Pediatrics Flashcards

1
Q

What are antipyretics?

A

Includes acetaminophen, aspirin and NSAIDS. Tylenol is the preferred medication and aspirin should not be given to children because of its association with chickenpox and Reyes syndrome. Ibuprofen is approved for fever reduction in children as young as six months old.

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2
Q

What is the dosage for Acetaminophen?

A

Acetaminophen: should be given every four hours but no more than five times in 24 hours. Body temperature normally decreases at night. 3 to 4 doses at 10 to 15 mg/kg in 24 hours will control most fevers.

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3
Q

What is the dosage for ibuprofen?

A

Ibuprofen: Dose is based on initial temperature. 5 mg/kg for temp <39.2 and 10 mg/kg for a temp >39.2. The max daily dose for pain and fever is 40 mg/kg in 24 hours.

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4
Q

What is the disease process of chickenpox or varicella?

A

Varicella zoster virus comes from primary secretions of the respiratory tract and creates skin lesions. Transmission is by direct contact or droplet spread. Incubation period is 2 to 3 weeks.
The period of communicability is 1 to 2 days before the eruption of lesions and until all lesions have crusted over.

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5
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of the chickenpox?

A

During the prodromal stage fever, malaise, and anorexia for the first 24 hours. A highly pruritic rash begins and rapidly progresses. The rash distributes to the face and proximal extremities but spares the distal limbs. Constitutional signs and symptoms include elevated temperature and irritability from pruritus.

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6
Q

What is the therapeutic management of the chickenpox?

A

Antiviral agents such acyclovir, varicella zoster immune globulin or IGIV after exposure I. High-risk children, diphenhydramine or anti-histamine to relieve itchiness, skin care to prevent secondary bacterial infection.

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7
Q

What are the complications of chickenpox?

A

Secondary bacterial infection, encephalitis, varicella pneumonia, hemorrhagic varicella, chronic or transient thrombocytopenia.

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8
Q

What are the nursing interventions for the chickenpox?

A

Maintain airborne and contact precautions, isolate until no new lesions are seen, keep child in home away from susceptible individuals, isolate high risk children from effective children, skin care including bath and change of clothes and linen daily, topical Calamine lotion, mittens for children that are scratching, prevent secondary infections, administer antipyretics and antihistamines, keep child cool, minimization itchiness, keep child distracted, oatmeal or baking soda baths to minimize itchiness, teach child to apply pressure to itchy areas rather than scratching.

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9
Q

What are the manifestations of the herpes simplex virus?

A

Grouped, burning, and itchy vesicles usually on or near mucocutaneous junctions (lips, nose, genitalia, buttock), vesicles dry, forming a crust with spontaneous healing in 8 to 10 days.

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10
Q

What is the management for herpes Symplex virus?

A

Avoidance of secondary infection, burow solution compresses during weeping stages, topical therapy to shorten duration of cold sores, oral antiviral for an initial infection, should heal without scarring, use of sunscreen, can be aggravated by corticosteroids, may be fatal in children with depressed immunity.

Medications: Penciclovir, acyclovir, valacyclovir.

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11
Q

What is cat scratch disease or batonella henslae ?

A

Most common cause of regional lymphadenitis in children. Follows the scratch or bite of an animal ( cat in 99% of cases), usually benign and resolve spontaneously in 2 to 4 months. In some children, especially immunocompromise, adenitis may progress to suppurations or serious complications. Treatment is supportive but antibiotic therapy can be offered.

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12
Q

What are the six links of infection? (in order)

A

The infectious agent, Reservoir, portal of exit, mode of transmission, portal of entry, susceptible host.

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13
Q

What is poliomyelitis?

A

It is a highly infectious viral illness and it spread person to person through faecal oral route and can cause irreversible paralysis in less than 1% of infected. Non-paralytic polio causes mild flu like illness with signs and symptoms similar to other viral illnesses lasting up to 10 days. Paralytic polio is rare in the initial signs mimic non-paralytic, within a week loss of reflexes and severe muscle aches. Post polio syndrome is a cluster of disabling signs and symptoms which include progressive muscle or joint weakness, muscle atrophy, breathing and swallowing problems, apnea, and decreased tolerance of cold temperatures.

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14
Q

What are the complications of polio in children?

A

Temporary or permanent muscle paralysis, disability, bone deformities, death.

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15
Q

How has polio become eradicated?

A

Although there is no treatment for polio, the inactivated polio virus(IPV) is a routine childhood vaccination given over four doses, two months, four months, 18 months, and at 4-6 years of age. One infected child can put all countries at risk and can result in as many as 200,000 new cases every year.

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16
Q

What are airborne precautions?

