Pediatrics Flashcards

1
Q

What teachings are important to include in the primary health care needs of a child with a disability?

A

Make sure parents know normal milestones, so they know what is abnormal

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2
Q

When does grief become abnormal?

A

When it causes the sufferer to neglect other parts of their life

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3
Q

What mile stones should occur at 6 weeks?

A

Infant recognizes faces, social smile, turns head from side to side, and begins to get some head control

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4
Q

By what point should an infant have full head control?

A

3-4 months

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5
Q

By what point should an infant sit up by themselves?

A

5-6 months

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6
Q

By what point do most infants begin to crawl?

A

10-11 months

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7
Q

By what point should an infant begin to walk?

A

12 months

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8
Q

What does the birth weight do by six months?

A

Doubles

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9
Q

What does the birth weight do by 12 months?

A

Triples

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10
Q

When does the posterior fontanel close?

A

2 months

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11
Q

When does the anterior fontanel close?

A

18 months

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12
Q

When should an infant start to speak?

A

12 months

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13
Q

What stage does Erikson say infants are in?

A

Trust vs. Mistrust

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14
Q

At what age will an infant develop separation anxiety?

A

7-8 months

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15
Q

What toys are appropriate for an infant?

A

Rattles, blocks, or anything bright and noisy

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16
Q

How old is a toddler?

A

1-3 years

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17
Q

At what age should a toddler reach 50% of their adult height?

A

2 years

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18
Q

When should a toddler throw a ball overhand?

A

18 months

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19
Q

When should a toddler kick a ball?

A

2 years

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20
Q

When should a toddler feed himself with a spoon?

A

2 years

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21
Q

Why do toddlers have temper tantrums?

A

They are developing a sense of autonomy and independence

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22
Q

How long should the sentences of a 2 year old be?

A

2-3 words

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23
Q

When should a toddler be potty trained?

A

2 years

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24
Q

What toys are appropriate for a toddler?

A

Crayons and pull-push toys

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25
Q

When should a child be screened for obesity?

A

1-3 years old

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26
Q

When should a child learn to tie his shoes?

A

5 years

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27
Q

Why does colorblindness become evident in childhood?

A

Because they are learning colors and shapes

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28
Q

What is Erikson’s stage for a child?

A

Initiative vs. Guilt

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29
Q

What do children see a hospitalization as?

A

Punishment

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30
Q

How should a child be spoken to in the hospital?

A

Explain everything you can to them

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31
Q

What toys are appropriate for a 3-6 year old in the hospital?

A

Coloring books, dolls, and blocks

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32
Q

What stage does Erikson think a school-aged child is in?

A

Industry vs. Inferiority

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33
Q

What toys are appropriate for a school-aged child?

A

Board games and card games

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34
Q

What does Tanner’s developmental scale show?

A

Puberty stages

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35
Q

When does adult thinking develop?

A

15 years

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36
Q

What stage does Erikson think adolescents are in?

A

Identity vs. Role Confusion

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37
Q

The nurse is caring for an 8-year-old child who has a chronic illness. The child has a tracheostomy, and a parent is rooming-in during this hospitalization. The parent insists on providing almost all of the child’s care and tells the nurses how to care for the child. When planning the child’s care, the primary nurse should recognize that the parent is:

A

The expert in care of the child

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38
Q

Denial is a common reaction to the diagnosis of a disability or chronic illness. The nurse knows that the use of denial as a defense mechanism:

A

Is a necessary cushion to prevent disintegration

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39
Q

The potential effects of chronic illness or disability on a child’s development vary at different ages. Which is a threat to a toddler’s normal development?

A

Hindered mobility

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40
Q

A 9-year-old child has several physical disabilities. His father explains to the nurse that his son concentrates on what he can, rather than cannot do and is as independent as possible. The nurse’s best interpretation of this is that:

A

The child is using an adaptive coping style

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41
Q

The nurse notes that the parents of a critically ill child spend a large amount of time talking with the parents of another child who is also seriously ill. They talk with these parents more than with the nurses. The nurse should recognize that the:

A

Parent-to-parent support is valuable

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42
Q

Parents ask the nurse for advice when telling their 4-year-old about a grandmother’s death. The nurse’s best response involves teaching the parents that the child’s concept of death is:

A

Temporary

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43
Q

A 5-year-old girl’s sibling dies from sudden infant death syndrome. The parents are concerned because she showed more outward grief when her cat died than she is showing now. The nurse should explain that:

A

The death may be so painful and threatening that the child must deny it for now

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44
Q

A child who is terminally ill with bone cancer is in severe pain. Nursing interventions should be based on knowledge that:

A

Large doses of opioids are justified when there are no other treatment options

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45
Q

The nurse is caring for a child dying from cancer. Physical signs that the child is approaching death include:

A

A change in respiratory pattern

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46
Q

Several nurses tell their nursing supervisor that they want to be able to attend the funeral of a child for whom they had cared. They say they felt especially close to both the child and the family. The supervisor should recognize that attending the funeral is:

A

Appropriate because it can assist in the resolution of personal grief

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47
Q

A terminally ill male adolescent is being admitted to the hospital due to lack of pain relief. When communicating with this patient about his feelings on death, the nurse should incorporate which actions into the plan of care?

A

Reassure the adolescent that the illness is not a result of him not cleaning his room and allow the adolescent to participate in the treatment decisions as much as possible

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48
Q

When planning a child safety health fair presentation addressing causes of death in children, the nurse should include which topics?

A

Sexually transmitted infection prevention for 15 to 19 years old; gun safety for 10 to 14 year olds; information on bullying and violence prevention for 15 to 19 year olds

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49
Q

What is the average IQ?

A

90

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50
Q

What are the requirements for a diagnosis of intellectual disability?

A

Subaverage IQ, impairment in 2 of 10 adaptive skills, and younger than 18

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51
Q

What are the adaptive skills?

A

Communication, home living, community use, leisure, health and safety, self-care, social skills, academics, work, and self-direction

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52
Q

How can intellectual impairment be prevented?

A

Folic acid

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53
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of Down’s syndrome?

A

Square head, small mouth, wide, slanted eyes, low ears, hypotonia, flat nose

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54
Q

What physical problems are children with Down’s syndrome at greater risk for?

A

Congenital heart disease, hypothyroidism, and leukemia

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55
Q

What is Fragile X syndrome caused by?

A

An abnormal gene on the lower end of the long arm of the X chromosome

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56
Q

What are the types of hearing loss?

A

Conductive, sensorineural, and mixed

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57
Q

What are the types of visual impairment?

A

Refraction, myopia, hyperopia, strabismus, and amblyopia

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58
Q

What is the nursing priority for a baby with vision loss?

A

Promote parent-child attachment

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59
Q

Which infectious disease can cause blindness?

A

Rubella

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60
Q

The primary goal in caring for the child with cognitive impairment is to:

A

Promote optimal development

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61
Q

The parents of a cognitively impaired child ask the nurse for guidance with discipline. The nurse’s BEST response is:

A

“Behavior modification is an excellent form of discipline.”

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62
Q

The genetic testing of a child with Down syndrome (DS) showed that it was caused by translocation. The parents ask about further genetic testing. The nurse’s BEST response for the parents is:

A

“The parents can be tested themselves because the child’s condition might be hereditary.”

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63
Q

A 2-week-old infant with Down syndrome is being seen in the clinic. His mother tells the nurse that he is difficult to hold; that “He’s like a rag doll. He doesn’t cuddle up to me like my other babies did.” The nurse’s best interpretation of this lack of clinging or molding is that it is:

A

The result of the physical characteristics of Down syndrome

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64
Q

The parents of a child with fragile X syndrome want to have another baby. They tell the nurse they worry that another child might be similarly affected. The MOST appropriate nursing action is to:

A

Explain that prenatal diagnosis of the syndrome is now available

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65
Q

A 6-year-old child has difficulty hearing faint or distant speech. His speech is normal, but he is having problems with his school performance. This hearing loss would MOST likely be classified as:

A

Slight

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66
Q

Early detection of a hearing impairment is critical because of its effect on areas of a child’s life. The nurse should evaluate further for effects of the hearing impairment on:

A

Speech development

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67
Q

A child in the clinic exhibits reduced visual acuity in one eye despite appropriate optical correction. The nurse expects the child’s health care provider to diagnosis the child with:

A

Amblyopia

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68
Q

A 5-year-old male child has bilateral eye patches that were put in place after surgery yesterday morning. Today he can be allowed to get out of bed. The MOST important nursing intervention is to:

A

Orient him to his immediate surroundings

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69
Q

Autism is a complex developmental disorder. Diagnostic criteria for autism include delayed or abnormal functioning in which area(s) before 3 years of age?

