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Pediatrics Shelf Exam > Pediatrics > Flashcards

Pediatrics Flashcards

1
Q

APGAR

A 
Appearance
Pulse
Grimace
Activity
Respiration
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2
Q

Delivery Room Resuscitation

A

ABC

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3
Q

Infant with scaphoid abdomen, cyanosis, respiratory distress, heart sounds on right, breath sounds diminished on left =

A

diaphragmatic hernia (herniated bowel in chest) –> pulmonary hypoplasia

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4
Q

TX: diaphragmatic hernia

A

DON’T USE BVM (will cause accumulation of bowel gas); intubate!

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5
Q

Neonatal Resuscitation: If HR <60 and compressions aren’t working, give…

A

epinephrine

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6
Q

Infant has respiratory distress when she stops crying =

A

choanal atresia

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7
Q

TX: choanal atresia

A

Intubate –> surgery

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8
Q

Maternal ingestion of phenobarbital during pregnancy can…

A

decrease the risk of neurologic damage in a jaundiced newborn

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9
Q

8-day-old jaundiced infant (noted on day 2 of life) with normal labs, Coombs, and smear…

A

Gilbert Syndrome

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10
Q

12-day-old infant with jaundice, above birth weight, exclusively breast-fed…

A

Breast Milk Jaundice

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11
Q

Physiologic jaundice in the first week of life in the majority of infants results from…

A
  1. higher bilirubin production rates

2. limited ability for excretion

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12
Q

R/F for neonatal sepsis (5)

A
  1. Young maternal age
  2. Small gestational size
  3. APGAR < 5
  4. > 18 hours ROM
  5. Young gestational age (premature)
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13
Q

TX: early onset sepsis

A

amp + gent

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14
Q

TX: late onset sepsis

A

amp + cefotax

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15
Q

Most common neonatal sepsis pathogen from 0-3 months:

A

GBS

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16
Q

Organisms associated with EOS

A
  1. GBS
  2. E. Coli
  3. Listeria
  4. H. influenzae
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17
Q

Late onset neonatal sepsis is caused by organisms found…

A

…in the environment.

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18
Q

DX: fever, irritability, erythema, blisters, epidermal shedding

A

Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS)

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19
Q

Pathophysiology of SSSS

A

Staph aureus strains that produce exfoliative toxins, which disrupt keritoncyte adhesion in the superficial epidermis

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20
Q

Blisters + honey colored crust

A

Bullous impetigo

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21
Q

Well demarcated, warm, tender area of erythema + constitutional sx

A

Erysipelas

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22
Q

Targetoid lesions; central bullae; Nikolsky sign is negative

A

Erythema multiforme

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23
Q

Fine, pink, sandpaper-like rash following an episode of pharyngitis

A

Scarlet fever

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24
Q

Extensive skin blistering and erosion; triggered by medication; Nikolsky sign is + with mucous membrane involvement

A

Toxic epidermal necrolysis

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25
Q

Pathogenesis: Croup

A

Parainfluenza viral infection of the larynx & trachea

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26
Q

Epidemiology: Croup

A

6 months - 3 years

Fall/Early Winter

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27
Q

Clinical Features: Croup

A

Inspiratory Stridor
Barking Cough
Hoarseness

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28
Q

Tx: Croup

A

Mild - humidified air +/- corticosteroids

Moderate/Severe (stridor at rest) - corticosteroids + nebulized epinephrine

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29
Q

Another name for croup…

A

Laryngotracheitis

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30
Q

In croup, stridor will worsen with…

A

crying, laughter

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31
Q

Steeple sign =

A

Croup

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32
Q

Acute onset of high fever, stridor, significant respiratory distress; often unvaccinated –> tripod position

A

Epiglottitis

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33
Q

Lower respiratory tract illness most commonly caused by RSV

A

Bronchiolitis

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34
Q

Sudden-onset respiratory distress/stridor…

A

Foreign body aspiration

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35
Q

Collapse of supraglottic structures during inspiration; chronic inspiratory stridor that begins in neonatal period; worse in supine position

A

Laryngomalacia

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36
Q

Cyanosis within 24 hours of life + single S2 + egg on a string CXR =

A

Transposition of the great vessels

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37
Q

Immediate Tx for TGV

A

Prostaglandins (keeps PDA open!)

