PEDs rapid review Flashcards
1
Q
What characterizes spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?
A
Bacterial infection of ascitic fluid without an obvious source, often in cirrhosis or nephrotic syndrome.
2
Q
What is the indicator of kidney trauma in blunt injury?
A
Hematuria in the initial trauma assessment.
3
Q
What are signs of abusive head trauma?
A
Brain dysfunction, breathing difficulty, seizures, eye bleeding, possibly fractures.
4
Q
What is the initial management of hypoxemia?
A
Administer supplemental oxygen, considering the cause.
5
Q
What is Peutz-Jeghers syndrome and its management?
A
Genetic condition with polyps and cancer risk, managed with endoscopy and screening.
6
Q
What is physiologic pubertal gynecomastia?
A
Benign increase in breast tissue during puberty, common around sexual maturity rating 3.
7
Q
What are characteristics of atopic dermatitis?
A
Itchy skin inflammation, often linked to asthma and allergies.
8
Q
What differentiates congenital melanocytic nevus from acquired nevi?
A
Present from birth, larger, darker, higher malignancy risk.
9
Q
How does maternal diabetes affect a newborn?
A
High fetal insulin production, risk of post-birth hypoglycemia, tremors, and seizures.
10
Q
What characterizes and manages tension pneumothorax?
A
Air compresses the lung, shifting the mediastinum, requiring urgent chest tube placement.
11
Q
What are signs and causes of heat exhaustion?
A
Intolerance to heat, dehydration, tachycardia; caused by excessive heat and dehydration.
12
Q
What metabolic effects result from decreased caloric intake?
A
Hypoglycemia and starvation ketosis, with metabolic acidosis and elevated ketones.
13
Q
What is neuroblastoma?
A
A malignancy of neuroendocrine cells, commonly affecting the adrenal glands.
14
Q
How can neuroblastoma be differentiated from other abdominal malignancies in children?
A
Midline crossing, nodular texture, paraneoplastic syndrome, high catecholamine metabolites.
15
Q
How do medulloblastomas present?
A
Increased intracranial pressure, headache, nausea, vomiting, gait issues.
16
Q
What symptoms can posterior urethral valves cause?
A
Bladder distention, hydronephrosis, oligohydramnios, small fetus.
17
Q
What is a common cause of exudative pleural effusions in children?
A
Malignancy, often lymphoma with mediastinal mass.
18
Q
What is ulcerative colitis?
A
Inflammation and ulceration of colonic mucosa and submucosa.
19
Q
What are symptoms of ulcerative colitis?
A
Chronic pain, weight loss, bloody diarrhea, bloating, and tenesmus.
20
Q
Why is ACD common in chronic inflammatory diseases?
A
Increased hepcidin production impairs iron export for erythropoiesis.
21
Q
What are the lab findings in ACD?
A
High ferritin, low serum iron, low TIBC, low reticulocytes.
22
Q
What injuries can drain cleaners cause?
A
Burns and ulcerations of the tongue, airway, esophagus.
23
Q
What are symptoms of caustic injuries from drain cleaners?
A
Stridor, hoarseness, vomiting, drooling.
24
Q
What is transient synovitis?
A
Noninfectious joint pain, often in the hip, after a viral infection.
25
How is transient synovitis managed?
NSAIDs.
26
What complications can sepsis lead to?
Shock, hypotension, multiorgan failure.
27
What is the initial step for management in septic shock?
Emergent antibiotics and fluid resuscitation.
28
What genetic condition results in Turner syndrome?
Gonadal dysgenesis 45, X, due to X chromosome monosomy.
29
What are the characteristic features of Turner syndrome?
Short stature, webbed neck, broad chest, primary amenorrhea.
30
What is nephroblastoma?
Most common pediatric renal malignancy, large unilateral flank mass.
31
How is nephroblastoma evaluated?
Abdominal ultrasound.
32
What characterizes PSGN?
Edema, dark urine, hypertension, acute kidney injury, following Streptococcus infection.
33
What is the pathogenesis of PSGN?
Immune complexes deposit in the glomerular basement membrane.
34
What is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children?
Minimal change of disease.
35
How can minimal change disease be triggered?
