Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Physical Assessment 2 > Peds > Flashcards

Peds Flashcards

1
Q

Neonatal period?

A

1st 28 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Post Neonatal period?

A

29 days to 1 year.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Infancy?

A

0-12 months; first year of life..
Most rapid rate of growth.
Birth weight triples, height increases by 50% by the end of year one.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Early childhood?

A

1-4 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Middle childhood?

A

5-10 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Adolescence?

A

11-20 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Apgar score tested when?

A

at 1 min and 5 min right after birth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does Apgar score test?

A

heart rate (>100), respiratory effort (good and strong), muscle tone (active movement), reflex irritability (vigorous cry, sneeze, cough), color (pink)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Preterm?

A

less than 34 wks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Late preterm?

A

34-36 wks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Mothers w/ DM may have?

A

Large infants and infant complication hypoglycemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Infants w/ inadequate weight gain for age?

A

Failure to thrive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

1 min. Apgar score: 0-4?

A

Severe depression requiring immediate resuscitation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

1 min. Apgar score: 5-7?

A

Some NS depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

1 and 5 min Apgar score: 8-10?

A

Nml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

5 min Apgar score: 0-7?

A

High risk for CNS and other organ system dysfunction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the most important indicator of infant health?

A

Measurement of growth.

Measure: height (length < 2),weight, head circumference.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Observing an infant, while awake and sitting on parents lap, can reveal what?

A 
hypotonia vs hypertonia
abnormal skin color: jaundice, cyanosis, obvious rash, 
jitteriness (from drug withdrawal)
respiratory problems
observing parent-infant interactions*
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Developmental Milestones for Premature Infant?

A

Adjust expected developmental milestones (goes by gestational age).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Infants w/ milestones that plateau or may be out of sequence?

A

Autism or cerebral palsy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

1 month gross motor, fine motor, language, & social-emotional?

A

Gross motor: Lifts chin up in prone position. Turns head up when prone.
Fine motor: Hands fisted.
Language: Makes throaty noises. Startles to sound.
Social-Emotional: Discriminates parents’ voice. Follows face.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

4 month gross motor, fine motor, language, & social-emotional??

A

Gross motor: Sits w/ support. No head lag. Rolls from front to back.
Fine Motor: Hands predominately open. Reaches for objects.
Language: Laughs out loud. Stops crying to soothing voice.
Social-Emotional: Social Smile.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

6-7 months gross motor, fine motor, language, & social-emotional?

A

Gross motor: Sits propped on hands. Lateral protection. Bounces when held.
Fine motor: Transfers object from hand to hand. Reaches out with one hand. Feeds self cracker.
Language: Babbles, consonant sounds. Understands “no”.
Social-emotional: Enjoys reflection in the mirror. Looks from object to parent and back when wanting help.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

9 month gross motor, fine motor, language, & social-emotional?

A

Gross motor: Pulls to stand. Bear walks. Begins creeping.
Fine Motor: Pincer grasp. Bangs two cubes together.
Says “mama”. nonspecifically. Imitates sounds. Orients to name.
Social-Emotional: Follows a point. Enjoys peek a boo. Develops stranger anxiety.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

12 month gross motor, fine motor, language, & social-emotional?

A

Gross motor: Stands independently. Starts taking first steps.
Fine motor: Scribbles. Hold crayon. Makes tower with two cubes.
Language: Says one word with meaning. Points to objects. Follows one step commands w/ gestures.
Social-Emotional: Shows objects to parents to share.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Infant BP?

A

Starts at age 3. Nml is 64/41.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Infant RR?

A

Newborn: 30-60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Infant HR?

A

Newborn: 140 bpm.
1-6 month: 130 bpm.
6-12 month: 115 bpm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Infant temperature?

A

Rectal temp. < 2 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Central cyanosis in newborn?

A

Congenital Heart Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Acrocyanosis?

A

Bluish discoloration palms/soles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Lanugo?

A

Fine, downy growth of hair.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Jaundice?

A

Can be normal; physiologic jaundice (common) or….

hemolytic disease of newborn (yellowing in first 24 hours following birth, can be very concerning).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Neurofibromatosis?

