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Emergency Medicine Boards Review > PEER 8 Flashcards > Flashcards

PEER 8 Flashcards

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1
Q

Electrolyte abnormalities in primary adrenal insuffiency

A

hyperkalemia, hyponatremia

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2
Q

radiation syndrome prodrome phase

A

nausea, vomiting, autonomic symptoms

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3
Q

Best indicator for prognosis in acute radiation syndrome

A

Absolute lymphocyte count

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4
Q

Systemic tx for Raynauds

A

Topical or oral CCBs

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5
Q

Treatment of PCP seizures

A

Benzos, then phenobarb

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6
Q

MC bug in SBP from PD

A

staph epi

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7
Q

Legionella treatment

A

Macrolides

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8
Q

Allergic disorders with persistent dsyphagia

A

eosinophilic esophagitis

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9
Q

Hyperglycemia, Na correction

A

1.6 decrease for eery 100 of glucose increased

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10
Q

Highest infectivity of pertussis

A

Carrahal phase

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11
Q

IUP diagnosis on TVUS

A

A gestational sac with a yolk sac in the uterus

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12
Q

double decidual sign

A

two concentric echogenic rings of tissue surrounding an intrauterine gestational sac, early sign of IUP

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13
Q

Contraindications to nail trephination

A

Nail edge disruption, arylic nails (flammable)

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14
Q

flexion of the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint and hyperextension of the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint

A

boutonniere deformity

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15
Q

peds cardiac arrest epi dose in ml/kg with concentration

A

1:10,000, 0.1ml/kg

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16
Q

when LP needed in pediatric febilre seizure

A

meningeal sx, 6-12 months if immunizations deficient, those on antibiotics, 2nd day of illness, status

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17
Q

What virus is most frequently associated with febrile seizures in the United States?

A

Human herpes virus 6

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18
Q

MC reason for VP shunt malfunction

A

obstruction

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19
Q

MC location of anal fissure

A

posterior, midline

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20
Q

Topical medications for fissures in adults

A

Topical nifedipine and topical nitroglycerin, both of which increase local blood flow and promote healing

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21
Q

tx for spontaneous pnemomediastinum

A

rest, analgesia

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22
Q

dx of empyema on thora

A

+ culture, pH<7.2, glucose <60, WBC>50K, purulent fluid

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23
Q

VS differences in TACO vs TRALI

A

TRALI: hypotension, fever, TACO: hypertension, afebrile

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24
Q

MC viral cause of pancytopenia

A

Hep B

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25
Q

risk of tramadol

A

serotonin syndrome

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26
Q

electrolyte changes in rhabdo

A

hyperkalemia, hyperuricemia, hyperphosphetemia, hypocalcemia

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27
Q

MC complication of SCC

A

isosthenuria, inability to concentrate urine due to:cell sickling in the hypertonic and acidic medulla, resulting in infarction, renal papillary necrosis

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28
Q

Neutropenia definition

A

<500 ANC

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29
Q

What are indications for elective repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm even if the patient is asymptomatic?

A

Diameter greater than 5.5 cm or an aneurysm that expands greater than 0.5 cm in a six month period

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30
Q

MCC endopthalmitis

A

coag-negative staph s/p cataract surgery

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31
Q

MC CN palsy in cavernous sinus thrombosis

A

VI, LR

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32
Q

MC bug in Ludwig’s angina

A

viridans strep

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33
Q

Indications for PO vanc in c. diff

A

> 60, T>38.3, albumin <3, WBC>15, Cr>1.5 pre disease

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34
Q

indication for surg c/s for hemorrhoids

A

stragulated internal

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35
Q

second line for syphillis

A

doxycycline

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36
Q

indication to aspirate blisters of frostbite

A

large, hemorrhagic blisters, especially those that cross joints, be aspirated and damaged tissue should be bandaged with sterile, dry gauze

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37
Q

tick disease that cuases fever, HA, N/V/D, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, elevated LFTs

A

Ehrlichiosis

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38
Q

regions with chloroquine-sensitive malaria

A

Haiti, the Dominican Republic, most regions of the Middle East, and Central America west of the Panama Canal

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39
Q

chloroquine-resistant malaria regions

A

South America, South Asia, Africa

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40
Q

chloroquine-resistant malaria treatment

A

Quinine + doxy
Atovaquone/proguanil
Mefloquine
all PO

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41
Q

compliated malaria or P. falciparum treatment

A

Quinidine IV and doxycycline IV

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42
Q

four indications for admission of patients with uncomplicated malaria

A

Young children, immunocompromised patients, individuals with no acquired immunity (or those who live outside endemic regions), and patients with hyperparasitemia (four to ten percent)

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43
Q

EKG in propanolol OD

A

wide complex bradycardia

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44
Q

treatment BB overdose

A

glucagon, bicarb if QRS wide

45
Q

BB with most significant NA channel blocking properties

A

propanolol

46
Q

BB associated with ventricular dysrhythmias

A

Sotalol

47
Q

Tx for traumatic iritis

A

steroids, mydriatics (muscarinic antagonists), analgesics

48
Q

indication for lateral canthotomy

A

elevated intraocular pressures and evidence of optic neuropathy.