Idiopathic, post-infection, or immune stimulus.
36
What are the classical presentations of minimal change disease?
Edema, foamy urine, hypoalbuminemia, proteinuria.
37
How does minimal change disease appear under light microscopy?
Normal appearance.
38
What typically causes aspiration pneumonia?
Impaired airway reflexes or severe GERD.
39
How is recurrent aspiration from severe gastroesophageal reflux treated?
Fundoplication.
40
What are common causes of pneumonia in the pediatric population?
Respiratory viruses, S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, S. aureus.
41
How has the prevalence of Haemophilus influenzae type b pneumonia been reduced?
Immunization programs.
42
What is galactosemia?
Enzyme defect in metabolizing galactose.
43
What are early manifestations of classic galactosemia?
Jaundice, hepatomegaly, hypotonia, sepsis.
44
What characterizes anaphylaxis?
Reduced systemic vascular resistance.
45
What is the first-line therapy for anaphylaxis?
Epinephrine and fluid resuscitation.
46
What can cause aplastic anemia?
Viral infection.
47
What is required for the diagnosis of aplastic anemia?
Bone marrow biopsy showing progenitor cell paucity.
48
What triggers guttate psoriasis?
Streptococcal infection.
49
What can be seen in all types of psoriasis, including guttate?
Nail pitting, onycholysis.
50
What characterizes IgA nephropathy?
Episodic hematuria post-upper respiratory or gastrointestinal infection.
51
What is selective IgA deficiency?
Low or absent IgA, leading to recurrent infections.
52
What are the characteristic features of Trisomy 18?
Intellectual disability, prominent occiput, low-set ears, clenched fingers.
53
What defines delayed puberty in boys?
No testicular enlargement or secondary sex characteristics by 14.
54
How does tinea capitis present in children?
Scaly patches, hair loss, possibly lymphadenopathy.
55
What causes central diabetes insipidus?
Inadequate ADH from the posterior pituitary.
56
Why are infants with HIV at increased risk for severe varicella infections?
Impaired T lymphocyte function.
57
How does acute HIV infection present?
Diffuse lymphadenopathy, diarrhea, fever.
58
What indicates HIV/AIDS infection in children?
Recurrent bacterial pneumonia or AIDS-defining illnesses.
59
What increases the risk for tuberculosis?
Diabetes, alcoholism, crowded living conditions.
60
What are the features of NF1?
Neurofibromas, café-au-lait spots, Lisch nodules, tumor risk.
61
What causes cor pulmonale?
Right heart failure secondary to chronic lung disease.
62
How does viral myocarditis present in children?
Fever, heart failure symptoms.
63
What is crucial in managing DKA?
Fluid resuscitation with 0.9% saline.
64
What are the symptoms of rubeola?
Fever, cough, coryza, conjunctivitis, maculopapular rash.
65
What characterizes bronchiectasis?
Bronchial dilation and thickening, often with cystic fibrosis.
66
What does the USPSTF recommend for adolescents?
Screening sexually active girls for Chlamydia and Gonorrhea.
67
What results from a radial nerve injury?
Inability to extend the elbow, wrist, or fingers.
68
What causes physiologic jaundice in neonates?
High RBC breakdown and immature bilirubin metabolism.
69
What is kernicterus and its cause?
Neurological damage from high unconjugated bilirubin.
70
What is the protocol for newborn HBV vaccination?
First dose at birth; add HBIG if maternal HBsAg is positive or unknown.
71
What is a common manifestation of SLE?
Lupus nephritis.
72
What are characteristic signs of lupus nephritis?
Hematuria, proteinuria, rising creatinine.
73
Why is a renal biopsy necessary in lupus nephritis?
To determine the type and extent of renal involvement.
74
What are laboratory findings in lupus nephritis?
Low complement, high creatinine.
75
How is OSA characterized?
Daytime sleepiness and snoring.
76
What is a common cause of OSA in children?
Adenotonsillar hypertrophy.
77
What is the first-line treatment for OSA in children?
Adenoidectomy and tonsillectomy.
78
What causes the skin manifestations in dermatomyositis?
Autoimmune connective tissue disease.
79
What are the skin manifestations of dermatomyositis?