A

Airborne transmission refers to dissemination of micro organisms by aerosolization, organisms are contained in small airborne particles, or in dust particles that remain suspended in the air for long periods of time. These are widely dispersed in air currents and inhaled by others who may be some distances away. Patients require a single room with negative pressure airflow. Examples of airborne diseases include pulmonary tuberculosis, chickenpox, shingles, and measles.

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17
Q

What is Scarlett fever?

A

Caused by group A Beta haemolytic streptococcus. Usually from nasal pharyngeal secretions of the infected person. Transmission is by direct contact or droplet spread. Indirectly by contaminated articles or ingestion of contaminated milk or food. Incubation period is 2 to 5 days. Period of communicability is approximately 10 days during the first two weeks of carrier phase and may persist for months. During the prodromal stage, abrupt high fever, increased pulse, vomiting, headache, chills, abdominal pain, enlarged tonsils, pharynx Adema. During the first one to two days the tongue is coated and papillae become red and swollen, by the fourth or fifth day the white coat sloughs off. Exanthema Is a rash that appears within 12 hours after the prodromal signs, read pinhead sized lesions generalized but absent on the face. Rash is more intense in the folds of joints. By the end of the first week desquamination begins which may be complete by three weeks.

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18
Q

What is the treatment for scarlet fever?

A

A full course of penicillin or a erythromycin, rest, analgesic for sore throat, antipruritics

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19
Q

What are the complications of scarlet fever

A

Perry tonsilar and retropharyngeal abscess, sinusitis, otitis media, acute glomerulonephritis, acute rheumatic fever, poly arthritis, toxic shock syndrome, osteomyelitis,

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20
Q

What are the nursing interventions for scarlet fever?

A

Maintain routine and droplet precautions until 24 hours after initiation of treatment, ensure compliance with oral antibiotic therapy, intramuscular penicillin may be given if difficulty giving oral medications, encourage rest and provide quiet activities, relieve discomfort with analgesics, gargles, Losenges, antiseptic throat sprays. Encourage oral fluids and avoid irritating liquids, and rough foods.

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21
Q

What is pediculosis or head lice?

A

It is an infestation of the scalp caused by a common parasite in school-age children. Head lice is not a primary health hazard or a sign of poor hygiene. Head lice is a wing with six legged bloodsucking insect, approximately 2 to 4 mm bong that live on the human scalp. Infestation involves less than 10 live lice, patient will experience itching. Nits are empty egg cases attached to hair that the head lice have hatched from. The lice crawl rapidly and are spread through direct head-to-head contact. Diagnosis involves the living lice, the presence of nits indicates passed infestation. Detection requires a fine tooth lice comb and visual examination of the scalp.

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22
Q

What is the treatment for head lice?

A

Topical insecticides: pyrethrins and perethrin 1% available in Canada. With two applications seven days apart. If that does not eradicate lice consider another treatment option.
Topical non-insecticidal‘s: isopropyl myristate 50%, ST-cyclomethicone 50%, dimethicone silicone oil, benzyl alcohol lotion 5% are approved for use in Canada.
Oral therapies: trimethoprim sulfamethizole is not approved for use in Canada.
Wet coming: there is little evidence to support this as a primary treatment
Other products: mayonnaise, petroleum jelly, olive oil, margarine, and hair gel have been suggested as treatments but are not as effective as medicinal solutions.

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23
Q

What is hydrocephalus?

A

Caused by an imbalance in the production and absorption of CSF, CSF accumulates within ventricular system, producing passive dilation of the ventricles. Causes are varied, but result is impaired absorption of CSF or obstruction of flow to CSF, ventricles become dilated and compress the brain causing enlargement of skull and dilation of ventricles. Most cases are from developmental malformations, neoplasm, infections, and trauma.

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24
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of hydrocephalus?

A

Early infancy: rapid head growth, bulging fontanelles, dilated scalp veins, separated sutures, thinning of skull bones.
Later infancy: frontal enlargement, depressed eyes, setting sun sign, sluggish pupils, unequal response to light.
General infancy: irritability, lethargy, crying with movement, exaggerated responses, change in LOC, lower extremity spasticity, vomiting, high-pitched cry.
Childhood: irritability, headache on wakening, strabismus, lethargy, apathy, confusion, incoherence, vomiting.

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25
Q

How is hydrocephalus diagnosed?

A

Detected based on head circumference, CT, MRI.

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26
Q

What is the treatment of hydrocephalus?

A

Treatment is directed towards the relief of the hydrocephalus, and treatment of complications. Treatment is usually surgical and requires the removal of the obstruction and placement of a shunt to drain CSF. Survival rate is 80%.

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27
Q

What are the nursing interventions for hydrocephalus?

A

Measurement of the head, pressure sensitive mattress, frequent position changes, ensuring adequate nutrition, monitoring ICP, alterations in LOC, preparation for tests, perioperative care, pain management, neurological assessment, vitals, monitoring for infection, family support, discharge instructions, community support, possible long term health care needs.