49
Q

Type of virus that ebola is

A

Filoviridae, RNA virus

50
Q

Type of virus Dengue is

A

Flaviviridae

51
Q

WEE, EEE virus type

A

Togaviridae

52
Q

Hantavirus transmitting animal

A

deer mouse

53
Q

Phases of hantavirus

A

fever, cardiopulmonary phase, oliguric/diuretic, convalescent

54
Q

Lab abnormalities in EBV

A

lymphocytosis, elevated LFTs

55
Q

sciatic nerve branches

A

common peroneal and tibial nerve

56
Q

common peroneal nerve branches

A

superifical peroneal and deep peroneal

57
Q

superficial peroneal nerve innervation

A

sensation to lateral lower leg and dorsum of foot

58
Q

deep peroneal nerve innervation

A

dorsiflexion of feet/toes and sensation between first and second toes

59
Q

lateral cutaneous nerve innervation

A

upper, lateral thigh

60
Q

obturator nerve innervation

A

leg adduction, medial thigh sensation

61
Q

posterior tibial nerve innervation

A

sole of the foot, the distal foot and toes, and occasionally the heel

62
Q

why common peroneal nerve is vulerable to compression injury

A

winds around the fibular head

63
Q

Injury of what nerve can result in inability to flex at the knee and a flail foot

A

sciatic nerve

64
Q

best emergency contraceptive oral option

A

ulipristal, a selective progesterone receptor modulator

65
Q

What is the standard dose of oral N-acetylcysteine when treating acetaminophen overdose?

A

Loading dose of 140 mg/kg followed by 70 mg/kg every four hours for an additional 17 doses

66
Q

Toxic dose of ASA

A

200-300mg/kg

67
Q

MC vessel of occlusion in mesenteric ischemia

A

SMA

68
Q

Appearance of cecal volvulus on plain films

A

coffee bean appearance or comma appearance

69
Q

Risk factors for cecal volvulus

A

marathon rummers, younger, GI malignancy

70
Q

most significant risk factor for endometritis

A

cesarean section

71
Q

MCC acute mitral regurg

A

infective endocarditis

72
Q

MC bug in erysipleas

A

strep pyogenes (beta hymeolytic)

73
Q

Earliest findings in papilledema

A

loss of spontaneous venous pulsations

74
Q

What finding on ocular ultrasound is an indication of increased intracranial pressure?

A

An optic nerve sheath diameter > 5 mm in adults predicts an intracranial pressure of > 20 mm Hg.

75
Q

Winter’s formula

A

PCO2=1.5 x HCO3- + 8 ± 2

76
Q

Earliest signs of HACE

A

ataxia

77
Q

What altitude does cerebral edema occur?

A

3000 meters

78
Q

How fast should perimortem ceserian be performed?

A

4 minutes

79
Q

How to differentiate hordeolum from chalazion

A

horedolum tender found near folicle, chalazion painless and above eyelashes

80
Q

First line tx for trigeminal neuralgia

A

carbamazepine

81
Q

MC area to sustain skull fracture

A

parietal area

82
Q

MC symptom of primary brain tumor

A

seiuzre

83
Q

MC causea of vaginal bleeding in the post-menopausal woman

A

uterine atrophy or vaginal atrophy

84
Q

anterior cord syndrome

A

Complete loss of motor, pain and temp below injury, retaine proprioception and vibratory sensation

85
Q

cord syndrome with worst prognosis

A

anterior cord syndrome

86
Q

Alternative for INH for LTBI

A

Rifampin x 4 months

87
Q

Grey-turner sign

A

Flank ecchymosis associated with retroperitoneal hemorrhage

88
Q

Cullen sign

A

Peri-umbilical ecchymosis

89
Q

How is a continuous naloxone infusion dosed

A

One-half to two-thirds of the total dose that initially was effective in reversing the respiratory depression is given hourly and titrated as needed.

90
Q

Virus associated with CNS lymphoma

A

EBV

91
Q

MC benign breast mass

A

Fibroadenomas, firm non-tender, mobile mass

92
Q

Most useful historical features in appendicitis

A

migration, pain prior to vomiting, abscence of similar pain in past

93
Q

Most useful physical exam findings in appendicitis

A

RLQ TTP, McBurney’s TTP and abdominal wall rigidity

94
Q

Treatment of anthrax

A

cipro, doxy or amox

95
Q

RSI dose etomidate

A

0.3mg/kg

96
Q

RSI succinylcholine dose

A

1.5 mg/kg

97
Q

RSI ketamine dose

A

1.5 mg/kg

98
Q

Low risk BRUE

A 
Age>60
GA >32 wk and post conception age>45 weeks
No prior BRUE
<1min
No CPR
No concerning H&amp;P
99
Q

Lab test to differentiate mild from severe dehydration

A

bicarb

100
Q

Diseases that require airborne precautions

A

TB, Measles, VZV (shingles or chicken pox)

101
Q

Artery most at risk for arterial ischemia due to art catheter

A

brachial artery

102
Q

Pediatric rule of nines

A

head 18%, arms 9% legs 14%, trunk (18% one side)

103
Q

What is the appropriate dosing regimen for the administration of thrombolytics for ST elevation myocardial infarction?

A

Administration of alteplase 15 mg IV push followed by two subsequent alteplase infusions (0.75 mg/kg over 30 minutes and 0.5 mg/kg over 60 minutes).

104
Q

What is the maximum dose of local lidocaine that can be given?

A

5 mg/kg for plain lidocaine and 7 mg/kg for lidocaine with epinephrine.

105
Q

Lights criteria

A

Pleural:serum protein >0.5, LDH>0.6, >2/3 upper limit of normal

106
Q

MC site of obstruction with esophageal FB

A

cricopharyngeal muscle

107
Q

greatest risk factor for spontaneous PTX

A

smoking

108
Q

scorpion bite presentation

A

neuronal Na depolarization: jerking, hypersalivation, fasciulations, CN deficits, tachy, hypertensive

Emergency Medicine Boards Review (1 decks)

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