A

Social interaction; Inability to maintain eye contact; Language as used in social communication

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70
Q

The nurse working in an outpatient eye clinic should report which clinical manifestations to the health care provider out of concern for retinoblastoma?

A

White eye reflex; Strabismus; Red, painful eye, often with glaucoma; Sever permanent visual impairment

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71
Q

What are the phases of separation anxiety?

A

Protest phase, despair phase, and detachment phase

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72
Q

At what age does a child remember pain?

A

2-3 years

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73
Q

Which behavior would most likely be manifested in a young child experiencing the protest phase of separation anxiety?

A

Clings to parent

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74
Q

The most consistent indicator of pain in infants is:

A

Facial expression of discomfort

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75
Q

The psychosexual conflicts of preschool children make them extremely vulnerable to:

A

Bodily injury or pain

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76
Q

The nurse needs to start an intravenous (IV) line on an 8-year-old child to begin administering intravenous antibiotics. The child starts to cry and tells the nurse, “Do it later, O.K.?” The nurse should:

A

Start the IV line because unlimited procrastination results in heightened anxiety

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77
Q

A 4-year-old child will be having cardiac surgery next week. The child’s parents call the hospital, asking about how to prepare her for this. The nurse’s BEST response is to inform the parents that:

A

Children who are prepared experience less fear and stress during hospitalization

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78
Q

A mother tells the nurse that she will visit her 2-year-old son tomorrow about noon. During the child’s bath, he asks for mommy. The nurse’s BEST reply is:

A

“Mommy will be here at lunch”

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79
Q

The nurse working in an outpatient surgery center for children should understand that:

A

Families need to be prepared for what to expect after discharge

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80
Q

When completing a health history on a hospitalized child, the nurse should assess for which factors that can commonly affect the parents’ reaction to the child’s illness?

A

Previous experience with illness or hospitalization; Available support systems; Medical procedures involved with treatment; Previous coping abilities; Cultural and religious beliefs

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81
Q

When admitting a child to the inpatient pediatric unit, the nurse should assess for which risk factors that can increase the child’s stress level associated with hospitalization?

A

Lack of fit between parent and child; Below-average intelligence; Age; Gender

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82
Q

The nurse is discharging a young child from the hospital. The nurse should instruct the parents to look for which posthospital child behaviors?

A

Tendency to cling to parents; Demands for parents’ attention; New fears such as nightmares; Jealousy toward others; Anger toward parents

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83
Q

What drugs are generally used to anesthetize children?

A

Benzodiazapine and propovol

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84
Q

What are the alternatives to restraining a child?

A

Diversional activities, parental participation, and therapeutic holding

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85
Q

Where are specimen collected from children?

A

Heels

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86
Q

Why are IVs for children always on a smart pump?

A

Because it helps to preserve the IV access site

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87
Q

What type of inhaler is appropriate for all children?

A

Metered-dose with a spacer

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88
Q

How should oxygen be administered to a child?

A

It should always be humidified

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89
Q

What size ET tube should be used on a child?

A

The size of the ET tube should match the diameter of the child’s pinky finger

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90
Q

How are tube feeds administered to a child?

A

Bolus

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91
Q

How are Gavage feeding tubes checked for placement?

A

Air bolus

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92
Q

Why should cold water enemas not be given to children?

A

They can cause shock

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93
Q

The preferred site for an IM injection in a child is:

A

Vastus lateralis

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94
Q

The nurse needs to take the blood pressure of a preschool boy for the first time. Which action would be BEST in gaining his cooperation?

A

Permitting him to handle equipment and see the dial move before putting the cuff in place.

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95
Q

It is time to give a 3-year-old boy his medication. Which approach is MOST likely to receive a positive response?

A

“It’s time for your medication now. Would you like water or apple juice afterward?”

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96
Q

The nurse is doing preoperative teaching with a child and his parents. The parents say that he is “dreading the shot” for premedication. The nurse’s response should be based on the knowledge that:

A

Preanesthetic medication should be “atraumatic,” using oral, existing intravenous, or rectal routes

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97
Q

A 10-year-old female child requires daily medications for a chronic illness. Her mother tells the nurse that she is always nagging her to take her medicine before school. What is the MOST appropriate nursing action to promote the child’s compliance?

A

Establishing a contract with her, including rewards

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98
Q

A 7-year-old female child has a fever associated with a viral illness. She is being cared for at home. The nurse should recognize that the principal reason for treating fever in this child is:

A

Relief of discomfort

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99
Q

Standard Precautions for infection control include that:

A

Gloves are worn to change diapers when there are loose or explosive stools

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100
Q

The nurse is preparing a plan to teach a mother how to administer 1½ teaspoons of medicine to her 6-month-old child. The nurse should recommend using:

A

A plastic syringe (without needle) calibrated in milliliters

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101
Q

Several types of long-term central venous access devices are used. A benefit of using an implanted port (e.g., Port-a-cath) is that it:

A

Does not need to limit regular physical activity, including swimming

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102
Q

The nurse observes erythema, pain, and edema at a child’s intravenous (IV) site with streaking along the vein. What should the nurse do FIRST?

A

Immediately stop the infusion

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103
Q

The best explanation for why pulse oximetry is used on young children is that it:

A

Is noninvasive

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104
Q

When is bronchial (postural) drainage generally performed?

A

Before meals and at bedtime

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105
Q

The nurse is caring for an infant with a tracheostomy when accidental decannulation occurs. The nurse is unable to reinsert the tube. What should be the NEXT action by the nurse?

A

Try to insert a smaller-sized tube

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106
Q

A neonate had corrective surgery 3 days ago for esophageal atresia. The nurse notices that after the child receives his gastrostomy feeding, there is often a backup of formula feeding into the tube. As a result, the nurse should:

A

Leave the gastrostomy tube open and suspended after feedings

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107
Q

Informed consent is valid when:

A

A person is over the age of majority and competent; information is provided to make an intelligent decision; the choice exercised is free of force, fraud, duress, or coercion

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108
Q

When caring for a child with an intravenous (IV) infusion, the most appropriate nursing interventions are to:

A

Use an infusion pump with a microdropper to ensure the prescribed infusion rate; check IV fluids and infusion rate with another licensed professional; observe the insertion site frequently for signs of infiltration

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109
Q

What are the signs of respiratory distress in a child?

A

Obtunded, retracted, lethargic and inconsolable

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110
Q

Why are preterm babies at risk for alveolar collapse?

A

They have too little surfactant

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111
Q

What anti-viral is used to treat RSV?

A

Ribavarin

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112
Q

Who is at risk for developing RSV?

A

Children over 6 weeks but under 2 years

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113
Q

What is the causative agent for ear infections?

A

Haemophilus influenzae

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114
Q

What needs to be avoided in a child with RSV?

A

Dehydration

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115
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of RSV?

A

High fever, expiratory wheezing and cyanosis

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116
Q

Why does the infection rate increase in children 3-6 months old?

A

They lose the immunity from their mother

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117
Q

When is RSV season?

A

Winter and spring

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118
Q

When is infection-related asthma season?

A

Cold weather

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119
Q

When are mycoplasmal infections common?

A

In the fall and winter

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120
Q

What is seen in newborns instead of a fever?

A

A drop in temperature

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121
Q

What are the nursing priorities for children with respiratory infections?

A

Ease respiratory effort, promote rest and comfort, prevent the spread of infection, reduce temperature, promote hydration and nutrition, and provide support and reassurance

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122
Q

How can the flu be prevented in infants?

A

Vaccinate mom during the pregnancy

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123
Q

What are children with streptococcal pharyngitis at risk for developing?

A

Rheumatic fever

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124
Q

How is acute streptococcal pharyngitis treated in a child?

A

Tylenol, antibiotics, and fluid

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125
Q

Which type of wheezing is most ominous in children?

A

Inspiratory and expiratory

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126
Q

Why are tonsillectomies no longer performed unless there is an emergency?

A

It is very easy to hemorrhage after

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127
Q

When is a child at risk for hemorrhage post-tonsillectomy?

A

24-48 hours, then 5-14 days

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128
Q

When is surgical intervention necessary for children with otitis media?