A

Yellowing of skin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Milia rubra?

A

Scattered vesicles on erythematous base, sweat gland duct obstruction, resolved in a few weeks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Milia?

A

White raised area, size of pinhead, sebaceous glands opened still.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Cafe-au-lait spots?

A

Pigmented brown lesions assx. with neurofibromatosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Pustular melanosis?

A

Small vesiculopustules.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Salmon Patch (stork bite)?

A

Vascular marking, splotchy pink mark, fades w/ age.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Molluscum contagiosum?

A

Dome shaped, fleshy lesions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Impetigo?

A

Bacterial Infx., appears crusty yellowed. **honey crusted lesion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Slate blue patch?

A

Common in darker skinned babies. result of blue pigment cells, not to be mistaken for bruise.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Sutures?

A

Membranous tissue spaces separating bones of the skull.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Fontanelles?

A

Areas where major sutures intersect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

When does anterior fontanelle close?

A

2-26 months (90% between 7-19 months).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

When does posterior fontanelle close?

A

2 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Early closure of fontanelles?

A

Microcephaly, metabolic abnml.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Delayed closure of fontanelles?

A

Hypothyroidism, megalocephaly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Bulging fontanelle?

A

ICP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Depressed fontanelle?

A

dehydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Plagiocephaly?

A

Positional MCC. Infant lies mostly on one side resulting in flattening of parieto-occipital region and prominence on ipsilateral side.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Prevention of Plagiocephaly?

A

“Tummy time”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Congenital hypothyroidism?

A

Coarse facial features, low set hairline, and enlarge tongue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Doll’s eye reflex?

A

In first 10 days of life, if an infants head is turned in one direction, without moving body, eyes may stare in one direction.

55
Q

What may newborns have from birth process?

A

Edematous eyes or subconjunctival hemorrhages (broken blood vessels in eye).

56
Q

Nystagmus?

A

Poor vision, CNS disease.

57
Q

Persistent ocular discharge/tearing?

A

Dacryocystitis or nasolacrimal duct obstruction.

58
Q

Leukokoria?

A

White retinal reflex may suggest cataract, retinal detachment, or retinoblastoma.

59
Q

Myopia?

A

Nearsightedness (difficult seeing far), is the most common visual disorder in childhood.

60
Q

Brushfield spot?

A

Abnormal speckling on iris suggest Down syndrome.

61
Q

Strabismus?

A

Misalignment of the eyes leading to visual impairment.

62
Q

Small, deformed low set auricles?

A

Congenital defects, especially renal disease.

63
Q

What screening for newborn?

A

Hearing screenings

64
Q

Pneumatic otoscope?

A

Used to assess mobility of TM.

65
Q

Decreased movement on pneumatic otoscope?

A

OM w/ effusion.

66
Q

Mastoiditis?

A

Mastoid bone red, swollen, tender, auricle may protrude forward/outward.

67
Q

Acute OM?

A

Very common in childhood, on exam TM red, bulging, with a dull or absent light reflex, and decreased movement on pneumatic otoscopy. Ear pain + above finding on exam together make AOM a likely diagnosis.

68
Q

Otitis externa?

A

Infection in the ear canal, movement of auricle (or pushing on tragus) elicits pain.

69
Q

Pale, boggy nasal mucous membranes. “allergic solute”?

A

Allergic rhinitis.

70
Q

Foul-smelling, purulent, unilateral discharge. Most often seen in young preschool children?

A

Foreign body sensation.

71
Q

Flesh colored growths inside the nares?

A

Nasal polyps.

72
Q

Purulent rhinorrhea (unilateral) more than 10 days, HA, sore throat, fever, and tenderness over the sinuses?

A

Sinusitis.

73
Q

Child pushing nose back “allergic salute”, causing transverse line to appear on nose. Swelling/discoloration below eyes, and grimacing (wrinkling nose) to relieve nasal itching?

A

Allergic rhinitis.

74
Q

Tongue tie or ankyloglossia?

A

A short frenulum that can limit the protrusion of the tongue.