Pink papules, purple eyelid patches, upper back/chest rashes.
80
What muscle symptoms are associated with dermatomyositis?
Proximal muscle weakness.
81
What genetic pattern does Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease follow?
Autosomal dominant.
82
What symptoms are typical of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease?
Symmetric motor/sensory polyneuropathy, muscle atrophy, hyporeflexia.
83
What are common physical deformities in Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease?
Pes cavus, hammer toes.
84
What causes herpes zoster?
Reactivation of varicella zoster virus.
85
How does herpes zoster typically present?
Grouped vesicles on an erythematous base, in a dermatomal distribution.
86
At what age does JIA occur?
Before age 16.
87
What are the characteristics of JIA?
Joint pain, inflammation, possible uveitis.
88
What causes thalassemia minor?
Mutations in globin alleles.
89
How is thalassemia minor diagnosed?
Microcytic anemia indicators, hemoglobin electrophoresis.
90
What does leukocoria in an infant suggest?
Retinoblastoma.
91
How is retinoblastoma treated?
Chemotherapy or enucleation.
92
How can vaginal foreign bodies be present in children?
Discomfort, erythema, discharge, or bleeding.
93
What is a common cause of vaginal foreign bodies in children?
Curiosity and genital play.
94
How can children present with foreign body aspiration?
Respiratory distress, cough, tachypnea, decreased air entry, wheezing.
95
What are the symptoms of bacterial meningitis?
Fever, headache, neck stiffness, altered mental status.
96
What does CSF evaluation show in bacterial meningitis?
High pressure, high leukocytes, high protein, low glucose.
97
What is the most common cause of bacterial meningitis in children and young adults?
Streptococcus pneumoniae.
98
What causes Lyme disease?
Borrelia burgdorferi from ticks.
99
What is a characteristic symptom of Lyme disease?
Erythema migrans rash.
100
How is Lyme disease treated?
Doxycycline or amoxicillin; ceftriaxone for late stages.
101
What causes biliary atresia?
Underdevelopment of the extrahepatic biliary system.
102
What are the symptoms of biliary atresia?
Worsening jaundice, pale stool, dark urine, poor weight gain.
103
What happens in testicular torsion?
Twisting of the spermatic cord, cutting off blood flow.
104
What is the appendix testis and how does its torsion present?
Vestigial structure; groin pain, nontender testicle, tender mass.
105
What often causes Clostridium difficile infection?
Antibiotic use disrupts colonic microbiota.
106
How does Clostridium difficile infection present?
Watery diarrhea, abdominal pain.
107
What does E. histolytica cause?
Intestinal amoebiasis, abdominal pain, bloody diarrhea.
108
How is an E. histolytica infection treated?
Metronidazole or tinidazole with an anti-luminal agent.
109
What are signs of volume depletion in gastroenteritis?
Tachycardia, hypotension, dry membranes, poor skin turgor.
110
What does aortic insufficiency result in?
Increased LV end-diastolic volume, diastolic murmur, high pulse pressure.
111
What organism causes giardiasis?
Giardia lamblia.
112
What are the symptoms of giardiasis?
Foul-smelling diarrhea, abdominal pain, weight loss.
113
What is the next step in management when a fracture is suspected?
Radiographic assessment.
114
What symptoms do enterotoxins from S. aureus commonly cause?
Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, cramping.
115
What does proper hand-washing technique include?
Rub hands with soap for at least 20 seconds.
116
What is constitutional growth delay?
Short stature, delayed puberty, slow growth, bone age < chronological age.
117
What is methemoglobinemia and its treatment?
Ferric heme iron condition; treated with oxygen and methylene blue.
118
How does hypothyroidism present?
Fatigue, weight gain, constipation, cold intolerance.
119
What are the symptoms of congenital hypothyroidism?
Feeding difficulties, lethargy, constipation, and macroglossia.
120
What is Hashimoto thyroiditis characterized by?
Antithyroid antibodies, hypothyroidism symptoms.
121
What are the symptoms of pseudotumor cerebri?
Headache, papilledema, high lumbar puncture pressure.
122
How does the group present?
Fever, barking cough, inspiratory stridor.