A

When the build-up of fluid will not resolve on its own

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129
Q

What virus causes mononucleosis?

A

Epstein-Barr

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130
Q

What is the diagnostic test for mononucleosis?

A

Blood tests

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131
Q

What organs need to be periodically checked for a pediatric patient with mononucleosis?

A

Spleen and liver

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132
Q

What nursing care is needed for children with mononucleosis?

A

Steroids, proper nutrition and supportive care

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133
Q

What does mononucleosis usually follow?

A

A previous infection

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134
Q

Characterized by hoarseness, “barking” cough, inspiratory stridor, and varying degrees of respiratory distress

A

Croup

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135
Q

When is Croup more common?

A

Winter

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136
Q

What respiratory organs does Croup affect?

A

Larynx, trachea, and bronchi

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137
Q

What causes Croup?

A

H. influenzae type B

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138
Q

What does the severe cough cause children to do?

A

Stop breathing

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139
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of epiglottitis?

A

Drooling, tripod positioning, anxiousness, flushed face and wheezing

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140
Q

How is epiglottitis treated?

A

Steroids and the intubation or tracheotomy

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141
Q

What causes epiglottitis to worsen?

A

Crying and anxiousness

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142
Q

What are the manifestations of laryngotracheobronchitis?

A

Inspiratory stridor, suprasternal retractions, “barking” cough, hypoxia, and respiratory acidosis

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143
Q

How is LTB managed?

A

Maintain airway, maintain hydration, and nebulize with oxygen, steroids, and epinephrine

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144
Q

When does spasmodic laryngitis occur?

A

At night

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145
Q

What is the distinguishing sign of bacterial tracheitis?

A

Thick, purulent secretions that result in respiratory distress

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146
Q

Which respiratory disease is a possible precursor to asthma?

A

Spasmodic laryngitis

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147
Q

Why are cough suppressants rarely used in children?

A

There is an increased risk of pneumonia

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148
Q

What does bacterial pneumonia look like on an x-ray?

A

Consolidated

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149
Q

What does viral pneumonia look like on an x-ray?

A

Inflammation and mucous throughout lungs

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150
Q

What causes mycoplasmic pneumonia?

A

Inhaled substances

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151
Q

Who is pertussis common in?

A

Infants under 2 months

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152
Q

What is the treatment for pertussis?

A

Antipyretics, fluids, oxygen and supportive care

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153
Q

When is pertussis most common?

A

Spring and summer

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154
Q

What is the hallmark of TB?

A

Juicy cough

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155
Q

How is TB diagnosed?

A

Three sputum samples

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156
Q

What drug prevents the development of TB?

A

INH

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157
Q

What drug is used to treat TB?

A

Rifampin

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158
Q

What age group is most at risk for foreign body aspiration?

A

1-3 years

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159
Q

What children are most at risk for aspiration pneumonia?

A

Children with feeding difficulties, like a cleft lip or palate

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160
Q

How can aspiration pneumonia be prevented?

A

Hold head up high while feeding

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161
Q

Respiratory distress and hypoxia within 72 hours of a serious injury or surgery

A

Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrom

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162
Q

What causes ARDS?

A

An overreaction of the immune system

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163
Q

How is ARDS treated?

A

High pressure ventilation

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164
Q

What indicates smoke inhalation?

A

Singed nasal hairs and soot in nasal cavity

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165
Q

How is smoke inhalation treated?

A

Administer humidifying oxygen at 100%

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166
Q

How is asthma diagnosed?

A

Peak flow meter

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167
Q

What is the goal for children with asthma?

A

To maintain normal activity levels

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168
Q

What drugs are used for asthma maintenance?

A

Advair and singulair

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169
Q

What needs to be taught about asthma maintenance drugs?

A

They cannot be abruptly stopped

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170
Q

What is the side effect of too much theophylline?

A

Seizures

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171
Q

How is status asthmaticus treated?

A

IV steroids and SQ epinephrine

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172
Q

A humidified atmosphere is recommended for a young child with an upper respiratory tract infection because this environment facilitates:

A

Soothing inflamed mucous membrane

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173
Q

It is important that a child with Group A ß-hemolytic streptococci (GABHS) infection be treated with antibiotics to prevent:

A

Acute rheumatic fever

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174
Q

When caring for a child after a tonsillectomy, the nurse should:

A

Watch for continuous swelling

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175
Q

A 4-year-old girl is brought to the emergency room. She has a “froglike” croaking sound on inspiration, is agitated, and is drooling. She insists on sitting upright. The nurse should:

A

Notify the physician immediately and be prepared to assist with a tracheostomy or intubation

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176
Q

The mother of a 20-month-old boy tells the nurse that he has a barking cough at night. His temperature is 37° C. The nurse suspects croup and should recommend:

A

Trying a cool-mist vaporizer at night and watching for signs of difficulty breathing

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177
Q

An infant with a congenital heart defect is receiving palivizumab (Synagis). The purpose of this is to:

A

Prevent respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) infection

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178
Q

A child with asthma is having pulmonary function tests. The purpose of the peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) is to:

A

Assess the severity of asthma

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179
Q

A 4-year-old boy needs to use a metered-dose inhaler to treat asthma. He cannot coordinate the breathing to use it effectively. The nurse should suggest that he use a:

A

Spacer

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180
Q

One of the goals for children with asthma is to prevent respiratory infection. This is because respiratory infection:

A

Can trigger an episode or aggravate an asthmatic state

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181
Q

An immediate intervention when an infant chokes on a piece of food would be to:

A

Position the infant in a head-down, face-down position and administer five quick blows between the shoulder blades

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182
Q

Asthma is classified into four categories: mild intermittent, mild persistent, moderate persistent, and severe persistent. Clinical features used to determine these categories include:

A

Lung function; frequency of symptoms; frequency and severity of exacerbations

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183
Q

A 5-year-old child is brought to the Emergency Department with abrupt onset of sore throat, pain with swallowing, fever, and sitting upright and forward. Acute epiglottitis is suspected. What are the most appropriate nursing interventions?

A

Vital signs; medical history; assessment of breath sounds; emergency airway equipment readily available

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184
Q

Abdominal pain or cramping that is manifested by loud crying and drying the legs up to the abdomen

A

Colic

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185
Q

When does colic resolve?

A

12-16 weeks

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186
Q

What are colicky babies at risk for?

A

Inadequate bonding and abuse

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187
Q

What are the causes of failure to thrive?

A

Inadequate caloric intake, inadequate absorption, increased metabolism, defective utilization, and poor parenting

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188
Q

What percentile does the child have to fall below for a diagnosis of failure to thrive?

A

5th

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189
Q

What are the nursing interventions for colic?

A

Gripe water, reglan, gas-x, put the baby over knee, walking, burping, pressure

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190
Q

What are the nursing interventions for SIDS?

A

Put the baby on its back with nothing in the crib, hard pacifiers, support

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191
Q

What are the nursing interventions for FTT?

A

Hold, cuddle, supplemental food, observe parenting

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192
Q

How can motor vehicle injuries be prevented?

A

Proper restraint of the child

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193
Q

What type of burn is the most common in children?

A

Scalding

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194
Q

How can burns be prevented?

A

Turn pot handles, turn water temperature down and smoke detectors

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195
Q

What are the signs of bacterial meningitis?

A

Extremely high fever, inconsolable child, and lethargy

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196
Q

Why should a child never be given aspirin?

A

It can cause a brain herniation

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197
Q

What are the signs of ADHD?

A

Inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity

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198
Q

What causes school phobia?

A

A fear of failure

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199
Q

What reproductive disorders can occur in male children?

A

Infection, hematuria, gynecomastica, precocious puberty, STIs, and testicular torsion

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200
Q

What reproductive disorders can occur in female children?

A

Amenorrhea, dysmenorrhea, and STIs

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201
Q

What is the main concern for a child with bulimia?

A

Fluid and electrolyte imbalance

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202
Q

How is congenital hypothyroidism diagnosed?

A

Neonatal screenings

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203
Q

What are the signs of congenital hypothyroidism in early infancy?

A

Depressed nasal bridge, short forehead, puffy eyelids, large tongue, thick/dry/mottled skin, coarse/dry/lustless hair, abdominal distention, umbilical hernia, hyporeflexia, bradycardia, hypothermia, hypotension, anemia, widely paten cranial sutures, prolonged jaundice and consitpation

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204
Q

What are the outcomes of untreated congenital hypothyroidism?