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38
Q

Chronic oligoarthritis + daily fever + rash =

A

Systemic-onset juvenile idiopathic arthritis

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39
Q

TX: sJIA

A

NSAIDs
glucocorticoids
biologic agents

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40
Q

Surge of this hormone leads to refeeding syndrome…

A

insulin

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41
Q

In refeeding syndrome, insulin stimulates cellular uptake of…

A

phosphorus
potassium
magnesium

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42
Q

Clinical manifestations of refeeding syndrome

A

arrhythmias

cardiopulmonary failure

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43
Q

4 anomalies of TOF

A
  1. R ventricular outflow tract obstruction
  2. R ventricular hypertrophy
  3. Overriding aorta
  4. Ventricular septal defect
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44
Q

Tet spell

A

Increase in PVR shunts deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle across the VSD into the aorta

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45
Q

Tx: tet spell

A

knee-chest positioning (kinks the femoral arteries, increases systemic vascular resistance, and reduces the degree of right-to-left shunting)

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46
Q

Pale stool + hepatomegaly + direct hyperbilirubinemia =

A

biliary atresia

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47
Q

Pathophysiology of biliary atresia

A

progressive obliteration of the extrahepatic biliary ducts connecting the liver to the small bowel

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48
Q

Tx: biliary atresia

A

Kasai procedure (hepatoportoenterostomy); all patients will require a liver transplant at some point

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49
Q

Jaundice in second week of life; unconjugated

A

Breast milk jaundice

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50
Q

Pathophysiology of Crigler-Najjar

A

Absent UDP; early symptoms, need liver transplant; unconjugated

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51
Q

Pathophysiology of Gilbert

A

Mild lack of UDP; mild symptoms; unconjugated

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52
Q

unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia + positive coombs =

A

alloimmune hemolytic disease (erythroblastosis fetalis)

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53
Q

Most common congenital heart defect in patients with Down syndrome

A

Complete atrioventricular septal defect

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54
Q

diminished or absent lower-extremity pulses and upper-extremity HTN; associated with Turner syndrome

A

coarctation of the aorta

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55
Q

triple or quadruple gallop (widely split s1 and s2 + loud s3 and/or s4) + holosystolic/early systolic murmur at LLSB

A

symptomatic Ebstein anomaly

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56
Q

continuous, machine like murmur

A

PDA

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57
Q

cyanosis + single s2 + harsh crescendo-decrescendo murmur

A

TOF

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58
Q

neonatal cyanosis + tachypnea + single s2 + associated with DiGeorge syndrome =

A

TGA

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59
Q

Pleural fluid analysis demonstrates milky-white fluid with elevated triglycerides

A

chylothorax/exudative

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60
Q

Exudative effusion due to disruption of lymphatic flow within thoracic duct…

A

chylothorax

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61
Q

In patients with apparent subcutaneous emphysema secondary to sever coughing paroxysms, ____ must be obtained to r/o _____.

A

CXR

pneumothorax

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62
Q

Allergic reaction to blood transfusion…

A

selective IgA deficiency

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63
Q

Lots of infections + GIARDIA

A

Common Variable Immunodeficiency (IgA, M, G low)

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64
Q

3-5 weeks old, nonbilious emesis…

A

pyloric stenosis

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65
Q

Mild mental delay, eunuchoid habitus, gynecomastia, long arms, long legs, hypogonadism…

A

Klinefelter (XXY)

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66
Q

Explosive anger, weakness with fine motor control, accelerated growth, large teeth, asymmetrical ears, severe acne…

A

XYY Syndrome

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67
Q

Girls with short stature, amenorrhea, excessive nuchal skin, low posterior hairline, broad chest, coarctation of the aorta…

A

Turner’s (45, XO)

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68
Q

Primarily in boys; ID, macroencephaly, long face, high arched palate, large ears, macroorchidism…

A

Fragile X (fragile site at X gene)

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69
Q

Beta thalassemia blood findings…

A

microcytic, nonimmune, hemolytic anemia (normocytic w/ high reticulocytes)

MCHC = decreased

presents >6 months

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70
Q

Hereditary spherocytosis blood findings…

A

hemolytic anemia (normocytic w/ high reticulocytes)

MCHC = elevated

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71
Q

Young patient in distress, sitting in tripod position with chin thrust forward…

A

epiglottitis

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72
Q

Pathogen: epiglottitis

A

H. influenzae B

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73
Q

R/F for epiglottitis

A

no vaccinations

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74
Q

XR findings for epiglottitis:

A

thumb sign

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75
Q

Tx: epiglottitis

A

intubation

antibiotics

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76
Q

McCune-Albright Syndrome (3)

A

irregular cafe-au-lait
precocious puberty
fibrous dysplasia of bones

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77
Q

McCune-Albright Syndrome Gene

A

GNAS

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78
Q

Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome (2)

A

GI tract hamartomatous polyposis; skin lesions (small, perioral, mucocutaneous pigmented macules)

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79
Q

Sturge-Weber (4)

A

ID
seizures
visual impairment
Port Wine Stain (trigeminal nerve)

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80
Q

Tuberous Sclerosis (2)

A

Ash-leaf spots

Shagreen patches

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81
Q

Hand, Foot, Mouth (virus, sx)

A

Coxsackievirus

Sx: fever, oral sores, rash on palms/soles

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82
Q

Measles (sx, rash distribution)

A

sx: cough, coryza, conjunctivitis
rash: cephalocaudal

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83
Q

Scarlet Fever (sx)

A

sx: fever, strawberry tongue, sandpaper rash, exudative pharyngitis

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84
Q

Complications of Kawasaki Disease (2)

A
  1. Coronary Artery Aneurysms

2. Myocardial Infarction & Ischemia

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85
Q

Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (Etiology)

A

Gene defect leading to failure of T cell development, B cell dysfunction due to absent T cells

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86
Q

SCID (inheritance)

A

x-linked recessive

autosomal recessive

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87
Q

SCID (tx)

A

Stem Cell transplant

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88
Q

CD19 =

A

B Cells

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89
Q

CD3 =

A

T Cells

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90
Q

Down Syndrome Features

A 
epicanthic folds
upslanting palpebral fissues
low set, small ears
flat facial profile
short neck w/ excess skin
furrowed tongue
brushfield spots
single, transverse palmar crease
sandal-toe deformity
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91
Q

Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome

A

Macrosomia
Hemihyperplasia
Omphalocele
Macroglossia

92
Q

Prader-Willi Syndrome

A

Hypogonadism

Almond-shaped eyes

93
Q

Complications of Eczema (4)

A
  1. Impetigo (staph aureus, strep pyogenes); painful pustules with honey-crusted adherent coating
  2. Eczema herpeticum (herpes simplex type I); painful vesicular rash with punched-out erosions and hemorrhagic crusting
  3. Molluscum contagiosum (poxvirus); flesh colored papules with central umbilication
  4. tinea corporis/ring worm(trichophyton rubrum); pruritic circular patch with central clearing and raised, scaly border
94
Q

Croup (virus, age, sx)

A

Virus: parainfluenza
Age: 6 mo - 3 y/o
Sx: inspiratory stridor, barking cough, hoarseneess

95
Q

Croup (tx)

A

mild - humidified air, +/- steroids

severe - steroids + nebulized epi

96
Q

Croup (pathophys)

A

edema and narrowing of proximal trachea, aka subglottis; steeple sign

97
Q

Recurrent sinopulmonary and GI infections , absence of lymphoid tissue (little tonsils), beginning after 6 y/o…

A

x-linked agammaglobulinemia, AKA Bruton’s

98
Q

X-linked agammaglobulinemia (Dx)

A

decreased immunoglobulins and b cells; normal t cells; no response to vaccinations

99
Q

Adenosine deaminase deficiency =

A

SCID

100
Q

Impaired oxidative burst =

A

CGD (reccurent skin and pulm infections)

101
Q

Osgood-Schlatter Disease

A 
unilateral, knee pain
progressive 
young adolescents
pain over tibial tubercle
clinical dx
tx: supportive
102
Q

Patellar tendinitis

A

overuse injury due to repetitive jumping; point tenderness at inferior pole of the patella

103
Q

Patellofemoral pain

A

overuse injury presenting as progressive knee pain; pain localized to patella, associated with instability and buckling of knee

104
Q

Prepatellar bursitis

A

direct, chronic trauma of anterior knee; pain with direct pressure, superficial swelling over patella

105
Q

Nephrotic syndrome in kids…

A

minimal change disease

106
Q

Nephrotic syndrome in adolescents/adults…

A

focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS) and membranous nephropathy

107
Q

R/F for membranous nephropathy

A

Hep B +

108
Q

Herpangina

A 
Coxsackie virus
Posterior Oral Ulcers
Fever
Pharyngitis
Tx: supportive
109
Q

Hand-Foot-Mouth

A

Similar to herpangina + rash on hands/feets; also caused by coxsackie virus

110
Q

Herpetic gingivostomatitis

A 
HSV1
Anterior/Lip Ulcers
Fever 
Pharyngitis
Erythematous gingiva
Tx: oral acyclovir
111
Q