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28
Q

What are the nursing instructions for administration of diazepam?

A

Diazepam is an anti-anxiety, anti-convulsant, it is considered a benzodiazepines and is long lasting. Do not use more than five times per month or for an episode every five days. Negative side effects include drowsiness, confusion, slow reflexes, and rash. Give rectally. For children 6 to 11 years of age, 0.3 mg/kg, may repeat in 4 to 12 hours. For children 2 to 5 years of age, give 0.5 mg/kg, may repeat in 4 to 12 hours.

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29
Q

What causes a seizure?

A

Seizures are the most common paediatric neurological disorder and can be caused by infections, neurological disorders, metabolic disorders, trauma, and can be related to the ingestion of toxins.

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30
Q

What are the main causes of nonrecurrent or acute seizures?

A

Febrile episodes, intracranial infection or hemorrhage, cysts or tumors, cerebral edema, toxins, medication, tetanus, lead and cephalopathy, hypoglycemia, hypomagnesium, or hyperbilirubinaemia

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31
Q

What are the causes of recurrent or chronic seizures?

A

Idiopathic epilepsy, secondary causes including trauma or hemorrhage, congenital defects, parasitic brain disease, syncopal episodes, or migraines.

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32
Q

What are the manifestations of a simple partial seizure with motor signs?

A

Localized motor symptoms, somatosensory and autonomic symptoms,
Aversive seizure: eyes or eye and head turn away from the side of the focus, awareness of movement or loss of consciousness.
Rolandic Seizure: tonic clonic movements involving the face, salvation, arrested speech, most common during sleep.

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33
Q

What are the characteristics of simple partial seizures with sensory signs?

A

Characterized by various sensations, include numbness, tingling, prickling, paresthesia, pain in one area, motor phenomena such as posturing or hypertonia.

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34
Q

What are the characteristics of complex partial seizures?

A

Periods of altered behavior, amnesia, inability to respond, impaired consciousness, drowsiness following the seizure, confusion, strange feeling called an aura, auditory or visual hallucinations and feelings of fear and anxiety.
Motor behaviour includes sudden cease of activity, may appear dazed, stare into space, become confused, or become limp or stiff.

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35
Q

What are tonic clonic seizures?

A

Most common and most dramatic, occur without warning. The tonic phase lasts 10 to 20 seconds. Manifestations include eyes roll up words, immediate LOC, falls to the floor, stiffens and generalized symmetrical tonic contractions, arms flexed, legs head and neck extended, apnea and potentially cyanotic, increased salvation and loss of swallowing. The clonic phase lasts about 30 seconds but can vary from a few seconds to half an hour or longer. Manifestations include violent jerking movements, rhythmic contractions, may foam at the mouth, may become incontinent of urine and feces.

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36
Q

What is status epilepticus?

A

A series of seizures and intervals to brief to allow the child to regain consciousness between the time of one event ends and the next begins, requires emergency intervention, can lead to exhaustion, respiratory failure, and death.

37
Q

What is the postictal state?

A

When the child appears to relax, remains semi conscious or difficult to arouse, may awaken in a few minutes, remains confused for several hours, poor coordination, mild impairment, visual and speech difficulties, may vomit, severe headache, sleeps for several hours, once fully awake patient will be fully conscious. No recollection of entire event.

38
Q

What are absence seizures?

A

More common in girls than boys, ceases at puberty, brief loss of consciousness, minimum or no alteration in muscle tone, may go unrecognized, abrupt onset, develops 20 or more attacks daily, often mistaken for in attentiveness, possibly caused by hyperventilation, hyperglycemia, stress, fatigue, or sleeplessness. Manifestations include brief loss of consciousness, appear without warning, last 5 to 10 seconds, slight loss of muscle tone, maintain postural control, minor movement, twitching of eyelids or face, no incontinence, experiences amnesia, may need re-orientation.

39
Q

What are atonic and akinetic seizures (a.k.a. drop attacks)?

A

Occur between ages two and five, sudden momentary loss of muscle tone and postural control, recur frequently during the day particularly in the morning and shortly after awakening. Manifestations include loss of tone causing child to fall to the floor violently, unable to break the fall, serious injury to the face head or shoulders, loss of consciousness is only momentary.

40
Q

What are myoclonic seizures?

A

A variety of seizure episodes that may be isolated as benign essential myoclonic. Characterized by sudden brief contractures, occurs singly or repeatedly, no postictal state, may or may not include loss of consciousness.

41
Q

What are infantile spasms?

A

Most commonly occur during the first 60 months of life, twice is common in boys, numerous seizures during the day without drowsiness or sleep, poor outlook for normal intelligence. Manifestations include sudden, brief symmetrical muscular contraction, eye sometimes role upward or Inword, infants who were able to sit but not stand, setting dropping forward of the head and neck.