A

Permanent cognitive impairment

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205
Q

What are the metabolic effects of PKU?

A

FTT, vomiting, immobility, hyper-reactivity and erratic behavior

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206
Q

What two formulas are prescribed for infants with PKU?

A

Phenex-1 for infants and Phenex-2 for children and adults

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207
Q

What foods are high in phenylalanine content?

A

High protein foods, sweeteners, nuts, eggs, and fish

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208
Q

What are the three classic signs of diabetes?

A

Polyphagia, polydipsia, and polyuria

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209
Q

What are the signs of hypoglycemia?

A

Nervousness, pallor, tremulousness, palpitations, sweating, hunger, weakness, dizziness, headache, fatigue, irritability, loss of coordination, seizures and coma

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210
Q

What glucose level is considered to be hypoglycemic?

A

Under 60 mg/dL

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211
Q

What glucose level is considered to be hyperglycemic?

A

Over 250 mg/dL

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212
Q

What are the signs of hyperglycemia?

A

Confusion, thirst, weakness, fatigue, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, flushed, weak pulse, ketosis

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213
Q

What is the priority nursing care for children with ketoacidosis?

A

Administer fluids, electrolytes and insulin

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214
Q

What is the purpose of bronchodilators?

A

They relax the smooth muscles of the airways

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215
Q

What are the physical assessment findings for a child with asthma?

A

Inflammation, wheezing, breathlessness, chest tightness, cough, dyspnea, and itching

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216
Q

When does a cough occur for children with asthma?

A

At night or in the early morning

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217
Q

What nutritional support should be provided to a child with CF?

A

High fat and high calorie diet

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218
Q

What are the seven signs of respiratory distress in a pediatric client?

A

Restlessness, tachypnea, tachycardia, diaphoresis, nasal flaring, chest wall retraction, and wheezing/grunt

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219
Q

What position does a child with epiglottitis assume?

A

Tripod

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220
Q

Why are IV fluids important for a child with increased respiratory rate?

A

To prevent dehydration

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221
Q

Children with chronic otitis media are at risk for developing what problem?

A

Impaired hearing

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222
Q

What systems are involved in Cystic Fibrosis?

A

Thickened mucous gland secretions, elevated sweat electrolytes, increased enzymatic constituents of saliva and autonomic nervous system abnormalities

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223
Q

Why do children with CF have so many infections?

A

Their thickened mucous secretions act as a trap

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224
Q

What systems are predominantly affected in patients with CF?

A

Respiratory tract and pancreas

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225
Q

How is CF diagnosed?

A

Sweat chloride test

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226
Q

What kind of a cough do patients with CF present with?

A

Dry, non-productive

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227
Q

What is generally the first sign of CF?

A

Meconium ileus

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228
Q

What do the stools of a patient with CF look like?

A

Bulky, frothy, and have a foul odor

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229
Q

Why are children with CF chronically dehydrated?

A

They are not taking in fluids and have a high insensible loss

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230
Q

What kind of electrolyte imbalances do patients with CF have?

A

Hyponatremia, hypochloremia, and hypoalbuminemia

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231
Q

Why do patients with CF have chronic hypoxia?

A

Their bronchial epithelium gets destroyed with chronic infections, leading to a decreased O2/CO2 exchange

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232
Q

Why can the pancreatic enzymes of patients with CF not get to the duodenum?

A

Their thick secretions block the ducts

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233
Q

What digestive problems do patients with CF have?

A

Impaired digestion/absorption of fat and protein

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234
Q

What is the priority in caring for patients with CF?

A

Airway

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235
Q

Why should patients with CF exercise?

A

To strengthen their lungs

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236
Q

How should pancreatic enzymes be administered?

A

With food

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237
Q

What should patients with CF avoid?

A

Dairy

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238
Q

What does the diet of a patient with CF look like?

A

High protein, high calorie

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239
Q

When should chest PT be done for patients with CF?

A

Prior to meals or no sooner than 1 hour after meals

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240
Q

What are some symptoms of renal system dysfunction in children?

A

Very high fever, foul smelling urine, dry diapers and a change in demeanor

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241
Q

Why are uncircumcised boys under 3 months at high risk for UTIs?

A

Lack of knowledge on how to care for penis

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242
Q

If a pediatric patient has febrile symptoms associated with a UTI, what does that indicate?

A

Pyelonephritis

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243
Q

Infection in the upper urinary tract and kidneys

A

Pyelonephritis

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244
Q

Inflammation of the bladder

A

Cystitis

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245
Q

Bacterial illness; urinary pathogens in the blood

A

Urosepsis

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246
Q

Why is E. coli generally responsible for UTIs?

A

It is the primary bacteria in the stool

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247
Q

What is the single most important contributing factor for UTIs in children?

A

Stasis

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248
Q

How are UTIs treated?

A

An antibiotic, generally bactrim

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249
Q

A complication of a UTI in which the urine back up above the obstruction

A

Hydronephrosis

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250
Q

What is causing an increase in hypo and epispadias?

A

Hormones taken during pregnancy, particularly estrogen

251
Q

Protrusion of abdominal contents through inguinal canal into scrotum

A

Inguinal hernia

252
Q

How is an inguinal hernia treated?

A

Surgery

253
Q

Fluid in scrotum

A

Hydrocele

254
Q

How is a hydrocele treated?

A

Surgery if spontaneous resolution does not occur within one year

255
Q

Narrowing or stenosis of perpetual opening of foreskin

A

Phimosis

256
Q

How is phimosis treated?

A

Manual retraction or circumcision

257
Q

Urethral opening located behind glans penis or anywhere along ventral surface of penile shaft

A

Hypospadias

258
Q

How is hypospadias treated?

A

Surgery

259
Q

Ventral curvature of penis, often associated with hypospadias

A

Chordee

260
Q

How is chord treated?

A

Surgical release of fibrous band cueing deformity

261
Q

Meatal opening located on dorsal side of penis

A

Epispadias

262
Q

How is epispadias treated?

A

Surgery

263
Q

Failure of one or both testes to descend normally through inguinal canal

A

Cryptochidism

264
Q

How is cryptochidism treated?

A

Administration of hcG or surgery

265
Q

Eversion of posterior bladder though anterior bladder wall and lower abdominal wall

A

Exstrophy of pladder

266
Q

How is exstrophy of bladder treated?

A

Surgery

267
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of nephrotic syndrome?

A

Proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, hyperlipidemia, edema, massive urinary protein loss and increased blood pressure

268
Q

What is the hallmark of nephrotic syndrome?

A

Proteinuria

269
Q

What is the pathophysiology of nephrotic syndrome?

A

The glomerular membrane becomes permeable to proteins, causing a fluid shift from the plasma to the interstitial spaces

270
Q

How is nephrotic syndrome managed?

A

Reduce the excretion of proteins and the fluid retention in the tissues

271
Q

What kind of diet does a patient with nephrotic syndrome need?

A

High protein and fluid restrictions

272
Q

What is the hallmark of glomerulonephritis?

A

Oliguria

273
Q

What infectious agent generally causes acute glomerulonephritis?

A

Streptococcus

274
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of glomerulonephritis?

A

Oliguria, edema, hypertension, hematuria, and proteinuria

275
Q

Where is edema seen in children with glomerulonephritis?

A

Eyes and face

276
Q

What drugs are used to treat nephrotic syndrome?

A

Steroids

277
Q

What kind of diet should a patient with glomerulonephritis have?

A

Low sodium and fluid restrictions

278
Q

How should the edema of glomerulonephritis be managed?

A

Daily weights, accurate input and output and daily abdominal girth measurements

279
Q

Endothelial lining of the small glomerular arterioles becomes swollen and occluded with deposits of platelets and fibrin clots, damaging the RBCs

A

Hemolytic-Uremic Syndrome

280
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of hemolytic-uremic syndrome?

A

Anemia, thrombocytopenia, renal failure

281
Q

How is hemolytic-uremic syndrome treated?

A

Dialysis, FFP, and plasmapheresis

282
Q

Malignant renal and intraabdominal tumor of childhood

A

Wilms’ tumor

283
Q

What causes a Wilms’ tumor?

A

Embryonic cell mass

284
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of a Wilms’ tumor?

A

Abdominal mass, hematuria, fatigue, malaise, hypertension, weight loss, and fever

285
Q

How is a Wilms’ tumor treated?