Tonsillitis pathogen

A

adenovirus

112
Q

Vitamin K Deficiency

A

elevated PT & INR

normal platelets

113
Q

Options for foreign body ingestion (2)

A
  1. If no severe r/f exist = serial XR

2. If severe r/f = endoscopic removal

114
Q

Tx: mild to moderate dehydration

A

Oral rehydration

115
Q

Tx: severe dehydration

A

IVF - isotonic saline

116
Q

Pinworm (worm, sx, dx)

A

Enterobius vermicularis
Sx: nightly perianal pruitis
Dx: eggs on tape test

117
Q

Pinworm (tx)

A

albendazole OR pyrantel pamoate

118
Q

Candida albicans (diaper rash)

A

beefy red rash within skin folds, satellite lesions; tx = clotrimazole

119
Q

Strongyloidiasis

A

helminth

sx: urticaria, abdominal pain, respiratory problems

120
Q

Strongyloidiasis (tx)

A

ivermectin

121
Q

Scabies

A

sx: intense pruritis (worse at night); affects extremities; associated papules and burrows

122
Q

Scabies (tx)

A

permethrin

123
Q

Schistosomiasis

A

caused by flatworms

sx: rash on lower legs, several weeks later – diarrhea, weight loss, RUQ pain

124
Q

Schistosomiasis (tx)

A

Praziquantel

125
Q

Respiratory Distress Syndrome (pahtophys.)

A

common in premature neonates with very low birth weight; immature alveoli are unable to produce sufficient surfactant to reduce alveolar surface tension, results in alveoli collapse and diffuse atelectasis

126
Q

RDS (sx)

A

present within minutes to hours of birth; tachypnea, grunting, nasal flaring, retractions, hypoxia, cyanosis

127
Q

RDS (XR findings)

A

ground glass opacities
perihilar linear opacities
diffuse, fine, reicular granularity

128
Q

RDS (tx)

A

continuous positive air pressure ventilation; can consider surfactant therapy

129
Q

Burkitt lymphoma

A

neoplasm of mature B cells; mass in the mandible or abdominal viscera; “starry sky appearance”

130
Q

Hodgkin lymphoma

A

fever, lymphadenopathy; mediastinal mass on CXR

131
Q

Microcytic anemia think…

A

iron deficiency, thalassemia

132
Q

Distinguishing laborartory findings for IDA include…

A

decreased erythrocytes, elevated red cell distribution, reactive thrombocytosis (>400)

133
Q

Premature infants should receive vaccines…

A

according to their chronological age. Do NOT delay!

134
Q

Live attenuated vaccines are withheld in this population…

A

immunocompromised patients

135
Q

Most common GI anomaly associated with Down Syndrome

A

duodenal atresia

136
Q

XR finding for duodenal atresia

A

double bubble sign

137
Q

Management for duodenal atresia

A

d/c enteral feeds, NG tube decompression, surgical repair

138
Q

Immediate routine neonatal resuscitation includes…

A

drying, stimulating, warming

139
Q

The only absolute infant contraindication of breastfeeding is…

A

galactosemia

140
Q

ambigious genitalia + 46,xx, elevated 17-hydroxyprogesterone =

A

congenital adrenal hyperplasia

141
Q

Most common cause of CAH is…

A

21-hydroxylase deficiency

142
Q

CAH (tx)

A

glucocorticoid and mineralcorticoid therapy

143
Q

Rett Syndrome

A

females, regression of milestones, hand-wringing, hyper/hypoventilation, seizures; MECP2 gene

144
Q

Krabbe disease

A

peripheral neuropathy, optic atrophy, spasticity, microcephaly

145
Q

Landau-Kleffner Syndrome

A

language skills deteriorate secondary to severe epileptic attacks

146
Q

Lennox-Gastaut Syndrome

A

severe seizures of multiple types + ID

147
Q

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

A

eczema
microthrombocytopenia
recurrent infections

148
Q

WAS (genetics)

A

WAS gene
x-linked recessive
cytoskeleton problem

149
Q

WAS (tx)

A

stem cell transplant

150
Q

Shigella gastroenteritis

A 
high fever
abdominal pain
profuse diarrhea (+ mucus, blood)
\+/- seizures (kiddos)
151
Q