42
Q

What is photophobia?

A

Eye discomfort in bright light and can cause bad eye pain even in low light. Babies can see things 8 to 12 inches away, their eyes are sensitive to light, ice can drift outward and as normal until vision improves and eye muscles straighten. Caused by a cute I retainers or inflammation inside the eye, burns to the eye, corneal abrasion, corneal ulcer, medications such as amphetamines, atropine, cocaine. Excessive wear of contact lenses or badly fitting contact lenses, Eye disease, injury, infection, meningitis, migraines and recovery from my surgery.

43
Q

What is included in a neurological assessment?

A

Family history with possible genetic disorders, health history including Apgar scores, age of developmental milestones, trauma or injuries, acute and chronic illnesses. Physical evaluation includes level of alertness, size and shape of head, presence of fontanelles, sensory responses, motor function, motility, respirations, facial features, behavioural cues, primitive and deep tendon reflexes, cranial nerves.

44
Q

What is intracranial pressure?

A

Cranium volume equals 80% of brain, 10% CSF, 10% blood. Changes require compensatory changes like reduction in blood volume, decrease in CSF production, increase in CSF absorption, or shrinkage of brain mass. Children with open fontanels compensate by skull expansion, causes include tumors, bleeding, or edema of cerebral tissue.

45
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of increased intracranial pressure in infants and children?

A

Infants: tense bulging fontanelles, separated cranial sutures, McEwan sign, irritability, restlessness, drowsiness, high-pitched cry, increased head circumference, distended scalp veins, poor feeding, crying when disturbed.
Children: headache, nausea, forceful vomiting, blurred vision, seizures, drowsiness, decline in school performance, diminished physical activity, increased sleeping, inability to follow simple commands, lethargy.
Late signs: bradycardia, decreased motor response, decreased sensory response, alterations in pupil size, flexion or extension posturing, Cheyne-Stokes respirations, decrease consciousness, or coma

46
Q

What is a coma?

A

State of unconsciousness from which the patient cannot be aroused even with painful stimuli.

47
Q

What are the different levels of consciousness?

A

Full consciousness: patient is awake and alert, oriented times three, behaviour appropriate.
Confusion: impaired decision-making.
Disorientation: patient is disoriented to time and place with a decreased level of consciousness.
Lethargy: limited spontaneous movement, sluggish speech, drowsiness, falling asleep quickly.
Obtundation: A severe reduction in LOC, the child arouses with a very strong stimulus that is close to comatose state.
Stupor: remaining in deep sleep, responsive only to vigorous and repeated stimulation.
Coma: no motor or verbal response or extension posturing to painful stimuli
Persistent vegetative state: permanently lost function of the cerebral cortex, eyes following objects only by reflex, attracted to the direction of loud sounds, limbs spastic but can withdraw from painful stimuli, hands show reflexive grasp and groping, facial grimacing, food maybe swallowed, groaning or crying but without words.

48
Q

What is the Glasgow coma scale?

A

And assessment of sedation based off of three categories: eye opening, motor response, auditory visual response for stimuli. A person with an alternate LOC should score the highest, a 15. A score of eight or below is generally excepted as a definition of coma. The lowest score, 3, indicates significant head injury or deep unresponsive coma, or even brain death. A decrease in the GCS score indicates a deterioration in the patient’s condition.

Eyes open: spontaneously, to speech, to pain, not at all.
Motor response: obey his commands, localized pain, flexion withdrawal, flexion abnormal, extension, none
Auditory and visual response: orientated, confused, inappropriate words, incomprehensible, nun, ET tube or Trach.
In children <2 years, auditory and visual response : smiles listens and follows, cries but consolable, inappropriate persistent cry, agitated and restless, no response.

49
Q

What are the 12 cranial nerves and their function?

A

Olfactory nerve: smell
Optic nerve: visual acuity
Oculomotor nerve: opening of eyelids and eye-movement
Trochlear nerve: eye-movement
Trigeminal nerve: facial sensation and chewing movements
Abducens nerve: eye-movement
Facial nerve: facial muscle movement in eyelid closing
Auditory nerve: hearing and balance
Glossopharyngeal nerve: taste on the posterior third of the tongue
Vagus nerve: uvula and swallowing
Accessory nerve: shoulder shrug
Hypoglossal nerve: tongue movement

50
Q

What are communication options for children with hearing impairments?

A

Lip reading: 40% of spoken word is understood, light touch for attention, stand close, establish Eye contact, speak at Eye level, no chewing food, speak clearly At a slow rate, facial expressions, short sentences with rephrasing.
Cued speech: adjunct to lipreading, hand signals are used.
Sign language: ASL uses hand signals to correspond words and concepts.
Speech language therapy: multi sensory approach using visual, tactile, kinaesthetic and auditory stimulation. Speech language pathologist can help evaluate and treat.
Additional aids: commercial devices, visual fire alarms, flashing phone lights, trained hearing dogs, telecommunications, Canadian hearing society website, smart phones, closed captioning or subtitles.