A

Surgery, chemo, and radiation

286
Q

What should nurses and doctors not do if a Wims’ tumor is suspected?

A

Palpate the abdomen

287
Q

Kidneys suddenly unable to regulate volume and composition of urine

A

Acute Renal Failure

288
Q

What is the principle feature of acute renal failure?

A

Oliguria

289
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of ARF?

A

Oliguria, azotemia, metabolic acidosis, and electrolyte disturbances

290
Q

How should the dehydration of ARF be treated?

A

Administer 10 mL every 10 minutes in a syringe

291
Q

What does ARF generally follow?

A

Illness and severe dehydration

292
Q

What laboratory measurements are taken to diagnosis ARF?

A

Creatinine and BUN

293
Q

How is ARF treated?

A

Treat the underlying cause

294
Q

What is the most dangerous complication of ARF?

A

Hyperkalemia

295
Q

How is hyperkalemia treated?

A

K-exalate

296
Q

How is anemia treated?

A

Erythropoetin

297
Q

What is the first sign of cardiac involvement in patients with ARF?

A

Loss of energy, then crackles in lungs

298
Q

Which type of dialysis is preferred in children?

A

Peritoneal

299
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Chronic Renal Failure?

A

Nephrons are being destroyed at a rapid rate

300
Q

How should CRF be managed?

A

Promote maximal renal function and maintain the fluid and electrolyte balance

301
Q

What should the diet of a CRF patient be?

A

Low in protein

302
Q

What can occur after dialysis?

A

Post dialysis disequilibrium syndrome

303
Q

What are the three branches of the endocrine system?

A

Pituitary, thyroid and adrenal

304
Q

What deficiency does hypopituitarism cause?

A

Growth hormone deficiency

305
Q

When should GH replacement be administered?

A

At night

306
Q

Why are x-rays so important in determining hypopituitarism treatment?

A

They determine if growth plate closure has occurred

307
Q

When is growth hormone replacement therapy ended?

A

When growth rates are less than one inch per year

308
Q

What does hyperpituitarism cause?

A

Giantism or acromegaly

309
Q

What features undergo overgrowth in patients with acromegaly?

A

Head, lips, tongue, jaw, nose, paranasal and mastoid sinuses, and teeth

310
Q

What could be the cause of hyperpituitarism?

A

Tumor on pituitary gland

311
Q

What is the treatment for hyperpituitarism?

A

Removal or radiation of gland and then lifetime hormonal replacement

312
Q

Sexual development before age 9 in boys or 8 in girls

A

Precocious Puberty

313
Q

How is precocious puberty treated?

A

Leuprolide to slow prepubertal growth to normal rates

314
Q

What is the prinicple disorder in the posterior pituitary gland?

A

Diabetes Insipidus

315
Q

What causes diabetes insipidus?

A

Hyposecretion of ADH

316
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of diabetes insipidus?

A

Uncontrolled diuresis, decreased energy, lethargy, stupor, polyuria, and polydipsia

317
Q

Why do children with diabetes insipidus dehydrate?

A

They can’t get to water or drinks when they are thirsty

318
Q

How is diabetes insipidus treated?

A

Hormone replacement and Vasopressin

319
Q

What causes SIADH?

A

Oversecretion of ADH by the posterior pituitary

320
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of SIADH?

A

Anorexia, nausea/vomiting, irritability, personality changes, fluid retention and hypotonicity

321
Q

What hormones does the thyroid gland secrete?

A

Thyroxin, Triiodothyronine, and Calcitonin

322
Q

How is SIADH managed?

A

I/Os, seizure precautions

323
Q

What kind of diet should a patient with SIADH have?

A

Low sodium

324
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of juvenile hypothyroidism?

A

Mental decline, constipation, sleepiness and myxedematous skin changes

325
Q

Why is juvenile hypothyroidism not common?

A

It usually results in a spontaneous miscarriage

326
Q

What is the treatment for juvenile hypothyroidism?

A

Oral thyroid replacement therapy

327
Q

When should oral thyroid meds be taken?

A

30 minutes before breakfast

328
Q

What is the sign of an overdose of thyroid medication?

A

Tachycardia

329
Q

Hypertrophy of the thyroid gland

A

Goiter

330
Q

What causes a congenital goiter?

A

Mother takes anti-thyroid meds during pregnancy

331
Q

Why is immediate surgery required in infants with goiters?

A

It could block the airway

332
Q

What are the signs of Hashimoto disease?

A

Symmetrically large, firm and movable thyroid gland

333
Q

How is Hashimoto disease treated?

A

Oral thyroid hormone replacement

334
Q

Why is surgery contraindicated in patients with Hashimoto disease?

A

Because it is usually self limiting

335
Q

What are the signs of Graves Disease?

A

Enlarged thyroid and exophthalmos

336
Q

What is the treatment of Graves Disease?

A

Anti-thryoid meds, subtotal thyroidectomy, or ablation with radioiodine

337
Q

What are the anti-thyroid meds?

A

Propylthiouracil and methimazole

338
Q

What is used to treat a thyroid crisis?

A

Propranolol

339
Q

What are the nursing interventions for kids with hyperthyroidism?

A

Quiet, calm environment with rest periods, increased metabolic needs

340
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of hypoparathyroidism?

A

Dry, scaly skin, brittle hair, thin nails, tetany, tingling, spasms, headache, seizures, moody, depression, confusion, and memory loss

341
Q

What can cause hyperparathyroidism?

A

Adenoma or chronic renal disease

342
Q

What is the heralding sign of hyperparathyroidism?

A

Constipation associated with hypercalcemia

343
Q

What are the three groups of steroids?

A

Glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and sex steroids

344
Q

What are the symptoms of acute adrenocoritcal insufficiency?

A

Irritability, headache, abdominal pain, hyperpyrexia, cyanosis, and seizures

345
Q

When do the symptoms of Addison disease display?

A

After 90% of the tissue is gone

346
Q

How is Addison disease treated?

A

Replacement of cortisol and aldosterone

347
Q

Why is treatment of Addison disease so difficult?

A

Dosing has to be adapted based on activity and circumstance

348
Q

What causes Cushing syndrome?

A

Excessive circulating free cortisol

349
Q

What is the Cushingold appearance?

A

Excessive hair growth, moon face, red cheeks, weight gain, pendulous abdomen, red striae, poor wound healing, and ecchymosis

350
Q

What is done to diagnosis Cushing syndrome?

A

Imaging or pituitary gland and sella turcica and measurement of bone density

351
Q

How is Cushing syndrome treated?

A

Surgery, then replacement of GH, ADH, TH, gonadotropins and steroids

352
Q

When should steroids be administered?

A

Early morning on alternative days with food

353
Q

What does congenital adrenal hyperplasia result in?

A

Ambiguous genitalia

354
Q

How is congenital adrenal hyperplasia treated?

A

Administer glucocorticoids and assign sex to the child

355
Q

Adrenal tumor that secretes catecholamines

A

Pheochromocytoma

356
Q

How is a pheochromocytoma diagnosed?

A

Hypertension, severe headache

357
Q

Total or partial deficiency of the hormone insulin

A

Diabetes mellitus

358
Q

What is the pathophysiology of DM?

A

The deficiency of insulin doesn’t allow glucose to enter the cell, so it remains in the blood, leading to hyperglycemia

359
Q

What is the pathophysiology of ketoacidosis?

A

Body breaks down alternate forms of energy because it can’t get to the glucose, lowing serum pH

360
Q

What does diabetic ketoacidosis result from?

A

Dehydration, electrolyte imbalance, acidosis, and coma

361
Q

What should a child’s glucose be?

A

<126 mg/dL

362
Q

What should a child’s A1c be?

A

<7%

363
Q

How is diabetes mellitus managed?

A

Nutrition, exercise, and insulin therapy

364
Q

What screening should diabetics routinely have?

A

Eye tests

365
Q

What can a child eat in a hypoglycemic crisis?

A

Peanut butter, cheese, crackers, skittles

366
Q

What are the early signs and symptoms of increased intracranial pressure?

A

Headache, diplopia, irritability, confusion, arching, neuro-cry, lethargy, inconsolable, photophobia, projectile vomiting, tense fontanels

367
Q

What are the three parts to the Glascow scale?

A

Eye opening, verbal response, motor response

368
Q

What reflexes indicated neurological health in an infant?

A

Moro, tonic neck, and withdrawal reflexes

369
Q

At what Glascow level does the airway need protection?

