Peds - Connective Tissue and Joint Disease Flashcards

1
Q

____ is the most common CT disease in kids

A

JRA

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2
Q

Which of the JRAs is the most common?

A

Pauciarticular Type I - early onset

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3
Q

Name the 5 types of JRA

A
  1. Polyarticular RF neg
  2. Polyarticular RF pos
  3. Pauciarticular Type I early onset
  4. Pauciarticular Type II late onset
  5. Systemic onset (Still’s disease)
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4
Q

Which of the JRAs have sacroillitis

A

Pauciarticular Type II late onset

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5
Q

which of the JRAs have iridocyclitis? (2)

A

Pauciarticular Type 1 (early onset) - 50% chronic
Pauciarticular Type 2 (late onset) 10-20% acute

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6
Q

Disease?

acute onset fever, rash, hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, arthritis, fatigue, myalgia, irritability, pericarditis

A

systemic onset JRA (Still’s disease)

systemic symptoms may preced arthritis by several months

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7
Q

How does cyclosporine work?

A

blocks production of IL2 and proliferation of synovial T-cells

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8
Q

Proper splinting of upper extremity in JRA

A

functional position with wrist in 15-20degrees extension, fingers in some flexion, 25% at MCP joint and a few degrees at the PIP joints; ulnar deviation controlled, and thumb in oppostion

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9
Q

What are the four classifications in amarican college of rheumatology revised criteria for classification of functional status in RA?

A

class I - completely able to perform usual ADLs
Class II - able to perform usual self-care and vocational activities but limited in avocational
Class III - able to perform usual self-care activities but limited in vocational and avocational
Class IV - limited in ability to perform usual self-care, vocational, and avocational activities.

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10
Q

Name the 4 juvenile onset seronegative spondyloarthropathies

A
  1. ankylosing spondylitis (AS)
    2,. reactive arthritis (formerly Reiters syndrome)
  2. arthritis with irritable bowel disease
  3. psoriatic arthritis
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11
Q

Name the organisms associated with reiters syndrome (reactive arthritis) a seronegative arthritis of juvenile assumption

A

Chlamydia trachomatis, chlamydia pneumoniae, salmonella, shigella flexneri, yersinia enterocolitica

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12
Q

Name the 6 things in SLE that are associated with poor outcomes

A
  1. hematuria
  2. proteinuria
  3. persistent hypertension
  4. Pulm HTN
  5. chronic active disease
  6. biopsy-proven diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis
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13
Q

Name the diagnostic criteria for SLE
must have 4 of 11 of these things
(90% sensitive, 98% specific)

A
  1. malar rash
  2. discoid lupus rash
  3. photosensitivity
  4. oral or nasal mucocutaneous ulceration
  5. non-erosive arthritis
  6. nephritis
  7. encephalopathy
  8. pleuritis or pericarditis
  9. cytopenia
  10. positive immunoserology: LE cells, antinative DNA antibodies, anti-SM antibodies, falst _ test for syphilis.
  11. positive ANA titer
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14
Q

Name the 4 types of juvenile scleroderma

A
  1. Morphea 0 skin, and small lesions occur with minimal sclerosis (guttate morphea) - self limited after 2-3 years
  2. systemic sclerosis
  3. overlap syndromes - includes mixed CT disease whichhas features of SLE, RA, dermatomyositis, and scleroderma
  4. OTHER - CREST

C calcinosis
R raynauds
E esophageal abnormalities
S sclerodactyly
T telangiectasia

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15
Q

what criteria is used to diagnose rheumatic fever?

A

Jones criteria

  1. MAJOR: carditis, polyarthritis, chorea, erythema marginatum, subcut nodules
  2. MINOR: fever, arthralgia, elevated ESR/CRP, Prolonged PR interval
  3. Preceding group A strep infection: throat culture, rapid strep antigen, elevated strep ab.
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16
Q

Name the hallmark of hemophilia

A

hemarthrosis

17
Q

Name the three most common hemophilias

A

A - VIII deficiency (classic)
B - IX deficiency (Christmas hemophillia)
C XI deficiency

18
Q

Describe severity classification for hemophilia

A

Mild disease - presents with > 5% factor activity
Mod disease - >1% factor activity
Severe disease - <1% factor activity