51
Q

What is allergic conjunctivitis?

A

Can be a cute, intermittent, or chronic conjunctiva inflammation usually caused by airborne allergens. May be seasonal. Symptoms include itching, lacrimation, discharge, light sensitivity, eyelid edema, and conjunctiva hyperemia.

52
Q

What is the treatment for allergic conjunctivitis?

A

Treatment includes symptomatic measures, antihistamines, NSAIDS, mast cell stabilizer‘s. Topical OTC antihistamines, topical prescription antihistamines, and SAIDS, mast cell stabilizer‘s, topical corticosteroids can be useful and should be initiated and monitored by an ophthalmologist
Avoidance of allergens, cold compress, tear supplements

53
Q

What is Periorbital cellulitis

A

An infection of the posterior to orbital septum, caused by an external focus of infection, infection that extends from sinuses to teeth, or metastatic spread from infection. Pathogen’s vary, streptococcus pneumonia is most frequent, Staphylococcus aureus and S pyogenes predominate when infection arises from local trauma. Infection in child less than nine years old is typically a single aerobic organism. As age increases infection is more typically poly microbial.

54
Q

What are the symptoms of Periorbital cellulitis?

A

Eyelid pain, discoloration, swelling, fever, proptosis, impaired ocular movement, impaired vision. Signs of primary infection are also present.

55
Q

What is the diagnosis and treatment for Periorbital cellulitis

A

Diagnosis is based on history, exam, CT or MRI, lumbar puncture if meningitis is suspected.
Treatment includes antibiotics or surgical drainage.

56
Q

What are the nursing interventions for Periorbital cellulitis?

A

Patient should be hospitalized and treated with meningitis dose antibiotics. A second or third generation cephalosporin for 14 days. Antibiotics include cefotaxime, imipenem, ceftriaxone, piptaz.
If cellulitis is related to trauma or foreign body, treatment should cover gram-positive (vanco 1g IV q12) and gram-negative (ertapenem 100mg IV daily) pathogen‘s and should be taken for 7 to 10 days.

57
Q

What is otitis media?

A

The most prevalent disease of early childhood, incidence is higher in winter months. Bacterial OM preceded by a viral respiratory infection. Most commonly occurs in the first 24 months of life. Risk factors include smokers in the household, premature birth, shorter duration of breast-feeding, prolonged bottlefeeding laying down, immuno deficiency, upper respiratory infections, down syndrome.

58
Q

What are the four types of otitis media?

A

Otitis media: inflammation of the middle ear
Acute otitis media: inflammation of the middle ear with rapid onset of acute infection
Otitis media with effusion: inflammation and fluid in the middle ear without symptoms of acute infection
Middle ear effusion: fluid in the middle ear without reference to ideology, pathogenesis, pathology, or duration

59
Q

What is the pathophysiology of otitis media?

A

OM is primarily the result of a malfunctioning eustachian tube. Eustachian tubes have three functions relative to the middle ear. Protection from nasal pharyngeal secretions, drainage of secretions, and ventilation of the middle ear to equalize pressure. Mechanical or functional obstruction of the eustachian tube’s causes infection. Enlarged adenoids or nasal pharyngeal tumours can also be the cause.

60
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of otitis media?

A

Earache, fever, purulent discharge, crying, rubbing or holding affected ear, loss of appetite, irritability, hearing loss, difficulty communicating, tinnitus, vertigo.

61
Q

What is the treatment for otitis media?

A

Antibiotics are used for moderate to severe symptoms for 48 hours. The use of steroids, decongestants, and antihistamines is not recommended. Myringotomy is the surgical incision or laser assisted procedure of eardrum that may be necessary to alleviate pain or drain infected middle ear fluid in the presence of complications. Tympanostomy tube placement and adenoidectomy are surgical procedures that may be done to treat recurrent otitis media. Tympanostomy tube‘s are grommets that facilitate continued drainage of fluid and allow for ventilation of the middle ear. Hearing test should be performed and follow up exams every 3 to 6 months. Nursing care includes pain relief, facilitate drainage when possible, prevent complications, education for the family, and emotional support.

62
Q

What is nasopharyngitis?

A

The common cold caused by rhinovirus, RSV, influenza virus. Fever is common, irritability, restlessness, sneezing, vomiting, diarrhea, Sore throat, headache. Treatment includes antipyretics, rest, humidified environment, elevated bed to promote drainage of secretions, increased oral fluids, cough suppressant should be used with caution, antihistamines are in effective, antibiotics are not indicated. Notify the healthcare provider if fever persists for more than five days, difficulty swallowing or choking, trouble breathing, or cyanosis.

