranexamic acid (Antifibrinolytic)

165
Q

A 40 year old lady presents to your GP surgery complaining of heavy periods which soak her with the passage of clots.

On further questioning you discover that these treatments have not previously worked for her, and you refer to secondary care. A transvaginal ultrasound was then performed which revealed numerous fibroids. What other symptoms may she have presented with?

A

Infertility
Irregular abdominal mass
Pressure effects on bowel/bladder

166
Q

Summary of progesterone contraception?

A

Systemic : POP (mini pill), implant, injection
Local: IUS

thickens cervical mucus to prevent sperm reaching egg; thins lining of womb to prevent egg implanting; +/- stops ovulation

local s/e: irregular bleeding patterns.
systemic s/e: +/- acne, +/- mood changes

Can be used by women who smoke & over 35; after stopping normal levels of fertility return. 3 hour window to take pill.

167
Q

A 25 year old lady comes to hr GP complaining of pain which begins a few days before her period, and stops at the end of her period. She also tells you that she experiences some pain whilst having sex with her partner.
What is the most likely cause of her cyclical pain?

A

Endometriosis

(Cyclical pelvic pain + Deep dyspareunia + Infertility)

168
Q

A 25 year old lady comes to hr GP complaining of pain which begins a few days before her period, and stops at the end of her period. She also tells you that she experiences some pain whilst having sex with her partner.

You believe she may have endometriosis and refer to secondary care.

What is the gold standard investigation for endometriosis?

A

Diagnostic laparoscopy

169
Q

A 25 year old lady comes to hr GP complaining of pain which begins a few days before her period, and stops at the end of her period. She also tells you that she experiences some pain whilst having sex with her partner.

You believe she may have endometriosis and refer to secondary care.

What management options may the gynaecology team offer for endometriosis?

A

Management is primarily symptomatic control:
1st line: Paracetamol/NSAIDs
2nd line: Hormones such as COCP
3rd line: (Secondary care) GnRH analogues
Surgical management:
Lap excision and laser treatment of lesions - may improve fertility

170
Q

A 20 year old lady presents to you GP clinic with PV discharge. You suspect she may have an infection and want to ask a few more questions…
She returns the following day with worsening pelvic pain and fever. You conduct a PV exam and find cervical excitation.
What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

PID

171
Q

A 20 year old lady presents to you GP clinic with PV discharge. You suspect she may have an infection and want to ask a few more questions…
She returns the following day with worsening pelvic pain and fever. You conduct a PV exam and find cervical excitation.

What is your management?

A

Analgesia
High vaginal swabs
Triple therapy: IM ceftriaxone + PO Doxycycline + PO Metronidazole

172
Q

An 56 year old P4 (vaginal deliveries) with a BMI of 30 comes to see you complaining of involuntary leakage of urine with coughing/sneezing.

1: diagnosis?
2: investigations
3: 3 pillars of management?

A
  1. Stress incontinence
  2. Urinalysis
  3. Conservative: Physio, lose weight, vaginal sponges, incontinence pads
    Medical: Duloxetine
    Surgical: midurethral sling, trans-obturator tape
173
Q

An 82-year-old lady presents with urinary straining, poor flow, incomplete emptying of the bladder, and urinary incontinence. Urodynamics demonstrates a voiding detrusor pressure of 90 cm H20 (normal value < 70 cm H2O) and peak flow rate of 5 mL/second (normal value > 15 mL/second). What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Overflow incontinence

174
Q

An 82-year-old lady presents with urinary straining, poor flow, incomplete emptying of the bladder, and urinary incontinence. Urodynamics demonstrates a voiding detrusor pressure of 90 cm H20 (normal value < 70 cm H2O) and peak flow rate of 5 mL/second (normal value > 15 mL/second).

Other investigations?

A

Urinary flow rate

Post void residual volume

175
Q

A 51 year-old woman presents to her GP with a nine month history of urinary incontinence, passing large volumes of urine involuntarily. Examination of her abdomen is normal. Urinalysis is normal.

Diagnosis?

A

Overactive bladder

176
Q

A 51 year-old woman presents to her GP with a nine month history of urinary incontinence, passing large volumes of urine involuntarily. Examination of her abdomen is normal. Urinalysis is normal.