Methemoglobinemia

A

excessive exposure to oxidizing agent; presents with O2 sat of 85% when it is actually normal (PaO2); presents with cyanosis and dark chocolate blood

152
Q

Methemoglobinemia (tx)

A

Methylene blue

153
Q

Transient proteinuria

A

isolated proteinuria in u/a; normal, make sure to check again on two separate occasions to ensure that it isn’t chronic

154
Q

Rubella

A

low-grade fever
maculopapular rash w/ cephalocaudal spread
posterior auricular
suboccipital lymphadenopathy

155
Q

Cystinuria (triad)

A

recurrent kidney stones + family history + hexagonal crystals

156
Q

Cystinuria (pathophys.)

A

impaired transport of cystine and the dibasic amino acids ornithine, lysine, and arginine = cystine stones!

157
Q

Cystinuria (dx)

A

cyanide-nitroprusside test

158
Q

Dx test for hereditary spherocytosis

A
  1. 5-eosin-malimide binding test

2. osmotic fragility on acidified glycerol lysis test

159
Q

CXR: fluid in interlobar fissures

A

TTN

160
Q

Sickle Cell Trait - Gross hematuria

A

Renal papillary necrosis

161
Q

Factor 8 replacement therapy can cause…

A

inhibitor development

162
Q

Contraindications for Rotavirus Vaccine

A

Intussesception
Meckel’s Diverticulum
SCID

163
Q

SCD: Progressive Anemia

A

Folate Deficiency

164
Q

SCD: Sudden Anemia

A

Aplastic Crisis

165
Q

Medication that can trigger hemolysis in G6PD deficiency

A

nitrofurantoin

166
Q

Trendelenberg gait

A

pelvic shift downward

weakness of gluteus maximus

167
Q

Babies born to mothers who are + for Hep B should receive…

A

vaccine AND immune globulin

168
Q

Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome

A 
macrosomia
macroglossia
umbilical hernia/omphalocele
hemihyperplasia
hypoglycemia

get abdominal u/s and afp q 3mo

higher risk for Wilm’s tumor and hepatoblastoma

169
Q

Central Precocious Puberty

A

Advanced Bone Age

High LH, FSH

170
Q

Peripheral Precocious Puberty

A

Advanced Bone Age

Low LH, FSH

171
Q

Common cause of peripheral precocious puberty

A

Nonclassic congenital adrenal hyperplasia

172
Q

Topical erythromycin is used in neonates to prevent…

A

gonorrhea

173
Q

Microcytic anemia in kids (2)

A

iron deficiency

thalassemia

174
Q

Acute rheumatic fever

A 
Jones criteria:
fever
migratory polyarthritis
erythema marginatum
elevated acute-phase reactants (ESR,CRP)
175
Q

Serum Sickness Reaction

A

Beta lactams, sulfa drugs; sx - fever, urticarial rash, arthralgia, lymphadenopathy

176
Q

Phenytoin Use During Pregnancy…

A

microcephaly
wide open fontanelle
cleft lip/palate
distal phalange hypoplasia

177
Q

One week old boy who has poor feeding, vomiting, signs of dehydration, low Na, and virilization…

A

21-hydroxylase deficiency; aka CAH

178
Q

Dx for CGD (2)

A

Nitroblue tetrazolium test; dihydrorhodamine

179
Q

Biphasic stridor that improves with neck extension but NOT with prone positioning

A

Vascular Ring

180
Q

Inspiratory stridor that worsens with feeding or crying; gets better when baby is prone

A

Laryngomalacia

181
Q

Waterhouse-Friderichsen Syndrome

A

patients w/ meningococcemia; sudden vasomotor collapse and skin rash = adrenal hemorrhage

182
Q

5 Cyanotic Heart Lesions

A 
5 T's
Truncus arteriosis
Transposition of Great Vessels
Tricuspid Atresia
Tetrology of Fallot
Total anomalous pulmonary venous return
183
Q

Most common complication of near drowning =

A

acute respiratory distress syndrome

184
Q

Radio-opaque tablets =

A

iron

185
Q

Tx for iron OD

A

deferoxamine

186
Q

XR findings for Ewing Sarcoma

A
  1. central lytic lesion
  2. onion skinning
  3. moth eaten appearance
  4. codman triangle
187
Q

XR Findings for Giant Cell Tumor

A

Soap Bubble

188
Q

XR Findings for Osteoid osteoma

A

small, round lucency

189
Q

Duhenne Muscular Dystrophy would show ____ dystrophin on dx.