63
Q

What is acute streptococcal pharyngitis or group A strep infection?

A

Strep throat is a relatively brief illness that varies in severity from no symptoms to severe symptoms. Tonsils and pharynx can become inflamed. Tongue may appear a dermatitis and there may be a fine rash on the trunk, Axilla, elbows, groin. The uvula is red, nose tender, lymphadenopathic resulting in difficulty swallowing, usually subsides in 3 to 5 days. Diagnosis is a rapid identification antigen test or throat culture. Treatment includes oral penicillin for 10 days or oral erythromycin. Nursing care includes obtaining the throat swab, health teaching for antibiotics, analgesic administration, cold or warm compresses, gargle warm salt water, increase in fluid intake, ice chips, replacement of toothbrush, children are non-infectious after 24 hours of antibiotic therapy.

64
Q

What is bacterial pneumonia?

A

Symptoms include abrupt onset of illness, fever rapid shallow respirations, cough, aches and pains, chills.
Treatment includes antibiotic therapy, bedrest, increased fluid intake, antipyretics. Hospitalization is indicated when plural effusion or empyema is present or if respiratory distress occurs. IV fluids may be necessary, oxygen therapy, or IV antibiotics.
Complications include empyema or pneumothorax, plural effusion. A chest tube may be inserted if purulent fluid is aspirated. Thoracotomy with open debridement of infected lung may be required or partial lobectomy.
The pneumococcal vaccine has nearly eradicated invasive pneumococcal disease.
Nursing interventions include vital signs, pain level, respiratory assessment, oxygen therapy, encouraging fluids, administering antibiotics and analgesics, chest tube maintenance, incentive spirometry, nebulizer treatments, ambulation, support and health teaching for family.

65
Q

What is the nursing responsibility for the administration of digoxin?

A

Calculate and administer the correct dose, observe for signs of toxicity, health teaching with medication administration at home. Apical pulse rate should be checked before administration, not to be given if pulse is below 90 to 110 BPM in infants and children or below 70 BPM in older children. There should be a written order to specify the heart rate restrictions. If the child is monitored by ECG, a rhythm strip should be obtained and analyzed for abnormal lengthening of PR interval and dysrhythmias. Digoxin is potentially dangerous due to the narrow margin of therapeutic toxic and lethal doses. Infants rarely receive more than 1ml (50mcg) in one dose and a higher dose is an immediate warning for dosage error. Digoxin should be taken every 12 hours and not mixed with food or fluids, if a dose is missed do not double up or increase, if patient vomits do not give a second dose. Frequent vomiting and slow heart rate can be signs of toxicity and you should notify the MD.

66
Q

What is congenital heart disease?

A

They are heart problems that present at birth. There is no known reason for it. The incidence is 5 to 8 per 1000 live births. Etiology is unknown and may include genetic and environmental factors.

67
Q

What are the maternal risk factors that cause congenital heart diseas?

A

Maternal risk factors include exposure to substances during the first few weeks of pregnancy, maternal illnesses such as rubella, PKU, lupus, diabetes, seizure medication.

68
Q

What are the genetic risk factors for congenital heart disease?

A

Family history: autosomal dominant inheritance means a parent with a defect has a 50% chance of having a child with a defect
Chromosomal abnormalities: there are too many or too few chromosomes. Includes down syndrome, trisomy 18, trisomy 13, turner syndrome, diGeorge syndrome.
Single gene defects: Marfan syndrome, Noonan syndrome. Genes come in pairs and mutations can be present
Other: goldenhar syndrome, Williams syndrome, VACTERL Association (tracheal and esophageal malformations associated with vertebral and a rectal cardiac renal and limb abnormalities.)

69
Q

What is SIDS?

A

Sudden death of an infant under the age of one. Combination of environmental, genetic, metabolic factors. Occurs in one in every 3000. Child should be placed in supine position, in a smoke free environment with a safe crib, room sharing for six months, avoid infant being overheated, no sleeping on water beds, avoid call bedding. Breast-feeding and pacifier may decrease rate.

70
Q

What is jaundice in newborns?

A

Visible yellow colour of skin caused by elevated levels of college unconjugated Bilirubin. Liver is responsible for conjugation which results in the breakdown of RBCs: RBC membranes rupture, haemoglobin is released, split into heme and globin, heme converts to Bilirubin and is released. Unconjugated Bilirubin is insoluble bound to albumin, can leave the vascular system and permeate extra vascular tissue and blood brain barrier causing neurotoxicity. It must be conjugated to become useable and excretable. The effectiveness of excretion depends on stooling pattern of the newborn. Substances in the intestines break down Billy Rubin. Newborn intestines contain enzyme beta-glucuronidase and is able to convert conjugated bilirubin to unconjugated which is reabsorbed into the intestinal mucosa and transported to the liver. Feeding is important to reduce the room Bilirubin, it stimulates peristalsis and more rapid passage of the meconium, diminishing the amount of reabsorption of unconjugated bilirubin. Colostrum, a natural laxative, facilitates for passage of meconium

71
Q

What causes jaundice in newborns?