A

8

370
Q

What vital signs are altered with increasing pain?

A

Heart rate, respiratory rate, and blood pressure are increased, oxygen saturation is decreased

371
Q

Paralytic to make ventilation easier

A

Vecuronium

372
Q

What is the antidote for Fentanyl?

A

Narcan

373
Q

What is the antidote for Midazolam?

A

Romazacon

374
Q

How should a comatose child be positioned?

A

High head of bed with no flexion in the neck or hip

375
Q

How long does cerebral hypoxia have to last to cause permanent brain damage?

A

4 minutes

376
Q

Why is CO2 retention bad?

A

It causes vasodilation, increased cerebral blood flow and increased ICP

377
Q

How are increased levels of CO2 treated?

A

Bag the patient down

378
Q

Why is the risk of aspiration increased in a comatose child?

A

The gag and cough reflexes are minimal

379
Q

What are the nursing considerations for patient with increased ICP?

A

Avoid neck vein compression, elevate head of bed, eliminate or minimize environmental noise

380
Q

What kind of nutritious state impedes wound healing?

A

Negative nitrogen balance

381
Q

How can a negative nitrogen balance be avoided?

A

IV administration of fluids and parenteral nutrition

382
Q

What medications are used to treat increased ICP?

A

Corticosteroids, sedatives, and paralytic agents

383
Q

How should increased ICP be managed?

A

Thermoregulation, stimulation

384
Q

What kind of elimination problems do patients with increased ICP have?

A

Constipation

385
Q

Why should patients with increased ICP be cooled?

A

To decrease oxygen and metabolic need

386
Q

Head injury with short period of unconsciousness, followed by activity

A

Epidural hematoma

387
Q

Head injury with no loss of consciousness

A

Subdural hematoma

388
Q

What kind of bleed is associated with an epidural hematoma?

A

Quickly accumulating arterial lead

389
Q

What kind of bleed is associated with a subdural hematoma?

A

Venous leak

390
Q

When does a subdural hematoma become evident?

A

7-10 days after the initial injury

391
Q

A transient and reversible alteration in neurologic or cognitive function with or without loss of consciousness resulting from trauma to the head

A

Concussion

392
Q

What follows a concussion?

A

Amnesia and confusion

393
Q

Visible bruising

A

Contusion

394
Q

Tearing of tissue

A

Laceration

395
Q

Bruising at the point of impact

A

Coup

396
Q

Bruising at a site far removed from the point of impact

A

Contrecoup

397
Q

Which type of skull fracture is associated with raccoon eyes?

A

Basilar

398
Q

What is included in post concussion syndrome?

A

Seizures, hydrocephalus, amnesia, and learning disabilities

399
Q

What needs to be frequently assessed for patients with head trauma?

A

Vital signs, neurologic status, and LOC

400
Q

What is the pathophysiology of drowning?

A

Hypoxia, aspiration, and hypothermia

401
Q

What are the common presenting symptoms of a brain tumor?

A

Headache, ataxia, neuro-cry, projectile vomiting, and inconsolability

402
Q

Most common malignant extra cranial solid tumor of childhood, developing in the adrenal gland or retroperitoneal sympathetic chain

A

Neuroblastoma

403
Q

What is the priority in treating a neuroblastoma?

A

Locate primary site and sites of metastasis

404
Q

How is a neuroblastoma treated?

A

Surgery, radiation, chemo, bone marrow transplant and stem cell rescue

405
Q

Which vaccine prevents bacterial meningitis?

A

Hib

406
Q

What precautions are required for patients with bacterial meningitis?

A

Droplet

407
Q

When does bacterial meningitis generally occur?

A

Late winter and early spring

408
Q

How is bacterial meningitis managed?

A

Isolation precautions, antimicrobial therapy, hydration restriction, control of temperature

409
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of nonbacterial meningitis?

A

Headache, fever, and malaise

410
Q

How is nonbacterial meningitis treated?

A

Symptomatic management

411
Q

What are the vectors for encephalitis in the US?

A

Mosquitoes and ticks

412
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of encephalitis?

A

Malaise, fever, headache, dizziness, stiff neck, nausea/vomiting, ataxia, speech difficulties

413
Q

How is rabies treated?

A

Vaccine, globulins, though cleansing of the wound

414
Q

Toxic encephalopathy associated with other characteristic organ involvement, particularly the liver

A

Reye’s Syndrome

415
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of Reye’s syndrome?

A

Fever, profoundly impaired consciousness, and disordered hepatic function

416
Q

What do most causes of Reye’s syndrome follow?

A

Viral illnesses, like chicken pox

417
Q

How is Reye’s syndrome diagnosed?

A

Liver enzymes

418
Q

Two or more unprovoked seizures

A

Epilepsy

419
Q

How are seizure disorders managed?

A

Drug therapy, ketogenic diet, vagus nerve stimulation, and surgical therapy

420
Q

When should the anterior fontanel close?

A

18 months

421
Q

When should the posterior fontanel close?

A

2 months

422
Q

What is the treatment for hydrocephalus?

A

Ventriculoperitoneal shunt

423
Q

A group of permanent disorders of the development of movement and postures, causing activity limitations that are attributed to non progressive disturbances that occurred in the enveloping fetal or infant brain

A

Cerebral Palsy

424
Q

What are the signs of Cerebral Palsy?

A

Delayed gross motor development, alterations in muscle tone, abnormal postures, and hyperreflexes

425
Q

What toxin can be injected for treatment of Cerebral Palsy?

A

Botulinum toxin A

426
Q

When do neural tube defect occur?

A

3-4 weeks after conception

427
Q

What causes neural tube defects?

A

Folic acid

428
Q

What specific type of allergy occurs with neural tube defects?

A

Latex

429
Q

Which muscular atrophy is called “floppy infant syndrome”?

A

Werdnig-Hoffmann disease (Type 1)

430
Q

What does Type 1 Muscular Atrophy look like?

A

Frog position, weak cry, cough, generalized weakness

431
Q

Where do patients with Type 1 Muscular Atrophy have active movement?

A

Fingers and toes

432
Q

Muscle weakness and atrophy, with decreasing ability to ambulate

A

Kugelberg-Welander disease

433
Q

Progressive muscle weakness, wasting and contractors with hypertrophic calf muscles

A

Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy

434
Q

What do patients with Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy die from?

A

Cardia or respiratory failure

435
Q

What are the signs of Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy?

A

Waddling gait, frequent falls, Gower sign, Lordosis, enlarged thigh and upper arm muscles, and mild to moderate mental impairment

436
Q

How is Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy treated?

A

Range of Motion, bracing, ADLs

437
Q

How is Guillain-Barre syndrome treated?

A

Support, airway management, steroids, IVGG, plasmapheresis

438
Q

What kind of diet should a patient with Guillain-Barre syndrome have?

A

High protein

439
Q

How often should patients receive the tetanus vaccine?

A

Every 10 years

440
Q

How does the exotoxin Clostridium tetani enter a human?

A

Through a wound, especially puncture or crush wound or burn

441
Q

What is the heralding sign of tetanus?

A

Muscle stiffness, especially in face, head, and neck

442
Q

What is the incubation period for tetanus?

A

3-8 days

443
Q

How is tetanus treated?

A

Vaccine, IVGG, fluid and electrolyte monitoring, Pavulon

444
Q

What does Pavulon do?

A

Relaxes muscles

445
Q

How do infants get botulism?

A

Honey

446
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of botulism?

A

Weakness, dizziness, headache, diplopia, speech difficulties, vomiting, progressive, life-threatening respiratory paralysis

447
Q

How is botulism treated?

A

IVGG

448
Q

How should spinal cord injuries be treated?

A

Immobilization

449
Q

What kind of shunt is present in cyanotic defects?

A

Right to left

450
Q

What kind of shunt is present in acyanotic defects?

A

Left to right

451
Q

What kind of heart defect makes itself known first?

A

Cyanotic

452
Q

How are heart defects noticed in children?

A

They sound like murmurs

453
Q

How are heart defects diagnosed in children?

A

Echo, EKG, Cardiac Cath, and Chest X-ray

454
Q

What are the general signs of cardiovascular dysfunction in children?

A

Poor feeding, tachypnea, tachycardia, activity intolerance, developmental delays

455
Q

Where should the blood pressures of a child with cardiovascular problems be taken?

A

All four extremities

456
Q

What laboratory tests should be taken in children with cardiovascular dysfunction?