Management?

A

Conservative: lower fluid intake, timed voiding, bladder re-training 6/52
Medical: Oxybutanin (CI = frail → tolteradine)
Surgical: Neuromodulation - S3 nerve root stimulation

177
Q

A 55-year-old woman attends the GP surgery as she is worried about her risk of developing ovarian cancer, especially because of the amount of exposure ovarian cancer has received in the news. Which of the following is most associated with the development of ovarian cancer?

Early menarche
Early menopause
COCP use
Multiple pregnancies
Low BMI
A

Early menarche

Other risk factors: Late menopause, nulliparity, HRT, high BMI, BRCA 1/BRCA 2

178
Q

A 65-year-old post-menopausal lady presents with bloating, unintentional weight loss, dyspareunia, and a raised CA-125. Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following terms best describes how this cancer spreads initially?

local spread in pelvic region
spread to abdominal organs
haematological spread
lymphatic spread
seeding
A

local spread in pelvic region

179
Q

What are the general causes of sexual health disorders?

A

Physical, psychosocial, or iatrogenic

180
Q

What are the physical causes of sexual health disorders?

A

Chronic disease – cardiovascular disease, diabetes, obesity, neurological disease
Hormone disorders – androgen deficiency, oestrogen deficiency, hyperprolactinaemia, thyroid dysfunction
Local problems – infections (STIs, prostatitis), irritation (thrush), insufficient lube, congenital defects, endometriosis, tumours, cysts
FGM

181
Q

What are the psychological causes of sexual health disorders?

A
Stress, depression, anxiety 
 Low self-esteem and body image issues
 Eating disorders – hormones and body image 
 Past trauma or abuse 
 Relationship problems (‘sexual script’)
 Lack of sex ed (“women have 3 holes????!”) 
 FGM 
 Alcohol abuse – “whiskey dick”
 Illicit drugs – e.g. cocaine, heroin
182
Q

What are the iatrogenic causes of sexual health disorders?

A

SSRIs
Anti-hypertensives:
Beta-blockers are associated with erectile dysfunction
Alpha-blockers can cause retrograde ejaculation (a cause of male infertility)
Local damage from surgery:
Especially prostate surgery and erectile dysfunction

183
Q

What is sexual aversion disorder?

A

Complete distaste or fear of sex
Discussing sex is intolerable and distressing
Generally psychological, treated with psychosexual therapy

184
Q

What is hypoactive sexual desire disorder?

A

Lack of libido/sex drive
Causes include chronic disease, hormone disorders, psychological and relationship problems
Treat by cause

185
Q

Summary of erectile dysfunction?

A

Difficulty obtaining or maintaining erection
Causes – CVD, DM, neurological disease, low testosterone, SSRIs, anti-hypertensives, prostate surgery, relationship problems, psychological problems
Non-medical treatment – vacuum device, penile rings, Kegels
Medical treatment – sildenafil tablets or injectable alprostadil (remember need stimulation to work, and take 45-60 minutes to become effective):
Vasodilators

186
Q

What are the six features of female sexual arousal disorder?

A
Little interest in sex
Few thoughts about sex 
Decreased initiation of sex
Little pleasure during sex
Decreased interest in sex when exposed to erotic stimuli
Little physical response to sex
187
Q

Summary of female sexual arousal disorder?

A

Persistent or recurrent inability to maintain sexual arousal (until adequate completion of sexual activity)
Causes – CVD, DM, neurological disease, oestrogen deficiency, SSRIs, local irritation, psychological problems, relationship problems
Non-medical treatment – psychosexual therapy, Eros therapy device, sexual aids
Medical treatment – correct any hormone issues

188
Q

Summary of rapid ejaculation?

A

Inability to control ejaculation in order for both partners to enjoy sexual intercourse
Physical causes - hyperthyroidism, prostatitis, ED
Psychological/social causes – lack of experience, time-pressure, anxiety, relationship problems
Treatments – topical LAs, psychosexual therapy, behavioural techniques (stop-start)

189
Q

Summary of delayed ejaculation?