A

Pathological: considered benign, unconjugated Bilirubin can accumulate to hazardous levels and lead to pathological conditions. Appears within the first 24 hours of birth.
- Blood group incompatibility is where excessive production of bilirubin through hemolysis, diagnosed by Coombes test.
- G6PD deficiency: genetic disorder common in Asian and indigenous populations. It can lead to acute bilirubin encephalopathy and kernicterus.
Related to breastfeeding: begins at 2 to 5 days of age, lack of breast-feeding contributes to hyperbilirubinemia. If infant is not feeding effectively or there is less caloric and fluid intake and possible dehydration. Hepatic clearance of bilirubin is reduced, fewer stools, so it is reabsorbed back into the intestine and bloodstream.
Breast milk jaundice: 5 to 10 days of age, feeding well, gaining weight, rising levels of bilirubin peak in the second week and diminish, high levels persist 3 to 12 weeks with no haemolysis or liver dysfunction etiology is uncertain.
Coagulation: coagulation factors are synthesized in the liver and activated by vitamin K. Lack of intestinal bacteria need to synthesize vitamin K which results in transient blood coagulation deficiency between 2 to 5 days of life, increasing to adult levels by nine months. Bleeding problems noted in newborn should be reported and test for clotting disorders.

72
Q

What is the treatment for jaundice in newborns?

A

RhIG: prevention for Rh incompatibility. Injection of RH immune globin in the first trimester and a few days after birth.
Monitor bloodwork: monitor and bloodwork, repeat testing is based on risk level, age and progression.
Encourage feeding: breast-feeding and formula feeding promote excretion of bilirubin through urine and stool. IV fluids and electrolyte treatment may be necessary to regulate metabolism.
Phototherapy: changes the structure of unconjugated bilirubin to molecular that can be excreted. Baby in diaper and Eye shield, is placed in an incubator, open crib or bassinet, under lights. Monitor temp every two hours, monitor urine output, stool output, skin excoriation and breakdown.
Exchange transfusion: if phototherapy ineffective, exchange transfusion is indicated, infant blood is mixed with combination blood products such as RBC or fresh frozen plasma +5% albumin.

73
Q

What are the nursing interventions for an infant with jaundice?

A

Monitor for jaundice, G and her partner, if jaundice in first 24 hours of life, TCB or TSB should be measured based on age in hours. Normal bilirubin level after 24 hours if under five days. Monitor for anemia, seizures, deafness, brain damage (kernictuerus), fluid accumulation, organ failure, death.

74
Q

What is an appendectomy used for?

A

Treatment of appendicitis before perforation includes rehydration, antibiotics, and surgical removal of appendix.
Non-ruptured appendix: laparoscopic surgery. Recovery is rapid, if no complications hospital stay is short. One time dose of IV antibiotics is administered before surgery.
Ruptured appendix: peritonitis management begins with IV administration of fluid and electrolytes, systemic antibiotics, and NG decompression. Surgical intervention. Longer hospitalization of 3 to 5 days

75
Q

What are the nursing interventions for an appendectomy?

A

Assess abdominal pain, younger nonverbal children will become rigid, motionless, side lying posture with knees flexed, decreased range of motion of right hip. Older children may have abdominal pain. IV fluids, and NG-tube to be kept on low continuous suction until evidence of intestinal activity, assess bowel sounds and bell activity, manage drain and wound care, comfort and reassurance, education and help teaching.

76
Q

What are the three types of dehydration in children?

A

Isotonic dehydration: primary form in children, electrolyte and water deficits present. Significantly reduced plasma volume and circulating blood volume which affects skin, muscles, kidneys. Shock is greatest risk. Symptoms of hypovolaemic shock. Plasma sodium is normal at 130 to 150 mmol .
Hypotonic dehydration: electrolyte deficit exceeds water deficit, leaving serum hypotonic. Symptoms are more severe with smaller fluid losses than other types. Plasma sodium is less than 130 mmol
Hypertonic dehydration: water loss greater than electrolyte loss. Most dangerous type and requires specific fluid therapy. Hypertonic diarrhoea may occur in infants who were given fluids by mouth that contains large amount of solute or NG tube feedings that place excessive solute load on kidneys. Plasma sodium is greater than 150 mmol. Shock is less apparent but neurological disturbance is more likely to occur.

77
Q

What is dehydration and children?

