Pediatrics Flashcards

1
Q

Acid-base disturbance and electrolytes in pyloric stenosis?

A

hyponatremic hypokalemic hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis

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2
Q

Management goal in single ventricle physiology like hypoplastic left heart syndrome?

A

Balanced circulation between pulmonary and systemic sides (Qp:Qs=1)

These patients need higher pulmonary vascular resistance to “squeeze” circulation to systemic side via PDA – this is why they are maintained at lower oxygen saturations because they rely on hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction (as well as probably hypercarbic pulmonary vasoconstriction).

Also anything that increases systemic vascular resistance will make things worse because pulmonary “squeeze”through PDA will be ineffective.

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3
Q

Associated defects with tetralogy of Fallot?

A

PROVe:
pulmonary stenosis
RVH
overarching aorta
VSD

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4
Q

Goals of anesthetic management in TOF?

A

maintain SVR & reduce HR and contractility: think same as HOCM
-plus-
normocarbia
adequate oxygenation

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5
Q

Drug that keeps the ductus arteriosus open? drug that closes the ductus arteriosus?

A

Prostaglandin E1 keeps it oPen; in”door”methacin closes the “door”

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6
Q

Common side effect of prostaglandin E1 (PGE1)?

A

APNEA, CNS irritability, hypotension and fevers.

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7
Q

Infant diaphragms have a higher percentage of type I or type II muscle fibers?

A

Type II fast-twitch muscle fibers making them more prone to respiratory fatigue

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8
Q

The most common syndromes associated with Pierre Robin sequence?

A

Stickler

Velocardiofacial

Treacher-Collins

fetal alcohol syndrome

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9
Q

Classic triad of congenital diaphragmatic hernias?

A

dyspnea, cyanosis and dextrocardia

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10
Q

Key points to the anesthetic management of newborns with congenital diaphragmatic hernia?

A

permissive hypercapnia to avoid volutrauma – lung injury can increase inflammatory mediators and lead to pulmonary vasoconstriction (more than the likelihood of mildly increased PaCO2 causing PHTN)

AVOID:

  • pulmonary hypertension
  • hypothermia
  • venous access in LE’s because the inferior vena cava may become compressed after the reduction of the hernia
  • nitrous oxide as it can diffuse into the viscera residing within the thoracic field causing further lung compression
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11
Q

thumbprint sign is associated with?

A

acute epiglottitis (as seen on lateral radiograph)

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12
Q

Steeple sign is associated with?

A

Laryngotracheobronchitis (croup) - seen on frontal radiograph - indicates tracheal mucosal edema causing tracheal narrowing

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13
Q

Best initial treatment for hypotension in the euvolemic neonate?

A

Atropine for three reasons:

cardiac output is determined primarily by HR

Cardiac myocytes are relatively insensitive to catecholamines

neonatal myocytes have poor lusitropy and cannot respond with increased stroke volume to increased preload (volume bolus)

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14
Q

How does PGE2 affect ductal patency?

A

Maintains ductal patency in utero

A decrease in PGE2 plus oxygenated blood closes ductus arteriosus after birth

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15
Q

neonatal PaO2 5 minutes after birth? 1 hour after birth? and PaO2 in utero?

A

5 minutes: 35-40 mmHg

1 hour: 60-65 mmHg

in utero: 20 mmHg

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16
Q

Risk factors for postop respiratory events following adenotonsillecomy?

A

age < 2

apnea-hypopnea index greater than 10

BMI greater than 95 percentile

history of craniofascial syndromes (Down’s)

comorbid conditions (mod to severe asthma, congenital heart disease)

17
Q

Risk factors for retinopathy of prematurity?

A

prematurity

low birth weight

LOW serum IGF-1

hyperoxia

HIGH neonatal glucose

(Thought to be caused by the disorganized growth of retinal blood vessels)

18
Q

When is the risk for post-tonsillectomy hemorrhage the greatest?

A

75% within first 6 hours

25% within first 24 hours

19
Q

Pathogen usually responsible for epiglottitis?

A

vaccinated: polymicrobial including staph, strep pyogenes, strep pneumoniae, and NON-typeable haemophilus

non-vaccinated: haemophilus influenza type b (Hib)

20
Q

Klippel-Feil Syndrome and its common associations?

A

congenital fusion of cervical spine, low hairline, and short neck

difficult intubation

commonly associated with scoliosis, strabismus and scapular defects

21
Q

When does surfactant production begin? by which pneumocytes?

A

Week 32; type II pneumocytes

22
Q

lecithin and sphingomyelin ratio in early pregnancy?

A

lecithin does not begin to be secreted by the developing fetal lung until 24-26 weeks

23
Q

lecithin and sphingomyelin ratio at 32 weeks?

A

approximately equal amounts

24
Q

lecithin and sphingomyelin ratio at lung maturity?

A

L/S ratio > 2 or more

In diabetic mothers, L/S ratio should be > 3.5

25
Q

When is jaundice considered phsyiologic after birth?

A

first 12-48 hours

26
Q

When does breast milk jaundice occur after birth?

A

around day 4-7

27
Q

When is jaundice considered pathologic after birth?

A

persists beyond 10 days with total bili > 12 and direct bili > 2.

28
Q

Croup management of westley score <2

A

steroids then home with 24h follow up

29
Q

Croup management of westley score 3-7

A

humidified air/oxygen

steroids

racemic ep

then observe 3-4 hours

recurrence of symptoms -→ admit and rpt racemic epi

improvement -→ home with 24 hour follow up

30
Q

Croup management of westley score 8-11

A

humidified air/oxygen

steroids

racemic epi

poor response -→ admit

good response -→ observe 3-4 hours

recurrence of symptoms -→ admit and rpt racemic epi

improvement -→ home with 24 hour follow up

31
Q

Croup management of westley score >12

A

racemic epi

steroids

intubate

32
Q

highest odds ratio for successful extubation in peds patient aged 0 to 7 years?

A

in following order:

eye opening

tidal volume > 5 mL/kg

purposeful movement

conjugate gaze

facial grimace

(the more factors present, incrementally improves likelihood of a successful, uneventful awake extubation