A

Delayed length of time/inability to ejaculate
Causes – neuropathy, spinal injury, alcohol, SSRIs, sexual script issues, anxiety, pressure
Treatments – of physical causes, psychosexual therapy

190
Q

Summary of female dyspareunia?

A

Pain on intercourse – superficial or deep
Physical causes – infection, injury, insufficient lube, FGM (superficial); endometriosis, tumours/cysts, congenital defect (deep)
Psychological causes – trauma, abuse, education, relationship issues, FGM
Treatment – by underlying cause

191
Q

Summary of vaginismus?

A

Involuntary contraction of lower 1/3 of vaginal muscle, leading to difficult/painful penetration
Causes broadly the same as dysparenunia
Management – must do physical exam  psychosexual therapy, behavioural therapies (guided self-exploration, vaginal dilators)

192
Q

What are the 5 key features of couples therapy?

A
Improve communication
Modify dysfunctional behaviour
Decrease emotional avoidance
Change view of relationships
Promote strengths
193
Q

What are the public health aspects of STI prevention?

A
Primary prevention = reduce risk of acquiring STIs:
 Education, awareness, free condoms, hep B vaccination
 Secondary prevention = earlier identification of asymptomatic disease:
 Targeted screening (Goodwin!), partner notification/contact tracing
 Tertiary prevention = reduce morbidity and morality:
 Treat the disease
194
Q

Summary of chlamydia?

A

Caused by chlamydia trachomatis bacteria
2 week incubation period – may need to re-test
Asymptomatic – can cause discharge and dysuria (especially in men)
Diagnosis = first void urine NAAT
Treatment = week of azithromycin

195
Q

Summary of gonorrhoea?

A

Caused by Neisseria gonorrhoea bacteria (is a Gram-neg diplococci!)
2 week incubation period – may need to re-test
Asymptomatic – can cause discharge and dysuria (especially in men)
Diagnosis = first void urine NAAT
Treatment = single-dose ceftriaxone

196
Q

Summary of syphilis?

A

Caused by Treponema pallidum bacteria
Prevalence is increasing – very transmissible horizontally and vertically
Presentations:
Primary (days-weeks) – CHANCRE = painless genital sores! (any genital sore is syphilis until proven otherwise)
Secondary (months) – gum lesions, rash, lymphadenopathy
Tertiary (years) –gummatous, neuro, cardio
Diagnosis = serology
Treatment = IM penicillin

197
Q

Summary of trichomonas?

A
Sexually-transmitted protozoal infection
 GREEN FROTHY SMELLY DISCHARGE 
 Strawberry cervix 
 Diagnosis = high vaginal swab
 Treatment = metronidazole
198
Q

Summary of BV?

A

NOT an STI
Caused by anaerobes overgrowing normal vaginal flora
Grey/white discharge with distinctive fishy odour
Diagnosis = high vaginal swab (has high pH)
Treatment = metronidazole

199
Q

Summary of candidiasis?

A

Yeast infection with candida albicans
Can be STI (especially in men) – but usually due to overgrowth of normal vaginal flora due to pH imbalance (soaps, Abx)
Itching, local inflammation, superficial dyspareunia, odourless white discharge
Diagnosis = high vaginal/urethral swabs (has low pH)
Treatment = antifungals (clotrimazole pessary/cream, fluclonazole tablets)

200
Q

Summary of genital warts?

A

Caused by HPV
Highly contagious and spread by skin-to skin contact
Many people have the causative virus – but immune system keeps it under control, and the warts manifest when immunosuppressed:
Steroids, immunosuppressants, pregnancy, age, diabetes
Treatment = OTC creams, cryotherapy

201
Q
14yo girl comes in 
Having unprotected sex with her boyfriend
Wants contraception
Doesn’t want her mother to know
How do you manage this patient?
A

Pregnany test
STI Test
Explore concerns and discuss options
Go for Long acting contraception if she is interested
Don’t tell her mother because of fraser/gillick competence

202
Q
43 yo BMI 32 Female, presents feeling tired all the time
Trying to lose weight but can’t 
Heavy periods and irregular 
Has noticed “brittle hair”
Feeling low in mood 
How would you investigate this?
A
FBC: 
ESR/CRP: 
WCC: 
LFT and U&amp;E: 
IgA, TTG:
Thyroid function:
Random or fasting blood sugar/ Hba1c:
PHQ9:
If history suggests: Lymes (outdoors), chronic hepatitis (IVDU), autoantibodies (inflammatory signs), sleep studies (snoring), EBV (young person), Vitamin D (housebound), HIV (IVDU/sex)
203
Q

What are some drugs to be wary of in CKD?