A

Creatinine and BUN

457
Q

After cardiac procedures, what needs to be monitored?

A

Vital signs, fluid intake, and pulses

458
Q

What are the acyanotic defects?

A

Atrial septal defect, ventricular septal defect, and patent ductus arteriosus

459
Q

What are the cyanotic defects?

A

Obstruction of pulmonary blood flow, Tetralogy of Fallot, and Tricuspid atresia

460
Q

Why does CHF occur in children?

A

Structural abnormalities

461
Q

How is CHF treated?

A

Improve cardiac function, remove excess fluid and sodium, decrease cardiac demand and improve tissue oxygenation

462
Q

How can cardiac demand be decreased in infants and children?

A

Lots of rest, no crying, help them to feed

463
Q

Condition in which arterial oxygen tension is less than normal

A

Hypoxemia

464
Q

What are the nursing considerations for children with hypoxemia?

A

Prepare patient and family for invasive procedures

465
Q

How is bacterial endocarditis prevented?

A

Prophylaxis treatment 1 hour before procedures

466
Q

What disease does rheumatic fever follow?

A

Strep throat

467
Q

What does rheumatic heart disease affect?

A

Joints, skin, brain, serous surfaces, and heart

468
Q

How is rheumatic heart disease treated?

A

Penicillin, prednison, and aspirin

469
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of pulmonary artery hypertension?

A

Dyspnea with exertion, chest pain, and syncope

470
Q

Abnormalities of the myocardium in which the ability of the muscle to contract is impaired

A

Cardiomyopathy

471
Q

What is the most common cause of cardiomyopathy?

A

Post viral illness

472
Q

Total heart replacement

A

Orthotopic transplantation

473
Q

Piggyback heart replacement

A

Heterotopic transplantation

474
Q

What generally causes hypertension in children?

A

Renal disease, cardiovascular disease, or endocrine or neurologic disorders

475
Q

What are the signs of Kawasaki Disease?

A

Fever, desquamation of the palms and soles, bilateral conjunctival inflammation, strawberry tongue, polymorphous rash, and cervical lymphadenopathy

476
Q

How does Kawasaki Disease affect the cardiac system?

A

It causes coronary artery aneurysms to develop

477
Q

How is Kawasaki Disease treated?

A

IVGG and aspirin

478
Q

What are the early signs of shock?

A

Apprehension, irritability, narrowing pulse pressure, thirst, pallor, diminished urinary output, unexplained mild tachycardia, and decreased perfusion of the hands and feet

479
Q

What is the nursing role for a patient in shock?

A

Maintain airway, restore fluid volume, and administer vasopressors while keeping child flat with legs raise, calm, and warm

480
Q

What are the causes of childhood anemia?

A

Depletion of RBCs or Hgb or both

481
Q

What are the effects of anemia on the circulatory system?

A

Hemodilution, decreased peripheral resistance, increased turbulence, cyanosis, and growth retardation

482
Q

How is anemia treated?

A

IV fluids, oxygen therapy, and bed rest

483
Q

How can iron deficiency anemia be prevented in children?

A

Iron-Fortified cereals and formulas

484
Q

What are the side effects of iron supplements?

A

Constipation

485
Q

How should iron supplements be given?

A

Through a straw and with orange juice

486
Q

What causes sickle cell anemia?

A

Sickled RBCs

487
Q

Why is sickle cell anemia dangerous?

A

Sickled RBCs can’t flow through vasculature

488
Q

How can sickle cell crises be prevented?

A

Adequate hydration

489
Q

When a child is in a sickle cell crisis, what is the nursing intervention?

A

Hydrate and pain relief

490
Q

How is sickle cell disease monitored?

A

Reticulocyte counts

491
Q

Why are vaccines so important for children with sickle cell?

A

They reduce infections that can lead to crises

492
Q

How can RBC synthesis be stimulated?

A

Folic acid

493
Q

Deficiencies in the rate of production of glob in chains in the Hgb

A

Thalassemia

494
Q

What is there an abundance of in the bone marrow of patients with thalassemia?

A

Erythrocytes

495
Q

What do patients with thalassemia present with?

A

Severe anemia and growth failure

496
Q

How is thalassemia treated?

A

Blood transfusion

497
Q

What is the complication of blood transfusion?

A

Hemosiderosis

498
Q

What is hemosiderosis?

A

Iron overload

499
Q

How is hemosiderosis treated?

A

Iron-chelating drugs like deferoxamine

500
Q

What is the side effect of deferoxamine?

A

Excess urination

501
Q

What are the signs of aplastic anemia?

A

Profound anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia

502
Q

How is aplastic anemia treated?

A

Immunosuppressive therapy or bone marrow transplant

503
Q

What is the nursing care for patients with aplastic anemia?

A

Neutropenic precautions

504
Q

What clotting factor is deficient in hemophilia type A?

A

Factor 8

505
Q

What clot tin factor is deficient in hemophilia type B?

A

Factor 9

506
Q

Where does bleeding occur in pediatric hemophiliacs?

A

Into the joints

507
Q

What is the treatment for hemophilia?

A

Replacement therapy, desmopressin, and aminocaproic acid

508
Q

What does aminocaproic acid do?

A

Prevents clot destruction

509
Q

How can the bleeding of a hemophiliac be controlled?

A

RICE

510
Q

How is ITP treated?

A

It is usually self-limiting, but treated with IVIG and Anti-D antibodies

511
Q

What does ITP generally follow?

A

Upper respiratory or other infection

512
Q

What are the characteristics of ITP?

A

Thrombocytopenia, purpura, and normal bone marrow

513
Q

What pathological processes are affected in DIC?

A

Hypoxia, acidosis, shock, and endothelial damage

514
Q

What is the pathophysiology of DIC?

A

Excessive amount of thrombin are generated and fibrinogen is converted rapidly to fibrin; so there are lots of clots in the tissues but the good clots are rapidly destroyed by excess fibrin

515
Q

How is DIC treated?

A

Platelet or FFP transfusion, IV heparin

516
Q

What kinds of diseases can severe or recurrent epistaxis indicate?

A

Leukemia, thrombocytopenia, or hemophilia

517
Q

What organs are most affected by leukemia?

A

Liver and spleen

518
Q

What leukemia is most common in childhood?

A

ALL

519
Q

What are the symptoms of leukemia?

A

Bruising, bleeding from nose and gums, fever

520
Q

Where can bone marrow aspirations be taken from?

A

Sternum

521
Q

Where do bone marrow biopsies have to be taken from?

A

Iliac crest

522
Q

Why is a lumbar puncture necessary for children with ALL?

A

To determine if the cancer has passed the blood brain barrier

523
Q

What are the complications of leukemia?

A

Myleosuppression, infection, hemorrhage, and anemia

524
Q

Where does Hodgkin’s Lymphoma metastasis to?

A

The spleen, liver, bone marrow, or lungs

525
Q

How is Hodgkin’s Lymphoma generally found?

A

On physical exam because it presents as a unilaterally enlarged lymph node

526
Q

How is Hodgkin’s Lymphoma treated?

A

Radiation and chemo

527
Q

Which type of lymphoma is worse?

A

Non-Hodgkins

528
Q

How is HIV managed in children?

A

Anti-virals

529
Q

A defect characterized by the absence of both humoral and cell mediated immunity

A

Severe Combine Immunodeficiency Diease

530
Q

What is Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome classified by?

A

Thrombocytopenia and eczema

531
Q

What is generally the first sign of a blood transfusion problem?

A

Increased temperature

532
Q

How is HSCT used to treat hematologic disorders?

A

As a rescue treatment

533
Q

What are the types of HSCT?

A

Allogenic or Autologous

534
Q

Removal of blood and the separation of blood into its components

A

Apheresis

535
Q

What types of vitamins do patients with CF need?

A

A, K, E, and D (fat soluble)

536
Q

What are the types of malnutrition?

A

Kwashiorkor and Marasmus

537
Q

Protein and energy malnutrition

A

Kwashiorkor

538
Q

General malnutrition of both calories and protein

A

Marasmus

539
Q

What are the signs of food intolerance?

A

Anaphylaxis, abdominal pain, diarrhea, cough, wheeze, and atopic dermatitis

540
Q

What are the causes of pediatric dehydration?