75
Q

When does first tooth appear?

A

6-12 months old.

76
Q

How many primary teeth do children have?

A

20.

77
Q

Shrill/high pitched infant cry?

A

Narcotic addicted moms

78
Q

Thrush?

A

Common in infants. White plaques that do not rub/scrape off.

79
Q

Herpetic stomatitis?

A

Tender ulcerations on oral mucosa surrounded by erythema.

80
Q

Streptococcal Pharyngitis- “strep throat”?

A

Posterior pharynx – erythema, palatal petechial, foul smelling exudate.
Common childhood infection.
uncommon before age 3. may be associated with strawberry tongue, white/yellow exudates on tonsils, beefy red uvula, palatal petechia.

81
Q

Dental caries?

A

Early stages,

Major global health and pediatric problem.

82
Q

Erosion of teeth?

A

Prolonged bottle feeding.

* Most common health problem in children.

83
Q

Staining of teeth?

A

Intrinsic cause – tetracycline before age 8 (yellow, gray, brown stain).
Extrinsic cause – iron preparation (black stain) and fluoride (white stain).

84
Q

What can thumb sucking lead to?

A

Malocclusion and misalignment of teeth.

85
Q

Portion of tongue has rough, unusual appearance, benign, chronic condition.

A

Geographic tongue

86
Q

Caused by group A strep (same as above), strawberry tongue, sandpaper rash (fine bumps that feel like sandpaper)
when rash resolves, skin may begin to peel, especially on hands/feet.

A

Scarlet fever.

87
Q

Suggested by erythema, asymmetric enlargement of one tonsil, pain, displacement of uvula. “hot potato voice”?

A

Peritonsillar abscess

88
Q

RAre in US bc of H influenza type B immunizations.

Child c/o ST, unable to swallow saliva, sitting up stiffly in “tripod” position because of throat obstruction.

A

Acute epiglottis

89
Q

Can be viral or bacterial. Voice described as “rocks in mouth”?

A

Tonsillitis

90
Q

Cause of halitosis?

A

Infx, FB in nose, sinusitis, dental disease, or GERD.

91
Q

Congenital torticollis?

A

(wry neck) – bleeding into sternocleidomastoid muscle due to stretching process during delivery. A firm fibrous mass is felt within the muscle 2-3 weeks after birth, disappears over months.

92
Q

Clavicle fractures?

A

Due to during delivery with difficult arm or shoulder extraction.

93
Q

What should supraclavicular lymph nodes raise suspicion for?

A

Malignancy; if node is >2cm, is hard, or fixed (non-mobile) and accompanied by systemic signs, ex: weight loss.

94
Q

Nuchal rigidity?

A

Neck stiffness

95
Q

Tachypnea In peds?

A

> 60/min (birth-2 months) & > 50/min (2–12 months)

96
Q

Apnea and bradycardia?

A

Respiratory disease, CNS or cardiopulmonary condition.

97
Q

Nasal flaring?

A

May be due to congestion since infants are obligate nasal breathers, but may be caused by pneumonia or other serious respiratory infections.

98
Q

Pectus excavatum?

A

a person’s breastbone is sunken into his or her chest

99
Q

Pectus carinatum?

A

breastbone protrudes outward abnormally.

100
Q

Lack of breath sounds?

A

Obstruction.

101
Q

Signs of respiratory distress?

A

Nasal flaring, grunting, retractions, wheezing.

102
Q

Audible breath sounds?

A

Grunting, wheezing, stridor, obstruction.

103
Q

Work of breathing?

A

Nasal flaring, grunting, retractions.

104
Q

Stridor?

A

croup, epiglottitis, FB

105
Q

Abnormal work of breathing + abnormal finding on auscultation?

A

PNA

106
Q

Diminished breath sounds on one side of chest?

A

PTX or diaphragmatic hernia.

107
Q

Wheezing?

A

Asthma, bronchiolitis

108
Q

Rhonchi?

A

URI

109
Q

Crackles?

A

PNA, bronchiolitis

110
Q

Cyanotic heart lesions?