A

Diuretics, ace, arbs, metformin, nsaids

204
Q

You are performing the Postnatal check on a 3 day old girl. She has swollen hands and feet, and you find it difficult to palpate her femoral pulses. Select the most likely karyotype.

45XO
47 XY (21)
Fragile X syndrome 
47 XY (18)
47 XY (13)
47 XXY
A

Turner’s Syndrome = 45 XO (missing X chromosome)

swollen hands and feet = Lymphodema – due to malfunctions of the lymphatic system

205
Q

You are performing the Postnatal check on a 3 day old girl. She has swollen hands and feet, and you find it difficult to palpate her femoral pulses.

which heart defect?

A

Aortic stenosis

206
Q

You are performing the Postnatal check on a 3 day old girl. She has swollen hands and feet, and you find it difficult to palpate her femoral pulses.

Name 5 features of Turners syndrome?

A
Short stature
Webbed neck (due to cystic hygroma)
Lymphoedema of hands and feet in neonate
Wide-carrying angle (cubitus valgus)
Widely spaced nipples, shield chest
Spoon shaped nails
Low set ears
Low posterior hair-line
Short metacarpal IV
Pigmented moles
Normal Intellect 
Non-verbal learning disabilities (maths, spatial orientation)
Primary Amenorrhoea (due to ovarian dysgenesis) – infertility
Delayed puberty 
Congenital heart defects:-  coarctation of the aorta-  aortic stenosis-  bicuspid aortic valve
Renal anomolies (horse-shoe kidney)
Hypothyroidism
Diabetes
ADHD
Recurrent Otitis Media / hearing loss
Visual impairments
207
Q

You are performing the Postnatal check on a 3 day old girl. She has swollen hands and feet, and you find it difficult to palpate her femoral pulses.

Name 3 Signs of Turner’s Syndrome at Antenatal Fetal ultrasound Scans?

A

Fetal oedema of the neck, hands and feet
Cystic hygroma - a form of benign lymphangioma – most common in the posterior triangle of the neck
Structural defects of the heart, kidneys

208
Q
An 18 month-old girl presents with recurrent cough, which is occasionally productive. She is small for her age. Her mother reports that the girl also has episodes of pale, greasy stools.
What's the most likely diagnosis?
Pneumonia
Bronchiolitis 
Croup
Cystic Fibrosis
Asthma
A

Cystic Fibrosis

209
Q
A 6 week old, bottle-fed infant presents with vomiting. This has been steadily getting worse over the last 5 days. He is now eager for feeds and shortly after taking milk will forcefully vomit up the milk. There are no signs of dehydration, but he has lost weight. Diagnosis out of the following?
Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease
Pyloric stenosis
Intussusception
Duodenal atresia
Overfeeding
A

Pyloric stenosis

210
Q

Name 5 signs of dehydration?

A
Reduced level of consciousness ↓
Sunken fontanelle
Sunken eyes
Dry mucous membranes
Reduced urine output ↓
Reduced skin turgor ↓
Tachycardia ↑
Tachypnoea ↑
Low blood pressure ↓
Increased capillary refill time ↑
Cool peripheries 
Faint / impalpable pulse
211
Q

A 14 year old boy presents with a limp and left knee pain for 24 hours. He is systemically well and afebrile. On examination his left leg is externally rotated and shorter than the right.
Diagnosis?

A

Slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SUFE)

212
Q

A 3 week-old male infant presents with severe vomiting. He is shocked and hypotensive. Bloods reveal a normal pH, raised K+, low Na+ and low glucose levels.
Diagnosis?

A

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)

213
Q

A 4 year old boy presents with oedema. He is clinically unwell with severe abdominal pain, fever and guarding. Urine is positive for protein and his serum albumin is low.
Diagnosis?

A

Nephrotic syndrome

214
Q

What are the 6 features of the dependence syndrome?

A
1 - Craving 
2 – Difficulty controlling use
3 – Physical withdrawal 
4 – Tolerance
5 – Neglect of other activities
6 – Persistent use despite consequences
215
Q

How many of the 6 features need to be present for dependence syndrome?

A

3

216
Q

Which 2 drugs are used to reduce off opiates?

A

Methadone and Buprenorphine

217
Q

What is Naltrexone used for?

A

Opioid antagonist – blocks euphoria, prevents relapse

218
Q

What is delerium tremens?

A

Alcohol withdrawal – tachycardia, hypotensive, tremor, fits, hallucinations e.g. insects crawling under skin

219
Q

Name as many personality disorders as you can

A
Paranoid
Schizoid
Schizotypal
Antisocial (psychopathic)
Borderline 
Histrionic
Narcissistic
Avoidant
Dependent 
Obsessive-compulsive
220
Q

What suggests anxiety in a child?

A

Thumb-sucking
Nail-biting
Bed-wetting
Foodfads

221
Q

What is the management of anxiety?

A
Symptom control
Regular exercise
Meditation
CBT
Relaxation
Behavioural therapy (e.g graded exposure)
Medication (Benzodiazepines, SSRIs, Azapirones, older antihistamines, beta blockers)
Hypnosis
222
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for anorexia?

A

1 – Weight <85% predicted
2 – Fear of weight gain
3 – Disproportionate idea of body
4 – Amenorrhoea in women or decreased libido in men

223
Q

A nurse informs you of a 28-year-old woman who is 24 weeks pregnant. He says that she has a blood pressure reading of 155/90 mmHg. Her previous blood pressure 2 days ago was 152/85 mmHg. Her urine dip shows +++ protein. She was previously healthy prior to becoming pregnant.

What is the first line management in this situation?
Oral labetalol
IV hydralazine
Aspirin 300mg 
Nifedipine
Urgent delivery of foetus
A

Oral labetalol

224
Q
A neonate is born at 32 weeks gestation after prolonged premature rupture of membranes (PROM). Approximately 12 hours after birth the neonate presents with temperature instability, respiratory distress and lethargy. Sepsis is confirmed by blood cultures. What is the most likely infectious agent?
Staph. aureus
Staph. epidermidis
Group B streptococcus
E. coli
Listeria monocytogenes
A

Group B streptococcus

225
Q

A 32-year-old woman who is 30+2 weeks pregnant, para 2+0, presents to the maternity triage unit. Her past deliveries were both elective Caesarean sections. Her pregnancy has been uneventful up to this point but she presents to the maternity triage unit this morning with an episode of painless vaginal bleeding. She describes the amount as about a tablespoon. What should be done next to determine the diagnosis?
Digital vaginal exam to assess for cervical dilatation
Induction of labour
USS abdomen
FBC to assess for anaemia
Nothing as blood loss insignificant

A

USS abdomen

226
Q

A 30-year-old primigravida lady is 41 weeks pregnant. At her 41 week antenatal visit, she was offered a vaginal examination and a membrane sweeping hoping that she would go into labour. However, she does not go into labour even after 6 hours. Her Bishop Score is 4.

What is the next step?
Oral prostaglandins
Vaginal prostaglandin gel
C-section
Syntocinon
Amniotomy
A

Vaginal prostaglandin gel

227
Q

A 28-year-old G1P0 lady has been in labour for eleven hours; she progressed through the first stage without any issues. However, the midwife has noted CTG abnormalities, and was able to palpate the umbilical cord. She immediately calls the obstetric registrar who checks the CTG, which shows variable decelerations. What is the initial definitive management for the cause of these decelerations?
IV oxytocin
O’Sullivan’s manoeuvre
SC terbutaline
Woods’ Screw Manoeuvre
Place hand into vagina to elevate presenting part

A

Place hand into vagina to elevate presenting part

228
Q
A 33-year-old lady has developed a massive obstetric haemorrhage. A diagnosis of uterine atony is made. After initial stabilisation and general measures, what is the first-line medical management?
Ergometrine
Syntocinon
Carboprost
Misoprostol
Mifepristone
A