A

Body fluid disturbance that occurs whenever output exceeds total intake. More often a result of abnormal losses such as vomiting, diarrhea, keto acidosis, burns, renal disease, medications, trauma.

78
Q

What are the symptoms of dehydration and children?

A

Weight changes, changes in LOC, irritability, decreased skin elasticity and turgid, prolonged cap Refill, increased heart rate, sunken eyes and fontanels, tachycardia, dry skin and mucous membranes, signs of circulatory failure.

79
Q

What are the nursing assessment findings for dehydration?

A

Observe general appearance, dry mucous membranes and lips, child looks sick. Behaviour includes loss of appetite, decreased activity, cry is less vigourous more whiny, child is irritable and seeks parents comfort and attention, displays purposeless movements and inappropriate responses, may protest procedures such as taking vitals or starting IV. Assess cap Refill and check for skin tenting. Vitals every 15 to 30 minutes, intake and output, routine body weights.

80
Q

What is coeliac disease?

A

Immunologically mediated disease in generally susceptible people caused by intolerance to gluten, results in mucosal inflammation and Vilas atrophy, causes malabsorption. Sensitivity to Gliadin fraction of gluten, a protein found in wheat. T cells are activated when gluten derived peptides epitopes are presented leading to inflammatory response.

81
Q

How is coeliac disease diagnosed?

A

Serologic markers, small bowel biopsy, histocompatibility testing, small bowel biopsies showing characteristic though not specific pathological changes of vilous atrophy, genetic testing for HLA genes.

82
Q

What are the symptoms of coeliac disease?

A

Diarrhea, abdominal discomfort. When manifesting in infancy and childhood the child has failure to thrive, apathy, anorexia, Pallor, Hypotonia, abdominal distention, muscle wasting. Stools are soft, bulky, clay colored and offensive. In adults weakness and anorexia are common, diarrhea, anemia, stomatitis, ulcers, vitamin D and calcium deficiency, reduce fertility,.

83
Q

What are the four types of celiac disease?

A

Classic celiac disease: diarrhea, abdominal distention, failure to thrive and weight loss, positive serology, HLA, villous atrophy.
Atypical celiac disease: iron deficient anemia, osteoporosis, short stature, arthritis, infertility, peripheral neuropathy, abnormal LFTs, positive Serology, HLA, varying degrees of Villous atrophy.
Silent celiac disease: asymptomatic but with positive serology, HLA, Villous atrophy.
Latent celiac disease: variation in expression between atypical and asymptomatic, positive or negative serology, HLA, no villous atrophy.

(HLA = human leukocyte antigen)

84
Q

What is the treatment for celiac disease?

A

Gluten-free or low gluten diet, avoid wheat, rye, barley. Consult a dietitian and join celiac support groups. Response is rapid within 1 to 2 weeks. Ingesting even small amounts of food with gluten may prevent remission or induce relapse. Small bowel biopsy after 3 to 4 months. Supplementary vitamins and minerals. Children can require bowel rest and TPN. Corticosteroids may be necessary in refractory disease. Children with untreated disease me also exhibit lactose intolerance.

85
Q

What are the nursing interventions for a child with celiac disease?

A

Help the child to adhere to long-term dietary restrictions, teaching to the child and parents, learning how to read labels, and meal prep. those who relax their diet may experience a relapse of disease, growth delay, higher risk for G.I. malignancies. Allow the child to express concerns and frustrations. Facilitate a dietitian referral and redirect parents to Canadian celiac Association that provides support, guidance, and educational material.

86
Q

What is meningitis?

A

Inflammation of the meninges and subarachnoid space. May result from infection, other disorders, a reaction to drugs. can be acute, subacute, chronic, or recurrent. Can also be classified by cause: bacteria, fungal, protozoa, non-infectious condition.

87
Q

What are the symptoms of meningitis?

A

Headache, fever, nuchal rigidity, lethargy. Nuchal rigidity is a key indicator of meningeal irritation, it is resistance to passive or volunteer Titian or neck flexion. Nuchal rigidity Trinity may take time to develop. There are four clinical tests to test for nuchal rigidity:
Kernig sign- resistance to passive knee extension
Brudzinski sign- Full or partial flexion of the hips and knees when the neck is flexed
Difficulty touching the chin to the chest with the mouth closed
Difficulty touching the forehead or chin to the knee
Nuchal rigidity can be distinguished from neck stiffness due to cervical spine osteoarthritis or influenza with severe myalgia. Nuchal rigidity due to meningeal irritation effects mostly neck flexion. Thus, the neck can usually be rotated but not flexed.

88
Q

How do you diagnose meningitis and what are the treatment options?

A

Diagnosis: CSF analysis, lumbar puncture, CT if suggestion of ICP, blood cultures.
Treatment: antimicrobial drugs, supportive measures, treatment of complications, removal of causative drugs, and cortical steroids for bacterial meningitis