A

ABSENT

190
Q

Neonate with exposure to VZV give…

A

VZV IVIG

191
Q

Fanconi anemia

A

most common cause of congenital aplastic anemia; DNA repair defect; sx - short stature, hypo/hyperpigmented macules, abnormal thumbs, GU malformations

192
Q

Niacin Deficiency

A

Diarrhea
Dermatitis
Dementia
Death

**enlarged, smooth, red tongue

193
Q

See honey, think…

A

infant botulism

194
Q

Craniopharyngiomas

A

+ calcifications

present like mom’s tumor

195
Q

Pituitary Adenoma

A
  • calcifications

present with more hormone based sx

196
Q

Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome

A

Genotypically Male
Phenotypically Female
Elective Gonadectomy (b/c undescended testes can lead to testicular cancer)

197
Q

Diamond-Blackfan Anemia

A

Craniofacial abnormalities
Triphalangeal thumbs
Increased risk of malignancy

198
Q

Diamond-Blackfan Anemia

A

Corticosteroids

RBC Transfusions

199
Q

APSGN (pathophys)

A

mesangial immune complex deposits

200
Q

Gaucher Disease

A 
Glucocerebrosidase Deficiency
hepatosplenomegaly
anemia, thrombocytopenia
bony pain
FTT, delayed puberty
201
Q

Atlantoaxial Instability

A

Down Syndrome

sx - UMN findings, urinary/fecal incontinence, gait changes, weakness

202
Q

Congenital Lymphedema

A

Turners Syndrome

Pathophys = lymphatic network dysgenesis

203
Q

Langerhans cell hsitiocytosis

A

Lytic bone lesions
Skin lesions (rash)
Diabetes insipidus
Lymphadenopathy

204
Q

Primary Amenorrhea

A

U/S

FSH - low = TSH/prolactin; high - karyotype

205
Q

ABG findings for pyloric stenosis

A

pH, PaCO2, HCO3 = high

K, Cl = low

206
Q

Patients with beta-thalessemia major need…

A

transfusions and chelation therapy for LIFE

207
Q

Jervell & Lange-Nielsen Syndrome

A

congenital deafness
death at young age (+ fhx)
elongated QT interval

208
Q

Trisomy 18

A 
IUGR
microcephaly
VSD
closed fists with overlapping fingers
micrognathia
rocker-bottom feet
209
Q

Most common cause of neonatal hypothyroidism

A

thyroid dysgenesis

210
Q

Primary Ciliary Dyskinesia

A

situs inversus
recurrent sinusitis
bronchiectasis

211
Q

Gene in Marfans…

A

fibrillin 1

212
Q

Gene in Homocystinuria…

A

Cystathionine Synthase

213
Q

Patients with SCD on hydroxyurea will have a hemoglobin electrophoresis that resembles…

A 
high S (80%)
mildly elevated F (17%)
214
Q

Aplastic anemia does NOT have…

A

bone pain

hepatomegaly

215
Q

Henoch-Schonlein Purpura

A

palpable purpura
arthritis/arthralgia
abdominal pain
renal disease

216
Q

In patients with SCD, lab findings during a splenic sequestration are:

A

increased reticulocytes

decreased platelents

217
Q

In patients with SCD, lab findings during an aplastic crisis are:

A

decreased reticulocytes

218
Q

Aspirin during influenza/varicella think…

A

Reye’s Syndrome

219
Q

Reye’s Syndrome

A

Acute Liver Failure
Encephalopathy
Excess Ammonia

220
Q

Pathophys for Reye’s Syndrome

A

Microvascular Steatosis

221
Q

Tanner Stage 3/4 boy w/ tender, nipple breast tissue….

A

reassure and observe –> probably gynocomastia

222
Q

Vitamin supplementation for Measles Patients

A

A

223
Q

Tx for neonate clavicular fx

A

Nothing (annoyed)

224
Q

Thrill, 4/6 murmur at LLSB

A

VSD

225
Q

Maternal diabetes is a R/F for RDS b/c…

A

it delays surfactant production

226
Q

Wiscott-Aldrich - Water

A

Wa - WASP
T - thrombocytopenia
E - eczema
R - recurrent sinopulm infections

227
Q

Umbilical hernia + macroglossia =

A

Congenital Hypothyroidism

Pediatrics Shelf Exam (1 decks)

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