Syntocinon

then Ergometrine

229
Q
A woman who gave birth 6 weeks ago presents to her local GP surgery with her husband. She describes 'crying all the time' and 'not bonding' with her baby. Which one of the following screening tools is it most appropriate to detect postnatal depression?
Hamilton Depression Rating Scale
PHQ-9
Edinburgh Scale
Beck Depression Inventory
PHQ-2
A

Edinburgh scale

230
Q

A 30-year-old primigravida lady is 41 weeks pregnant. At her 41 week antenatal visit, she was offered a vaginal examination and a membrane sweeping hoping that she would go into labour. However, she does not go into labour even after 6 hours. Her Bishop Score is 4.

What does the bishop score mean?

A

a score of < 5 indicates that labour is unlikely to start without induction
a score of > 9 indicates that labour will most likely commence spontaneously

231
Q
A 71 year old woman presents to the GP with a 12-month history of progressive decline in her memory function. She has no other symptoms. Her husband says she now gets lost trying to find the toilet at home. She has previously been fit and well, and physical examination is unremarkable. She scores 23/30 on a mini-mental state examination (MMSE). Select the most appropriate cause of the dementia?
Lewy body dementia 
Vascular dementia
Alzheimer’s disease
Picks disease
Normal pressure hydrocephalus
A

Alzheimer’s disease

232
Q

What makes up a Comprehensive Geriatric Assessment for discharge planning?

A

Medical Assessment – Problem list (diagnosis and treatment), co-morbid conditions & disease severity, Medication review- doctor / consultant
Functional Assessment – ADL, gait, balance- occupational therapist, physiotherapist
Psychological Assessment – cognition, mood- nurse, psychiatrist
Social assessment – care resources, finances- social worker
Environmental assessment – home safety

233
Q

What is the supportive management in delirium?

A
Clocks and calendars
Side room 
Sleep hygiene – discourage napping 
Adequate lighting
Continuity of care
Access to hearing aids / glasses
234
Q

A 70-year-old woman with a history of vertebral crush fractures presents to the osteoporosis outpatient clinic. Which of the following investigations is most useful to assess the extent of her osteoporosis?
Spinal X-rays
MRI scan
Full blood count, bone and liver biochemistry blood tests
Vitamin D levels
DEXA scan

A

DEXA scan

235
Q

What are the risk factors for osteoporosis?

A
Steroids (>5mg/day)
Hyperthyroidism, hyperparathyroidism, hypocalcaemia
Alcohol / tobacco
Thin (BMI < 22)
Testosterone ↓ (antiandrogens)
Early menopause – oestrogen deficiency 
Renal or liver failure
Erosive / Inflammatory bowel disease
Dietary intake (↓Ca2+, malabsorption, diabetes type I)
236
Q

A 22 year old woman attends A&E with lower abdominal pain, her last period was 7 weeks ago. The nurse is concerned as her observations are “off”, she is hypotensive, has a HR 110. On examination she has rebound tenderness, cervical excitation, a closed cervical os and no discharge. Her pregnancy test was +ve. You suspect this is due to an ectopic pregnancy.

Name 2 features you might see on TVUSS that indicate this diagnosis(2)

A

Empty uterus

Free fluid in adnexae/pouch of Douglas

237
Q

A 22 year old woman attends A&E with lower abdominal pain, her last period was 7 weeks ago. The nurse is concerned as her observations are “off”, she is hypotensive, has a HR 110. On examination she has rebound tenderness, cervical excitation, a closed cervical os and no discharge. Her pregnancy test was +ve. You suspect this is due to an ectopic pregnancy.

What medical management could be used if she was haemodynamically stable?(1)

A

Methotrexate

238
Q

A 22 year old woman attends A&E with lower abdominal pain, her last period was 7 weeks ago. The nurse is concerned as her observations are “off”, she is hypotensive, has a HR 110. On examination she has rebound tenderness, cervical excitation, a closed cervical os and no discharge. Her pregnancy test was +ve. You suspect this is due to an ectopic pregnancy.

You take her to theatre for laparoscopic surgery, her other fallopian tube appears to be
covered in adhesions. What surgical procedure would you perform to remove the ectopic in hope of preserving her future fertility? (1)

A

Salpingotomy