A

Insensible fluid loss, increased renal excretion, GI tract dysfunction, ketoacidosis, and burns

541
Q

Dehydration in which water and salt are lost in equal amounts

A

Isotonic

542
Q

Dehydration in which electrolyte deficit exceeds water deficit

A

Hypotonic

543
Q

Dehydration in which water loss exceeds electrolyte deficit

A

Hypertonic

544
Q

How is diarrhea managed?

A

I/Os and rehydration

545
Q

How soon is the meconium passed?

A

24-36 hours after birth

546
Q

If the meconium is not passed within 24-36 hours of birth, what could be the problem?

A

Intestinal atresia, stenosis, Hirschsprung disease, hypothyroidism, meconium plug or meconium ileus

547
Q

How is constipation treated?

A

Age appropriate dietary modifications

548
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Hirschsprung Disease?

A

Absence of ganglion cells in the intestine, causing fecal matter to build up

549
Q

What are the characteristics of Hirschsprung Disease?

A

Distended abdomen, feeding intolerance, delay in passage of meconium, ribbon-like stools

550
Q

How is Hirschsprung Disease treated?

A

Surgery

551
Q

What kind of diet should patients with Hirschsprung Disease have?

A

Low residue

552
Q

What is the primary cause of GERD?

A

Inappropriate relaxation of the LES

553
Q

What are the symptoms of GERD?

A

Vomiting, crying, arching back, weight loss

554
Q

What is the treatment for GERD?

A

Avoidance of foods and Nissan Fundoplication

555
Q

How should infants with GERD be fed and sleep?

A

Elevated 30 degrees

556
Q

What are the two most common intestinal parasites in the US?

A

Giardiasis and Pinworms

557
Q

What are pinworms treated with?

A

Flagyl and vermectum

558
Q

What is the diagnostic test for appendicitis?

A

McBurney’s point test

559
Q

What are the signs of appendicitis?

A

Radiating pain, inconsolability, vomiting, and anorexia

560
Q

What is the treatment for appendicitis?

A

Surgery

561
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Meckel Diverticulum?

A

Remnant of the fetal omphalmesenteric duct remains in the diverticulum

562
Q

What are the characteristics of Meckel Diverticulum?

A

Painless, bloody, “currant jelly” stools; shock, anemia, and pain

563
Q

What is the treatment for Meckel Diverticulum?

A

Surgery, correction of complications

564
Q

What is the nursing care for patients with Meckel Diverticulum?

A

Monitoring vital signs, recording blood lost in stools, IV fluid and NG tube

565
Q

What diseases are included in IBD?

A

Ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease

566
Q

What is the pathology of IBD?

A

Inflammation of the colon and rectum

567
Q

What are the characteristics of IBD?

A

Rectal bleeding, pain, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, growth delay, weight loss, rashes, joint pain

568
Q

How is IBD treated?

A

Symptomatic relief, salicylates, and long term steroids

569
Q

What is the nursing care for patients with IBD?

A

Maintain high protein, high calorie diet

570
Q

What is contraindicated in patients with appendicitis?

A

Laxatives, enemas, and heat

571
Q

What bacteria generally causes PUD?

A

H. pylori

572
Q

How is PUD treated?

A

Antacids, histamine receptor antagonists, PPIs, and an antibiotic (triple therapy)

573
Q

How is Hepatitis A transmitted?

A

Fecal-oral

574
Q

How is Hepatitis C transmitted?

A

Blood

575
Q

How is Hepatitis B transmitted?

A

Blood

576
Q

For which forms of hepatitis is IVIG recommended?

A

A and B

577
Q

What is the heralding sign of hepatitis?

A

Jaundice

578
Q

What is the most effective way to prevent the transmission of hepatitis?

A

Hand washing

579
Q

How is cirrhosis treated?

A

Liver transplant

580
Q

What is the pathophysiology of biliary atresia?

A

Bile duct fibrosis that eventually leads to ductal obstruction

581
Q

What are the characteristics of biliary atresia?

A

Jaundice, dark urine, light stools, hepatomegaly, distention, pruritus, growth failure

582
Q

How is biliary atresia treated?

A

Hepatic portoenterostomy (Kasai procedure)

583
Q

What is the nursing care for patients with biliary atresia?

A

Nutritional therapy and comfort measures

584
Q

When does a cleft lip or palate occur?

A

4-10 weeks of gestation

585
Q

What are the characteristics of a cleft lip or palate?

A

Poor feeding and inability to latch

586
Q

How are a cleft lip and palate treated?

A

Surgery

587
Q

What is the nursing care for a cleft lip?

A

Keep hands away from repair, protect skin integrity, cleanse site

588
Q

Why should formula never be left on a cleft lip surgical site?

A

It contains lots of sugar which feeds bacteria

589
Q

What is the nursing care for a cleft palate?

A

Avoid object in mouth, use a large, long nipple

590
Q

How should a baby with a cleft palate be fed?

A

Slowly, with often bur pings, in an upright position

591
Q

At what age is a cleft lip surgical repair performed?

A

2-3 months

592
Q

At what age is a cleft palate surgical repair performed?

A

6-12 months

593
Q

What is the pathophysiology of TEF?

A

Esophagus is not a continuous passage

594
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of TEF?

A

Excessive salivation and drooling, coughing, choking, and cyanosis

595
Q

How is TEF treated?

A

Surgery

596
Q

What is the nursing care for a patient with TEF?

A

Maintenance of a patent airway, prevention of aspiration, and frequent suctioning

597
Q

Protrusion of a portion of an organ through an abnormal opening

A

Hernia

598
Q

What is the most dangerous hernia?

A

Strangulated inguinal hernia

599
Q

What are the characteristics of hernias?

A

Dysphagia, poor feeding, FTT, vomiting, and neck contortions

600
Q

What is the treatment for a hernia?

A

Surgical reduction and repair

601
Q

What is the nursing care for infants with hernias?

A

Monitor CV and respiratory status, cluster care, and maintain NG suction, oxygen and IV fluids

602
Q

What is the pathophysiology of pyloric stenosis?

A

Thickening of pylorus muscle due to hypertrophy and hyperplasia

603
Q

What are the characteristics of pyloric stenosis?

A

Olive-like mass, projectile vomiting, peristaltic waves, and fluid and electrolyte imbalance

604
Q

What is the treatment of pyloric stenosis?

A

Pyloromyotomy

605
Q

What is the nursing care for pyloric stenosis?

A

NPO with IV fluids of dextrose and electrolyte replacement, daily weights

606
Q

What is the pathophysiology of intussusception?

A

Bowel invagination, causing ischemia and pouring of mucus into the intestines

607
Q

What are the characteristics of intussusception?

A

Abdominal pain, abdominal mass, and bloody “currant jelly” stools

608
Q

How is intussusception treated?

A

Pneumoenema or surgical intervention

609
Q

What is the nursing care for a patients with intussusception?

A

Monitor stools, administer pneumoenema, maintain NPO

610
Q

Abnormal rotation of intestine around superior mesenteric artery during embryologic development

A

Malrotation

611
Q

Twisting of intestine around itself, thereby compromising blood supply to the intestines

A

Volvulus

612
Q

What complications are associated with malrotation and volvulus?

A

Necrosis, peritonitis, perforation and death

613
Q

What is the nursing care for patients with anorectal malformations?

A

Axillary temps only

614
Q

What are the characteristics of malabsorption syndromes?

A

Chronic diarrhea and malabsorption or nutrients possibly resulting in failure to thrive

615
Q

What are patients with celiac disease sensitive to?

A

Gluten

616
Q

What are the characteristics of celiac disease?

A

Steatorrhea, general malnutrition, abdominal distention, and secondary vitamin deficiencies

617
Q

What are the causes of short bowel syndrome?

A

Necrotizing enterocolitis and gastroschisis

618
Q

What are the characteristics of gastroschisis?

A

No peritoneal sac covers the exposed bowel

619
Q

What are the characteristics of gastroschisis?

A

Intestines stick through umbilicus

620
Q

What is the treatment of gastroschisis?

A

Surgical repair

621
Q

What is the nursing care for patients with gastroschisis?

A

Keep sac covered, maintain thermoregulation, antibiotics, check for lower extremity pulses and bowel sounds after surgery

622
Q

How do children inject lead?

A

Paints, soils, and batteries

623
Q

How is lead poisoning treated?

A

Chelation therapy (Calcium EDTA), Ipecac

624
Q

When is calcium EDTA contraindicated for lead poisoning?

A

When there is inadequate kidney perfusion