123
How is iron deficiency anemia treated in children?
Oral iron supplementation.
124
How many urinary tract infections are present in infants?
Fever, irritability.
125
What is the preferred treatment for hypertensive encephalopathy?
Gradual BP lowering with sodium nitroprusside.
126
What are growing pains and how are they treated?
Musculoskeletal pain; treated with massage, acetaminophen, reassurance.
127
What is the initial management for septic shock?
Antibiotics and isotonic crystalloids.
128
How does septic arthritis present in the pediatric population?
Acute joint pain, swelling, refusal to bear weight, sepsis signs.
129
What is diagnostic of esophageal atresia?
Inability to feed, with NG tube coiling on X-ray.
130
What are the symptoms and diagnostic findings of Hodgkin disease?
Lymphadenopathy, night sweats, Reed-Sternberg cells.
131
How is ALL present?
Fatigue, weight loss, splenomegaly, anemia, leukemic blasts.
132
What is a transverse vaginal septum?
A septum across the vaginal canal, requiring surgery.
133
What does primary enuresis refer to?
Nighttime urinary incontinence in children >5 years.
134
What is the most common cause of primary enuresis?
Delay in bladder control maturation.
135
What is Respiratory Syncytial Virus known for causing in children?
Bronchiolitis and pneumonia.
136
What leads to osteogenesis imperfecta?
Collagen type I abnormalities.
137
What are severe cases of osteogenesis imperfecta known to lead to?
In utero death due to bone fragility.
138
What causes achondroplasia?
FGF3 gene mutation.
139
How is achondroplasia diagnosed?
Clinical and radiologic findings.
140
What is the most common cause of rickets?
Childhood vitamin D deficiency.
141
What are the recommendations for breastfed infants regarding vitamin D?
Oral vitamin D supplements.
142
What is associated with the development of ITP?
Increased platelet destruction due to antibodies.
143
What is the presentation of ITP?
Petechiae and purpura, otherwise healthy.
144
Why is vitamin K deficiency common in newborns?
Poor placental transfer, low breast milk concentration, immature gut flora.
145
How is vitamin K deficiency treated in newborns?
Oral/IV vitamin K, possibly fresh frozen plasma.
146
What defines precocious puberty?
Early secondary sexual characteristics before age 8 in girls, 9 in boys.
147
What are the types of precocious puberty?
Central (high FSH/LH), peripheral (low FSH/LH).
148
When does orthostatic proteinuria occur?
Adolescent males, upright proteinuria resolving when recumbent.
149
What typically presents in newborns with congenital torticollis?
Preferred head position, decreased cervical motion, sternocleidomastoid mass.
150
What characterizes Tetralogy of Fallot?
Four heart defects causing "tet" spells, needs surgery.
151
What is acrocyanosis?
Newborn extremities blue, resolving in days.
152
What does chronic vesicoureteral reflux predispose to?
Recurrent pyelonephritis, CKD, hypertension.
153
What are posterior urethral valves?
Remnants causing urinary obstruction, bladder distention, hydronephrosis.
154
What is the treatment for CO poisoning?
100% oxygen due to high CO hemoglobin affinity.
155
How is a hordeolum treated initially?
Warm compresses, gentle massage.
156
What noninvasive measures decrease neonatal morbidity and mortality?
Tactile stimulation, oxygen therapy.
157
What is the initial imaging choice for evaluating a duodenal hematoma?
Abdominal CT scan.
158
How are urethral injuries evaluated?
Retrograde urethrography post-trauma.
159
How is thalassemia minor diagnosed?
Hemoglobin electrophoresis, often no treatment needed.
160
What is a characteristic feature of high-risk cardiac conditions?
Exertional syncope, diagnosed with ECG.
161
What is the mainstay of treatment for anterior knee pain due to patellofemoral instability?
Physical therapy, activity modification.
162
How is slipped capital femoral epiphysis managed?
Surgical fixation.
163
What are the main features of biliary atresia?
Obstructed bile ducts leading to jaundice and failure to thrive.
164
What are typical signs of infantile spasms?
Brief seizures, often occurring in clusters.
165
How is pyelonephritis in children managed?
IV antibiotics followed by oral therapy based on culture results.