A 
The 4 T's
Tetralogy of Fallot
Truncus Arteriosus
Transposition of the Great Vessels
Tricuspid Atresia
111
Q

VSD Assx and murmurs?

A

Assx: Apert’s Down, FAS, TORCH, Sri Du Chat, Trisomy 13, 18.
Murmur: Holosystolic LLSB.

112
Q

ASD Assx and murmurs?

A

Assx: Holt-Oram, FAS, Down.
Murmur: Wide fixed split 2, systolic ejection at ULSB.

113
Q

PDA Assx and Murmurs?

A

Assx: Rubella, prematurity, females.
Murmurs: Machinery at 2nd left intercostal space.

114
Q

Tetralogy Assx and murmurs?

A

Assx: Maternal PKU, Di George
Murmurs: Systolic ejection at ULSB.

115
Q

Transposition Assx and murmurs?

A

Assx: Di George, DM
Murmurs: None

116
Q

Coarctation Assx and murmurs?

A

Assx: Turner’s, Berry Aneurisms, males, bicuspid aortic valve.
Murmur: Systolic murmur in left axilla.

117
Q

Tanner staging?

A

sex maturity rating stages

118
Q

Painless mass on GU?

A

Hydrocele

119
Q

Breast stage 1?

A

Preadolescent: elevation of nipple only

120
Q

Breast stage 2?

A

Breast bud stage: elevation of breast and nipple as a small mound; enlarge- ment of areolar diameter

121
Q

Breast stage 3?

A

Further enlargement of elevation of breast and areola, with no separation of their contours.

122
Q

Breast stage 4?

A

Projection of areola and nipple to form a secondary mound above the level of breast.

123
Q

Breast stage 5?

A

Mature stage: projection of nipple only; areola has receded to general contour of the breast (although in some normal individuals the areola continues to form a secondary mound)

124
Q

Boys Tanner Stage 1?

A

Pubic hair: Preadolescent—no pubic hair except for the fine body hair (vellus hair) similar to that on the abdomen.
Penis: Preadolescent—same size and proportions as in childhood.
Testes and scrotum: Preadolescent—same size and proportions as in childhood

125
Q

Boys Tanner Stage 2?

A

Pubic hair: Sparse growth of long, slightly pigmented, downy hair, straight or only slightly curled, chiefly at the base of the penis
Penis: Slight or no enlargement.
Testes and Scrotum:
Testes larger; scrotum larger, somewhat red- dened, and altered in texture.

126
Q

Boys Tanner Stage 3?

A

Pubic Hair:
Darker, coarser, curlier hair spreading sparsely over the pubic symphysis
Penis: Larger especially in length.
Testes and Scrotum: Further enlarged.

127
Q

Boys Tanner Stage 4?

A

Pubic hair:
Coarse and curly hair, as in the adult; area covered greater than in stage 3, but not as great as in the adult and not yet includ- ing the thighs
Penis: Further enlarged in length and breadth, with devel- opment of the glans.
Testes and scrotum: urther enlarged; scrotal skin darkened.

128
Q

Boys Tanner Stage 5?

A

Pubic hair: Hair adult in quantity and quality, spreads to the medial surfaces of the thighs but not up over the abdomen
Penis: Adult in size and shape.
Testes and scrotum: Adult in size and shape.

129
Q

Girls pubic hair Stage 1?

A

Preadolescent—no pubic hair except for the fine body hair (vellus hair) similar to that on the abdomen

130
Q

Girls pubic hair stage 2?

A

Sparse growth of long, slightly pigmented, downy hair, straight or only slightly curled, chiefly along the labia

131
Q

Girls pubic hair stage 3?

A

Darker, coarser, curlier hair, spreading sparsely over the pubic symphysis.

132
Q

Girls pubic hair stage 4?

A

Coarse and curly hair as in adults; area covered greater than in stage 3 but not as great as in the adult and not yet including the thighs

133
Q

Girls pubic hair stage 5?

A

Hair adult in quantity and quality, spreads on the medial surfaces of the thighs but not up over the abdomen.

Physical Assessment 2 (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions