Pediatric Voiding Dysfunction Flashcards

1
Q

What tests would you order on a 6 yo with spina bifida (s/p back closure as baby, L5 myelomeningocele) who presents with worsening urinary incontinence, urgency, and recurrent UTI?

A

RBUS
VCUG
UDS
MRI spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What would be your main dx for 6 yo with spina bifida (s/p back closure as baby, L5 myelomeningocele) who presents with worsening urinary incontinence, urgency, and recurrent UTI?

UDS shows small capacity bladder with intact sensation, poor compliance, uninhibited contractions, high DLPP, VUR

A

Tethered cord (MRI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is normal bladder capacity for a child?

A

Normal bladder capacity = (age +2) x 30 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is DLPP and what is the upper threshold?

A

Detrusor leak point pressure – leakage in absence of valsalva or contraction

The detrusor leak point pressure (DLPP) is a measure of the pressure at which the detrusor muscle in the bladder begins to leak urine during the filling phase of the bladder.

The DLPP is measured during urodynamic testing, a diagnostic test used to evaluate bladder function. During the test, a catheter is inserted into the bladder and the bladder is filled with fluid. The pressure in the bladder is measured at various points, including when the detrusor muscle begins to leak urine. The DLPP is the pressure at which this leakage occurs.

sign of poor compliance

>40 cm H20 causes renal damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Initial treatment for child with detrusor hyperreflexia, poor compliance, VUR, DLPP > 40 cm H20? Without tethered cord.

A

CIC + AC drug
CaP for VUR
Bowel regimen
Regular f/up UA, UCx, Renal US, Cr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What would be next steps for progression of bladder hostility, pyelonephritis, worsening hydro, or renal function loss?

A

Augmentation (+ reimplant if VUR)
Mitrofanoff, considered in boys
MACE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In a boy with spina bifida and UI (L4 myelomeningocele), what is initial workup of worsening or uncontrolled leakage?

A

RBUS
VCUG
UDS
+/- MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In a boy with spina bifida and UI (L4 myelomeningocele), RBUS demonstrates L hydro with loss of parenchyma, VCUG demonstrates Grade IV/V L VUR, bladder neck open, what testing would be indicated to assess kidneys?

A

DMSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In a boy with spina bifida and UI (L4 myelomeningocele), RBUS demonstrates L hydro with loss of parenchyma, VCUG demonstrates Grade IV/V L VUR, bladder neck open, DMSA demonstrates 65%/35%, L/R.

UDS shows:

small capacity, overactive bladder (DO 30 cm H20, SUI, elevated PVR)

First tx options? If failed first options?

A

First options: CIC + AC, CaP for VUR

Failed non-invasive:

  1. Autoaugmentation with ureteral reimplant and bladder neck sling
  2. Augmentation enterocystoplasty (stomach, ileum, colon) with transvesical ureteral reimplant and sling (autologous or cadaveric vs. AUS)
  3. Continent vesicostomy (Mitrofanoff with bladder neck closure) + MACE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Complications and management of bladder augmentation:

A
  1. Autoaugmentation (detrusor myotomy):
    1. Damage to urothelium → repair 4-0 chromic
    2. Persistent bladder leak → continued urethral catheter
  2. Augmentation enterocystoplasty
    1. Contraction with incontinence → AC
    2. Mucus → flush
    3. Hematuria/dysuria syndrome → stomach only, H2 blocker, HCO3
    4. Stones → irrigation, extraction
    5. Spontaneous perforation → peritonitis and death (5-10%), first cath drainage, operate based on clinical suspicion (cystogram can be FN)
    6. Metabolic acidosis → stomach/colon, can lead to osteoporosis → tx oral NaHCO3 or Na/K Citrate
    7. Metabolic alkalosis → stomach, H2 blocker
    8. Malignancy → adenocarcinoma of bowel, or UC bladder, if new blood in urine or recurrent UTI do cysto, B12 deficiency (terminal ileum), pernicious anemia/neuropathy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

In patient with lethargy, fever, and VP shunt, what should be done?

A

Consult NSG to r/o shunt failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe open cystolithotomy on augmented bladder:

A
  1. prep and drape
  2. place foley
  3. lower midline incision
  4. place ring retractor
  5. incise detrusor
  6. avoid bowel portion of bladder
  7. remove stones
  8. close incision in layers
  9. leave SPT, Foley, drain

Increase interval of CIC and consider irrigation regimen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are treatment options for 21 yo M with hx of L1 myelomeningocele with UDS demonstrating normal capacity and compliance, SUI but not UUI?

A
  1. Periurethral bulking (success low)
  2. Male sling (may need to CIC after)
  3. Leadbetter trigonal tubularization
  4. Tanagho bladder neck tubularization
  5. Kropp anterior bladder tube implantation
  6. AUS (revision 5-7 y)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe AUS:

A
  1. Dorsal lithotomy
  2. Inguinal incision for pressure reservoir (61-70 H2O used for bulbar urethra)
  3. Perineal incision for cuff placement → measure urethral circumference (4.5 cm common in bulbar urethra)
  4. Connect tubing
  5. Cycle the sphincter
  6. Lock the cuff in open position
  7. Leave foley overnight
  8. Activate at 6 weeks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

If a patient has an AUS and develops hydronephrosis, worsening renal function, what is first step? What diagnostic testing is necesary?

A

First step it to ensure sphincter is working and deactivate it with cuff in open state, catheter to check PVR

US (done as mentioned in stem) VCUG ( to assess for VUR)

Need UDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is ddx of 15 yo M with enuresis and neurologic findings (decreased DTR, decreased rectal tone), not previously dx with any congenital issues? What tests should be ordered?

A

tethered cord
spinal dysraphism

Order: RBUS, KUB, VCUG, UDS, MRI spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are treatment options for 15 yo M with tethered cord and small capacity, overactive bladder with high DLPP and no SUI?

A
  1. Anticholinergics
  2. Timed voiding
  3. Bowel regimen
  4. CIC
  5. NSG for cord de-tethering
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What surveillance is utilized for spina bifida patient with or without surgical intervention?

A

Yearly RBUS, Cr (cystatin C)

changes in sxs: UDS

UTIs/blood: cysto

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

If medication and cord de-tethering do not work for a poorly compliant, small bladder patient with incontinence, what are next steps?

A

Bladder autoaugmentation or enterocystoplasty

may need CIC

consider continent catheterizable channel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

First goal of pediatric NGB management in babies with spinal dysraphism? What tests are done?

A

protect the kidneys from high bladder pressures and incomplete emptying
ID newborns at risk of renal damage

GET RBUS in first few days of life
* can consider contrast enhanced US

Look for:
hydronephrosis, parenchymal anomalies, bladder appearance

Consider VCUG (once patients can lie on back, once defect closed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What workup should a baby with spinal dysraphism have in the early months after discharge from the hospital?

A

Urodynamics and a repeat renal bladder ultrasound are typically obtained around 2-4 months of age.

It is important to highlight that there are no reference values for bladder dynamics this early in life.

Several urodynamic findings have been associated with risk of UTI and kidney scarring including bladder trabeculations, VUR, high storage pressures evidenced by end fill pressure or detrusor leak point pressure > 40 cm H2O, and detrusor sphincter dyssynergia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Initial CIC determination in infants is utilized until first UDS based on which factors?

A

consistently high bladder pressures or high residuals
trabeculated bladder
high grade VUR
high grade hydronephrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A 2-4 month old with urodynamics that is LOW risk for upper tract damage will have these features

A

A patient who is very low risk for upper tract damage on urodynamics will have

  • a smooth walled bladder without VUR
  • low bladder residuals
  • low leak point pressures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

For a baby’s first urodynamics, urodynamic findings have been associated with risk of UTI and kidney scarring include:

A

Bladder trabeculations

VUR

High storage pressures evidenced by end fill pressure or detrusor leak point pressure > 40 cm H2O

Detrusor sphincter dyssynergia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How do you decide if you should initiate CIC in a 2-4 month old?

A

If on urodynamics at 3 months, there is high end fill or detrusor leak point pressures (> 40 cm H2O), evidence of detrusor sphincter dyssynergia, or grade 5 VUR

in addition to q4h CIC, protocol can start patients on Oxybutynin 0.2 mg/kg TID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Spina bifida follow up in the first year of life

A

clinic visit with assessment for any interim UTIs and renal bladder ultrasound every 3-4 months,

with urodynamics often repeated around 1 year of age or sooner if clinically needed

After the 1st year of life, follow up visits are typically spaced out to every 6-12 months. The need for routine urodynamics after the 1st year of life is unclear. Some centers recommend a baseline DMSA scan to establish the presence of renal scars as these scars correlate well with development of hypertension. However, in patients with normal ultrasounds who do not have a history of UTIs, VUR, or trabeculated bladder the utility of routine DMSA scan is of questionable utility as these patients are unlikely to have any DMSA abnormalities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What do you do for a “high risk” bladder in infancy and childhood?

A

Approximately 30% of children with spina bifida will have a high risk bladder.

A patient with a trabeculated bladder with VUR and high storage pressures has a very high risk of developing UTIs and renal damage.

Starting CIC and anticholinergics in these patients may prevent UTIs and renal damage.

The anticholinergic most commonly used is oxybutynin, 5mg/5mL elixir 0.2 mg/kg BID-QID.

All anticholinergics are off-label in neonates and children.

Early initiation of medical treatment has shown lower rates of renal function deterioration and need for bladder augmentation.

Side effects may limit dose adjustments. This can be reduced with intravesical use of anticholinergics. Intravesical oxybutynin can be dosed as 0.1 – 0.8 mg/kg TID. More recent literature supports the use of β3 agonists and has shown improvement in urodynamic parameters.

Overnight Foley catheter drainage can also be started to avoid high storage pressures by keeping the bladder empty all night as well as to help prevent UTIs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When do you consider vesicostomy?

A

In infants or young children with neurogenic bladder who have persistent UTIs or concern for upper tract deterioration, despite regular CIC, anticholinergics, and overnight catheter drainage, early and strong consideration for vesicostomy should be given.

A vesicostomy is very successful in protecting the kidneys from the bladder and CIC and anticholinergics can generally be stopped. Risks of vesicostomy include bladder prolapse and stomal stenosis. Eventually, the vesicostomy is typically taken down and a bladder augmentation with other reconstructive surgeries can be done at the same time as vesicostomy take down.

We typically recommend waiting until at least age 5 before considering taking down the vesicostomy and obtaining a urodynamic study prior to this to evaluate for persistent of VUR, bladder size, and bladder compliance.

Management of VUR with ureteral reimplantation has not shown any benefit and should rarely be considered. Because these patients typically have high outlet resistance, a bladder outlet procedure is generally not needed at time of vesicostomy take down and augmentation cystoplasty with resulting high continence rates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are major risk factors for spinal dysraphism (spina bifida)

A

extreme maternal age
family history
maternal diagestes
obesity
use of perinatal valproic acid or carbamazepine
folic acid deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the goals of pediatric neurogenic bladder management

A
  1. Protect the kidneys and prevent their deterioration resulting from high bladder pressures.
  2. Achieve continence.
  3. Achieve independence.
  4. Avoid reconstructive surgery if possible.
  5. Avoid or reduce frequency of symptomatic urinary tract infections.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What does anemia from renal insufficiency look like? Why does it happen?

A

microcytic
MCV value low/normal
reticulocyte low

low erythropoietin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

4 categories of reconstructive surgery in patients with spina bifida

A
  1. Protect the kidneys and prevent their deterioration resulting from high bladder pressures.
  2. Achieve continence.
  3. Achieve independence.
  4. Avoid reconstructive surgery if possible.
  5. Avoid or reduce frequency of symptomatic urinary tract infections.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is an appropriate dosing of botox for patient with spina bifida and NGB?

A

200-300 IU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

not medical prob incontinence

A
  1. pri mono-sx noct enuresis
  2. behavioral d/o or developmental delay
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

nl time for toilet trainingn time

A

3-3.5 yrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

def primary incontenence

A

never continent or continent > 6 mo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

def secondary incontenence

A

previously achieved continence - nuropathic or severe dysfunciton ultil proven otherwise
r/o traumatic events, abuse, dm, renal d/o

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

dysfunctional voiding def

A

active habitual contraction of urethral sphincter during voiding
observed by uroflow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

hinnman syndrome

A

non-neurogenic neurogenic bladder
severe dysfxn voididng- bladd changes like neurogenic bladder
silent upper tract changes
assd w emotional trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

post void leakage cause

A

vaginal reflux
urine trapped behind labia
small vol leaks 0-5 mins after standing to void
only aware they feel wet
can be radiographically impressive
tx - reposition on toilet, and blot vag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

SUI differential in kids

A

covered exstrophy
female epispadias (missed)
sacral agenisis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

enuresis risoria

A

giggle incontinence.
total loss of urine w/ intense emotion/ cataplexy.
Imbalance between cholinergic and monaminergic system
tx - methylphenidate (ritaline).
also have diurnal inctontenence - w/ and w/o laughter. Tx w/ std urge tx +/- anticholinergics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

why does leakage in ureteral ectopia decrease overnight in girls

A

urine pools in vagina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

ddx for u retention in peds

A
  1. constipation
  2. UTI
  3. bladder base tumor - RMS
  4. neurologic disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

myelomeningocele

A

5% void normally.
incomplete lesion –> cant predict voiding.
dynamics of bladder and sphincter can change over time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

caudal regression

A

can have either UMN or LMN disease.
bladder neck incompetence.
external sphincter fixed (upper tract problems).
renal anomalies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

conservative vs proactive medical mgmt of ngb

A

conservative - UT us –> intervene w CIC/meds if UT changes.
proactive - CMG risk dictates medical mgmt + renal us

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

concerning CMG findings for ut damage

A

> 40 cm h20 dlpp.
poor compliance.
neurogenic DO w/ DSD.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

surgical mgmt options for ngb

A
  1. cutaneous vesicostomy (poor uds w max medical tx in infant or noncompliant parent).
  2. definitive surgical (UT deterioration refractory to medical mgmt, desire for continence).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

urinary reconstruction for NGB

A
  1. enterocystoplasty 2. continent catheterizable channel 3. bladder outlet procedure, 4. +/- antireflux procedure (not done as often). +/- MACE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

long term complications of enterocystoplasty

A
  1. mucous, 2. acidosis, 3. B12 deficiency obvious others
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

metabolic problem with urinary stasis

A

myperchloremic metabolic acidosis is worsened. Aggravated by renal insuff, possible bone demineralization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

% risk of malig w augment

A

5%. No diff btw cic and enterocystoplasty, and cic alone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

highest risk of malignancy with augment

A

Highest risk in transplant, on immunosupression, and cic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

dx of rethethering of SC

A

clinical dx. Not seen on imaging. 1. _ functional status (gait, strength). 2. _ continence/voiding (tough to notice if already wet). 3. new back/leg pain. 4. increased/febrile UTI 5. _ routine upper tract imaging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

spinal dysraphism and imaging

A

all appear radiographically tethered. Looking for interval increase of syringomyelia or mass. And see if shunt has malfunctioned

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

suspect retethering for urologist

A
  1. verify CIC/ voididng/ meds 2. tx + urine culture, 3. bowel tuneup 4. cmg?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

suspect rethethering - uds signs

A
  1. any _ from prior, 2. _ contractility, inc voiding pressure, 3. _ compliance, 4. _ DLPP (outlet _)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

rethethering prognosis

A

some improvement, but return to baseline unlikely. Goal - 1. halt deterioration, manageable bladder. Amnt of improvement depends on duratino of change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

circumcision and peds UTI

A

uncircumcised 10x more likely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

host factors and peds UTI

A
  1. age/ gender, 2. periurethral colonization, 3. prepuce, 4. genetics/ bact adherence factors, 5. immune status, 6. anatomic anomaly, 7. pathologic flora
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

2011 aap uti guidelines - 1st febrile uti

A

2 mo- 2 yr - 1. cath specimen, 2. us @ acute phase, 3. vcug not required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

VUR general stuff

A

VUR is only improtant in the setting of UTI - “bad” kidneys have more at stake. Hi grade VUR is exception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

AUA VCUG 2010 guidelines

A
  1. general eval - ht, wt, bp, ua for protein/bacteria, 2. verify renal function - DMSA optional but rec for high grade, 3. followup us/cystogram @ 12-24 mo
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

AUA VCUG 2010 guidelines - prophylaxis

A
  1. < 1yoa, 2. prenatlly detected gr 3-5 3. bladder and bowel dysfunction.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

AUA VCUG 2010 guidelines - intervention

A

breakthrough febrile uti

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

fecal elimination disorders - why does this happen

A

common neural network

68
Q

fecal elimination disorders - acute effect on bladder

A

irritating to bladder

69
Q

fecal elimination disorders - chronic effect on bladder

A

inefficient emptying, impaired sensation

70
Q

fecal elimination disorders - UTI

A

inefficient emptying, colonization

71
Q

Clinical vignette: You are treating a 10-month-old male patient with a high risk for spinal cord tethering.
Multiple Choice:
A) Schedule ultrasonography every 12 months
B) Schedule ultrasonography every 6 months
C) Schedule UDS every 6 months
D) No need for routine diagnostic evaluation

A

Correct answer: B
Explanation: According to Table 34.3, for newborns to toddlers with a high risk for tethering due to rapid growth, ultrasonography should be scheduled every 6 months until 2 years of age.
Memory Tool: “Newborns to Toddlers, 6 to 2—Half-year scans until they’re two!”
Reference Citation: Paragraph 1, Table 34.3
Why This Information is Important: Accurate diagnostic evaluation is crucial for the early detection and management of potential urologic complications associated with spinal cord tethering.

72
Q

Clinical vignette: You have a 15-month-old patient who recently had a UTI.
Multiple Choice:
A) Perform UDS when indicated by a change in ambulation
B) Perform UDS every 6 months
C) Perform UDS every 12 months
D) UDS is not indicated for UTI

A

Correct answer: C
Explanation: According to Table 34.3, for newborns to toddlers, UDS should be performed every 12 months if UTIs or lower extremity changes are observed.
Memory Tool: “1 UTI? Time for 1 UDS per Year.”
Reference Citation: Paragraph 1, Table 34.3
Why This Information is Important: Proper timing of UDS is critical for diagnosing and managing UTIs in young children, as untreated UTIs can lead to kidney damage.

73
Q

Clinical vignette: You’re treating a 5-year-old patient who has slower growth and shows no sign of tethering.
Multiple Choice:
A) Perform ultrasonography every 6 months
B) Perform ultrasonography every 12 months
C) Perform ultrasonography every 12 to 24 months
D) Perform ultrasonography every 36 months

A

Correct answer: C
Explanation: According to Table 34.3, for toddlers to adolescents at low risk for tethering due to slower growth, ultrasonography should be scheduled every 12 to 24 months.
Memory Tool: “5 to 15, check yearly to bi-yearly.”
Reference Citation: Paragraph 2, Table 34.3
Why This Information is Important: Regular monitoring is essential for detecting any developmental abnormalities or complications that may arise during this period of substantial growth.

74
Q

Clinical vignette: A 9-year-old patient comes to you after experiencing their second febrile UTI in six months.
Multiple Choice:
A) Perform a DMSA renal scan immediately
B) Perform a DMSA renal scan only if recurrent UTIs continue
C) Perform a DMSA renal scan when indicated
D) DMSA renal scan is not indicated for UTIs

A

Correct answer: C
Explanation: According to Table 34.3, for toddlers to adolescents, a DMSA renal scan should be performed when indicated by conditions such as febrile UTIs.
Memory Tool: “Two febrile UTIs make a DMSA ‘When Indicated’ sign flash.”
Reference Citation: Paragraph 2, Table 34.3
Why This Information is Important: Timely DMSA renal scans can help in the early diagnosis and management of renal scarring, which is a risk in cases of febrile UTIs.

75
Q

Clinical vignette: A 17-year-old patient is experiencing new episodes of wetting after being continent for years.
Multiple Choice:
A) Perform UDS when indicated by a change in lower extremity function
B) Perform UDS every 12 months
C) Perform UDS when indicated by new wetting
D) UDS is not necessary unless UTIs are present

A

Correct answer: C
Explanation: According to Table 34.3, for adolescents to adults, UDS should be performed when indicated by developments like new wetting.
Memory Tool: “Teen troubles with wetting? Time for testing!”
Reference Citation: Paragraph 3, Table 34.3
Why This Information is Important: Sudden changes in urinary continence can indicate underlying issues that require immediate evaluation and intervention.

76
Q

Clinical vignette: A 19-year-old patient with slow growth and no signs of tethering comes for an evaluation.
Multiple Choice:
A) Perform ultrasonography every 6 months
B) Perform ultrasonography every 12 months
C) Perform ultrasonography every 24 months
D) Perform ultrasonography every 36 months

A

Correct answer: B
Explanation: Table 34.3 recommends that for adolescents to adults at low risk for tethering with slower growth, ultrasonography should be performed every 12 months. This frequency may decrease to every 24 months once the growth velocity has decreased.
Memory Tool: “Nineteen and clean? Scan yearly, if keen.”
Reference Citation: Paragraph 3, Table 34.3
Why This Information is Important: It ensures regular monitoring for the early detection of any potential urological issues.

77
Q

Clinical vignette: A 20-year-old patient reports frequent UTIs despite antibiotic treatment.
Multiple Choice:
A) Perform VCUG/RNC only when indicated by recurrent UTIs
B) Perform VCUG/RNC as a routine investigation for UTIs
C) Perform VCUG/RNC when indicated by a change in ambulation
D) VCUG/RNC is not indicated for UTIs

A

Correct answer: A
Explanation: According to Table 34.3, for adolescents to adults, VCUG/RNC should be performed when indicated by conditions like recurrent UTIs.
Memory Tool: “Twice or more? VCUG/RNC opens the door.”
Reference Citation: Paragraph 3, Table 34.3
Why This Information is Important: Recurrent UTIs could signify underlying anatomical or functional abnormalities that may require surgical intervention.

78
Q

Clinical vignette: A 35-year-old patient has no indications of tethering and shows no ongoing somatic growth.
Multiple Choice:
A) Perform ultrasonography every 12 months
B) Perform ultrasonography every 24 months
C) Perform ultrasonography every 36 months
D) Ultrasonography is not required

A

Correct answer: C
Explanation: Table 34.3 states that for adults at low risk for tethering without ongoing somatic growth, ultrasonography should be performed every 36 months.
Memory Tool: “Three for 30s; one scan for each decade.”
Reference Citation: Paragraph 4, Table 34.3
Why This Information is Important: It’s essential for long-term surveillance and timely intervention if complications arise.

79
Q

Clinical Vignette: A pregnant woman undergoes prenatal imaging and is informed that her fetus has no observable renal tissue. What is the prognosis?

A. Usually asymptomatic
B. Lethal in nearly 100% of cases
C. Hydronephrosis is common
D. Potential for nephrolithiasis

A

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: According to Table 38.1, bilateral renal agenesis is lethal in nearly 100% of cases due to pulmonary hypoplasia.

Memory Tool: “Bilateral = Bye” - Almost always lethal.

Reference: Table 38.1, paragraph on Bilateral renal agenesis.

Rationale: Knowing the prognosis of anomalies is crucial for counseling patients and making clinical decisions.

80
Q

Clinical Vignette: A young adult male undergoes routine imaging and is found to have only one kidney. What are the reproductive implications?

A. No impact on reproduction
B. Reproductive anomalies in 20% to 40%
C. Reproductive anomalies in approximately 15%
D. Increased risk for tumors unproven

A

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Table 38.1 mentions that in cases of unilateral renal agenesis, reproductive anomalies occur in both sexes in 20% to 40%.

Memory Tool: “Unilateral, Unique reproductive issues” - 20% to 40% reproductive anomalies.

Reference: Table 38.1, paragraph on Unilateral renal agenesis.

Rationale: Understanding the broader systemic implications of a urologic condition aids in comprehensive patient management.

81
Q

Clinical Vignette: During surgery for an unrelated condition, a patient is discovered to have an extra kidney. Where is it likely to be located?

A. Cephalad to orthotopic kidney
B. Caudad to orthotopic kidney
C. On the contralateral side
D. In the thoracic cavity

A

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: According to Table 38.1, the majority of cases with supernumerary kidney have it caudad to the orthotopic kidney.

Memory Tool: “Super Caudad” - Extra kidney is likely below the normal one.

Reference: Table 38.1, paragraph on Supernumerary kidney.

Rationale: Knowing anatomical specifics assists surgeons and radiologists in diagnosis and treatment.

82
Q

Clinical Vignette: A child presents with repeated UTIs. Imaging reveals a kidney that has not fully ascended. What other anomaly is likely to be found?

A. Anorectal malformations
B. Reproductive anomalies in approximately 15%
C. Genitourinary malformations
D. Clubfeet

A

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Table 38.1 specifies that in simple renal ectopia, reproductive anomalies occur in both sexes in approximately 15%.

Memory Tool: “Simple Repro” - 15% have reproductive anomalies in Simple Renal Ectopia.

Reference: Table 38.1, paragraph on Simple renal ectopia.

Rationale: Being aware of associated conditions aids in the holistic management of the patient.

83
Q

Clinical Vignette: An infant is diagnosed with a horseshoe kidney. What genetic syndrome should also be evaluated?

A. Turner syndrome
B. VACTERL
C. Potters facies
D. Clubfeet

A

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: According to Table 38.1, horseshoe kidney is associated with Turner syndrome.

Memory Tool: “HorseTurn” - Horseshoe kidneys are connected with Turner syndrome.

Reference: Table 38.1, paragraph on Horseshoe kidney.

Rationale: Identifying genetic syndromes connected to urological abnormalities facilitates multidisciplinary care.

84
Q

What is VACTERL?

A

VACTERL stands for Vertebral anomalies, Anal atresia, Cardiac defects, Tracheo-Esophageal fistula, Renal anomalies, and Limb abnormalities.

85
Q

Clinical Vignette: During prenatal ultrasound, a fetus is found to have a kidney on the opposite side of its ureter’s insertion into the bladder. What other condition should be evaluated?

A. Anorectal malformations
B. Genitourinary malformations
C. Reproductive anomalies in approximately 15%
D. Turner syndrome

A

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: According to Table 38.1, crossed renal ectopia is associated with genitourinary malformations.

Memory Tool: “Crossed over to the GU side” - Genitourinary malformations are associated with crossed renal ectopia.

Reference: Table 38.1, paragraph on Crossed renal ectopia.

Rationale: Recognizing other potential anomalies in prenatal diagnostics allows for early intervention and multi-disciplinary approach to care.

86
Q

Clinical Vignette: A patient who underwent thoracic imaging for a pulmonary issue is found to have a thoracic kidney. What is the most likely symptom?

A. Nephrolithiasis
B. Hydronephrosis
C. Usually asymptomatic
D. Reproductive anomalies

A

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Table 38.1 states that thoracic kidneys are usually asymptomatic and are often discovered incidentally.

Memory Tool: “Thoracic Thumbs Up” - Usually no symptoms, a thumbs-up case!

Reference: Table 38.1, paragraph on Thoracic kidney.

Rationale: Awareness of incidental findings in imaging studies is crucial for avoiding unnecessary interventions.

87
Q
A
88
Q

Which of the following is a potential consequence of constipation on bladder function in children?
a. Increased bladder capacity
b. Decreased risk of UTI
c. Improved control of incontinence
d. Low functional capacity, incontinence, UTI, and triggering or exacerbating vesicoureteral reflux (VUR)

A

d. Low functional capacity, incontinence, UTI, and triggering or exacerbating vesicoureteral reflux (VUR)
Explanation: Constipation may adversely affect bladder function, leading to low functional capacity, incontinence, urinary tract infection (UTI), and triggering or exacerbating vesicoureteral reflux (VUR).

89
Q

Which gender is daytime incontinence more common in school-age children?
a. Boys
b. Girls
c. Equally common in both boys and girls
d. There is no gender difference in daytime incontinence in school-age children

A

b. Girls
Explanation: Daytime incontinence varies with both age and gender in school-age children and seems to be more common in girls.

90
Q

What is the most common urinary symptom associated with LUT dysfunction in children?
a. Urgency
b. Hesitancy
c. Weak urine stream
d. Painful urination

A

a. Urgency
Explanation: The most common urinary symptoms associated with LUT dysfunction in children include holding maneuvers and urgency.

91
Q

What percentage of children will have some degree of nighttime wetting at 5 years of age?
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 15%
d. 20%

A

c. 15%
Explanation: Approximately 15% of children will have some degree of nighttime wetting at 5 years of age, with a spontaneous resolution rate of approximately 15% per year, so 15 years of age only 1% to 2% of teenagers will still wet the bed.

92
Q

What is the association between LUT dysfunction and UTI?
a. LUT dysfunction decreases the risk of UTI
b. LUT dysfunction has no impact on the risk of UTI
c. LUT dysfunction is associated with an increased risk of UTI
d. LUT dysfunction is not associated with UTI

A

c. LUT dysfunction is associated with an increased risk of UTI
Explanation: LUT conditions resulting in urinary stasis are associated with UTI.

93
Q

What is the association between LUT dysfunction and VUR?
a. LUT dysfunction decreases the risk of VUR
b. LUT dysfunction has no impact on the risk of VUR
c. LUT dysfunction is associated with an increased risk of VUR
d. LUT dysfunction is not associated with VUR

A

c. LUT dysfunction is associated with an increased risk of VUR
Explanation: There is a known association between LUT and VUR, and VUR may be secondary to bladder dysfunction.

94
Q

What information should be included in the history of a child with LUT dysfunction?
a. Evaluation of cardiac symptoms
b. Evaluation of respiratory symptoms
c. Evaluation of urinary symptoms and infections (UTI), diet, bowel function, and developmental milestones
d. Evaluation of musculoskeletal symptoms

A

c. Evaluation of urinary symptoms and infections (UTI), diet, bowel function, and developmental milestones
Explanation: History includes evaluation of urinary symptoms and infections (UTI), diet, bowel function, and developmental milestones, including toilet training.

95
Q

What should be assessed during the physical exam of a child with LUT dysfunction?
a. Assessment of vision and hearing
b. Assessment of lung sounds
c. Inspection of the back spine for signs of occult spinal dysraphism or tethered cord
d. Assessment of joint range of motion

A

c. Inspection of the back spine for signs of occult spinal dysraphism or tethered cord
Explanation: Examination should include inspection of the back spine for signs of occult spinal dysraphism or tethered cord such as lipoma, mass, or hair tuft.

96
Q

What diagnostic tools are valuable in diagnosing simple and complex LUT voiding dysfunction?
a. Blood tests
b. Imaging studies
c. Bowel function tests
d. 7-day bowel and bladder diary and 48-hour frequency volume charts

A

d. 7-day bowel and bladder diary and 48-hour frequency volume charts
Explanation: A 7-day bowel and bladder diary and 48-hour frequency volume charts are invaluable in diagnosing simple and complex LUT voiding dysfunction.

97
Q

FIG. 6.1 Bristol stool chart with visuals and descriptions of different stool types. This scale provides a helpful, objective reference for documenting stool consistency when talking to patients about bowel function. Source: (Modified from Lewis SJ, Heaton KW. Stool form scale as a useful guide to intestinal transit time. Scand J Gastroenterol 1997;32(9):920-924.)

A
98
Q

Table 6.1

Rome IV Diagnostic Criteria for Functional Constipation

A
99
Q

What is the first step in managing LUT dysfunction in children with evidence of bowel dysfunction?
a. Initiate pharmacotherapy
b. Initiate physical therapy
c. Initiate a regimen that includes high fiber and increased fluid intake, as well as timed voiding every 2 hours
d. Initiate neuromodulation

A

c. Initiate a regimen that includes high fiber and increased fluid intake, as well as timed voiding every 2 hours
Explanation: If evidence of bowel dysfunction is present, a regimen that includes high fiber and increased fluid intake is initiated, as well as timed voiding every 2 hours.

100
Q

What are the main side effects of oxybutynin?
a. Constipation, dry mouth, blurred vision, reduced sweating, flushing, and altered behavior and cognition
b. Diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting
c. Headache and dizziness
d. Muscle weakness and tremors

A

a. Constipation, dry mouth, blurred vision, reduced sweating, flushing, and altered behavior and cognition
Explanation: The main side effects of oxybutynin include constipation, dry mouth, blurred vision, reduced sweating, flushing, and altered behavior and cognition.

101
Q

FIG. 6.2 Management algorithm for childhood defecation disorders seen in a pediatric urology practice. Lack of improvement or intractable constipation should be diagnosed based on worsening or absence of suboptimal response to adequate medical treatment for at least 3 months. MACE, Malone antegrade continence enema.

A
102
Q

At what gestational age may prenatal bladder anomalies be detected?
a. 12th week
b. 10th week
c. 8th week
d. 6th week

A

b. 10th week
Explanation: Prenatal bladder anomalies may be detected as early as the 10th week of gestation.

103
Q

What is the management of an infected urachal cyst or sinus with abscess?
a. Antibiotics only
b. Excision of the bladder cuff
c. Complete excision of the patent urachus with a bladder cuff
d. Observation

A

c. Complete excision of the patent urachus with a bladder cuff
Explanation: Management of an infected urachal cyst or sinus with abscess includes initial drainage and antibiotics followed by complete excision of the patent urachus with a bladder cuff.

104
Q

FIG. 6.3 Urachal anomalies. (A) Patent urachus. (B) Urachal cyst. (C) Umbilical-urachus sinus. (D) Vesicourachal diverticulum.

A
105
Q

What is the incidence of posterior urethral valves in boys?
a. 1.6-2.1 per 1,000 births
b. 1.6-2.1 per 10,000 births
c. 1.6-2.1 per 100,000 births
d. 1.6-2.1 per 1,000,000 births

A

b. 1.6-2.1 per 10,000 births
Explanation: Posterior urethral valves are the most common cause of LUT obstruction in boys with an incidence of 1.6-2.1 per 10,000 births.

106
Q

What is the most common appearance of posterior urethral valves?
a. Sphincteric
b. Annular
c. Leaflets arising from the verumontanum
d. Diaphragmatic

A

c. Leaflets arising from the verumontanum
Explanation: Most posterior urethral valves appear as leaflets arising from the verumontanum that fuse anteriorly.

107
Q

What is the result of posterior urethral valves during fetal development?
a. Bladder neck hypertrophy
b. Detrusor atrophy
c. Low storage and voiding pressures
d. No effect

A

a. Bladder neck hypertrophy
Explanation: Posterior urethral valves during fetal development result in detrusor hypertrophy with high storage and voiding pressures and may lead to dilation of the posterior urethra, bladder neck hypertrophy, bladder wall thickening, vesicoureteral reflux, upper tract dilation, and in one third of affected patients, end-stage renal disease.

108
Q

What is the incidence of end-stage renal disease in patients with posterior urethral valves?
a. One fourth of affected patients
b. One third of affected patients
c. One half of affected patients
d. Two thirds of affected patients

A

b. One third of affected patients
Explanation: Posterior urethral valves may lead to end-stage renal disease in one third of affected patients.

109
Q

What is the most common cause of LUT obstruction in boys?
a. Posterior urethral valves
b. Bladder diverticula
c. Urachal anomalies
d. Urethral strictures

A

a. Posterior urethral valves
Explanation: Posterior urethral valves are the most common cause of LUT obstruction in boys.

110
Q

FIG. 6.4 (A) Young’s original figures from his 1919 article describing three types of posterior urethral valves. (B) William P. Didusch illustrates the pathognomonic findings associated with posterior urethral valves: the thickened bladder with elevated bladder neck, dilated prostatic urethra, and the valve leaflets commonly ascribed to type 1 valves. The ureters are shown to be dilated. Source: (From Young HH, Frontz WA, Baldwin JC. Congenital obstruction of the posterior urethra. J Urol 1919;3:289.)

A
111
Q

What is the most common reason for detecting posterior urethral valves in neonates?
a. Thick-walled bladder
b. Oligohydramnios
c. Prenatal hydronephrosis
d. Prenatal UTI

A

c. Prenatal hydronephrosis
Explanation: Many infants with posterior urethral valves are detected due to prenatal hydronephrosis, oligohydramnios, and/or a thick-walled bladder.

112
Q

What symptoms should raise suspicion of posterior urethral valves in boys?
a. Headache and nausea
b. Recurrent abdominal pain
c. Recurrent infections, overflow incontinence, gross hematuria, and/or renal dysfunction
d. Difficulty breathing and wheezing

A

c. Recurrent infections, overflow incontinence, gross hematuria, and/or renal dysfunction
Explanation: Boys presenting with LUT symptoms such as recurrent infections, overflow incontinence, gross hematuria, and/or renal dysfunction should raise suspicion of posterior urethral valves.

113
Q

What imaging modality is useful in diagnosing posterior urethral valves?
a. X-ray
b. Ultrasound
c. CT scan
d. MRI

A

b. Ultrasound
Explanation: Ultrasound is a useful imaging modality in diagnosing posterior urethral valves.

114
Q

FIG. 6.5 Note small, irregular bladder, unilateral high grade vesicoureteral reflux and posterior urethral filling defect consistent with posterior urethral valves.

A
115
Q

What prenatal ultrasound finding has a high sensitivity for posterior urethral valves?
a. Polyhydramnios
b. Dilated anterior urethra
c. Dilated posterior urethra
d. Renal agenesis

A

c. Dilated posterior urethra
Explanation: Thickened dilated bladder, upper tract dilation, and oligohydramnios have a high sensitivity for posterior urethral valves on prenatal ultrasonography; a dilated posterior urethra results in the “keyhole sign.”

116
Q

What study is the definitive diagnostic test for posterior urethral valves?
a. Renal ultrasound
b. Voiding cystourethrogram (VCUG)
c. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
d. Computed tomography (CT) scan

A

b. Voiding cystourethrogram (VCUG)
Explanation: VCUG remains the definitive study to confirm posterior urethral valves.

117
Q

What percentage of boys with posterior urethral valves have high-grade vesicoureteral reflux (VUR)?
a. 10%
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 75%

A

c. 50%
Explanation: The bladder often appears thickened and trabeculated with multiple diverticuli, and high-grade VUR is seen in approximately 50% of boys.

118
Q

What postnatal biochemical evaluation is important in assessing renal function in boys with posterior urethral valves?
a. Blood glucose
b. Hemoglobin level
c. Electrolytes and creatinine
d. Liver function tests

A

c. Electrolytes and creatinine
Explanation: Postnatal biochemical evaluation of renal function in boys with posterior urethral valves includes electrolytes and creatinine.

119
Q

What classic ultrasound finding is indicative of posterior urethral valves in the postnatal period?
a. Dilated anterior urethra
b. Renal agenesis
c. Distended bladder with thickened wall
d. Normal bladder and urethral anatomy

A

c. Distended bladder with thickened wall
Explanation: Much like the antenatal period, classic ultrasound findings in the postnatal period include distended bladder with thickened wall and dilated posterior urethra.

120
Q

What is the suggested cutoff for urinary sodium in a favorable fetal urine sample in a case of posterior urethral valves?
a. <50 mEq/L
b. <75 mEq/L
c. <100 mEq/L
d. <125 mEq/L

A

c. <100 mEq/L
Explanation: A favorable fetal urine sample obtained after 20 weeks’ gestation is suggested by urinary sodium <100 mEq/L, chloride <90 mEq/L, osmolarity <200 mEq/L, and β2 microglobulin <6 mg/L.

121
Q

What size feeding tube is typically used for postnatal management of posterior urethral valves?
a. 2-Fr
b. 5-Fr
c. 10-Fr
d. 12-Fr

A

b. 5-Fr
Explanation: A 5- or 8-Fr feeding tube should be inserted.

122
Q

What is the surgical intervention of choice for posterior urethral valves?
a. Vesicostomy
b. Upper urinary tract diversion
c. Cystoscopy with PUV ablation
d. Urethral dilation

A

c. Cystoscopy with PUV ablation
Explanation: Cystoscopy with PUV ablation is the surgical intervention of choice.

123
Q

Under what circumstances is a vesicostomy reserved for in the treatment of posterior urethral valves?
a. For all cases
b. For very high birth weight infants
c. For very low birth weight infants
d. For cases with no upper tract involvement

A

c. For very low birth weight infants whose urethras cannot accommodate the scope and/or those with continued impaired renal function, high residuals, and upper tract deterioration
Explanation: Vesicostomy is reserved for very low birth weight infants whose urethras cannot accommodate the scope and/or those with continued impaired renal function, high residuals, and upper tract deterioration.

124
Q

What postoperative procedure should be encouraged in boys undergoing cystoscopy with PUV ablation?
a. Urethral dilation
b. Foley catheter placement
c. Upper urinary tract diversion
d. Circumcision

A

d. Circumcision
Explanation: Circumcision should be encouraged.

125
Q

Question: What is the lifetime prevalence of end-stage renal disease in children with posterior urethral valves?

Answer choices:
a) Less than 10%
b) Between 10% and 20%
c) Between 20% and 50%
d) More than 50%

A

c) Between 20% and 50%.

Explanation: The lifetime prevalence of end-stage renal disease (ESRD) in children with posterior urethral valves is between 20% and 50%. Nadir creatinine value less than 0.8 mg/dL appears to indicate lower risk while greater than 1.2 mg/dL at 1 year predicts higher risk for renal failure. The valve bladder evolves through three distinct patterns: detrusor hyperreflexia in infancy and early childhood, decreasing intravesical pressures and improved compliance in childhood, and increased capacity bladder with hypocontractility and atony in adolescence. The focus of vesicoureteral reflux (VUR) management is centered on improving bladder function, and ureteral reimplantation is rarely offered.

126
Q

What is the exstrophy-epispadias complex?

Answer choices:
a) A rare congenital malformation with upper abdominal wall defect and epispadias urethral opening
b) A common congenital malformation with upper abdominal wall defect and normal urethral opening
c) A rare congenital malformation with lower abdominal wall defect exposing an open bladder and urethra, wide diastasis of pubic symphysis, anorectal anomalies, and epispadiac urethral opening
d) A common congenital malformation with lower abdominal wall defect exposing an open bladder and urethra, wide diastasis of pubic symphysis, anorectal anomalies, and normal urethral opening

A

c) A rare congenital malformation with lower abdominal wall defect exposing an open bladder and urethra, wide diastasis of pubic symphysis, anorectal anomalies, and epispadiac urethral opening.

Explanation: The exstrophy-epispadias complex is a rare congenital malformation with lower abdominal wall defect exposing an open bladder and urethra, wide diastasis of pubic symphysis, anorectal anomalies, and epispadiac urethral opening. It is caused by failure of the anterior abdominal wall and bladder to close during embryonic development, resulting in exposure of the urinary tract to the external environment. It occurs in approximately 1 in 10,000 to 50,000 live births and is more common in males.

127
Q

Image
FIG. 6.6 (A) Newborn female with classic bladder exstrophy: note the bifid clitoral halves, divergent labia and mons, as well as the anteriorly displaced anus and diastasis of pubic symphysis. (B) Newborn male: note the short, exposed urethral plate with dorsal curvature.

A
128
Q

Image
FIG. 6.7 Pelvic bone abnormalities noted in classic bladder exstrophy. The posterior bone segment is externally rotated (12 degrees mean on each side), but the length is unchanged. The anterior segment is externally rotated (18 degrees mean on each side) and shortened by 30%. The distance between the triradiate cartilage is increased by 31%.

A
129
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for bladder exstrophy on prenatal ultrasound?
a. Presence of bladder filling, high-set umbilicus, narrow pubic rami, large genitalia and upper abdominal mass that increases in size as pregnancy progresses
b. Absence of bladder filling, low-set umbilicus, widening pubic rami, diminutive genitalia and lower abdominal mass that increases in size as pregnancy progresses
c. Presence of bladder filling, low-set umbilicus, widening pubic rami, diminutive genitalia and lower abdominal mass that decreases in size as pregnancy progresses
d. Absence of bladder filling, high-set umbilicus, narrow pubic rami, large genitalia and upper abdominal mass that decreases in size as pregnancy progresses

A

b. Absence of bladder filling, low-set umbilicus, widening pubic rami, diminutive genitalia and lower abdominal mass that increases in size as pregnancy progresses.

Explanation: The diagnostic criteria for bladder exstrophy on prenatal ultrasound include the absence of bladder filling, a low-set umbilicus, widening pubic rami, diminutive genitalia, and a lower abdominal mass that increases in size as the pregnancy progresses.

130
Q

What is the purpose of fetal magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) in prenatal diagnosis?
a. To determine the size and quality of bladder template and urethral plate in males
b. To confirm the diagnosis of bladder exstrophy
c. To obtain pelvic and hip plain films
d. To diagnose a condition after birth

A

b. To confirm the diagnosis of bladder exstrophy.

Explanation: Fetal magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) can be used to confirm the diagnosis of bladder exstrophy in prenatal diagnosis. This imaging technique can provide detailed images of the fetal anatomy and can be helpful in making a more accurate diagnosis.

131
Q

What is the purpose of postnatal testing for bladder exstrophy?
a. To diagnose the condition
b. To determine the size and quality of bladder template and urethral plate in males
c. To obtain pelvic and hip plain films
d. To determine the quality of the fetal bladder

A

b. To determine the size and quality of bladder template and urethral plate in males.

Explanation: Postnatal testing for bladder exstrophy involves a detailed examination to determine the size and quality of the bladder template and urethral plate in males. Pelvic and hip plain films may also be obtained to further assess the condition. These tests can help with planning for surgical intervention and management of the condition.

132
Q

Image
FIG. 6.8 Prenatal ultrasound scan demonstrating bladder exstrophy. (A) Longitudinal view showing the low-set umbilicus ( cyan arrow, lack of intraabdominal bladder, and lower abdominal mass (red arrow). (B) Transverse view through the plane (X) in A shows presence of the umbilicus (cyan arrow) and the upper edge of the bladder plate that appears hyperechoic (red arrow).

A
133
Q

What is the purpose of tying the umbilical cord close to the abdominal wall at birth in the postnatal management of bladder exstrophy?
a. To protect the bladder
b. To prevent infection
c. To promote bladder growth
d. To facilitate surgical repair

A

b. To prevent infection.

Explanation: Tying the umbilical cord close to the abdominal wall with 2-0 silk at birth in the postnatal management of bladder exstrophy is done to prevent infection.

134
Q

What are the goals of surgical repair in bladder exstrophy?
a. To reconstruct the bladder and urethra only
b. To reconstruct the bladder, urethra and genitalia
c. To create functional organs for continence, voiding, and sexual function
d. To prevent tension on closure

A

c. To create functional organs for continence, voiding, and sexual function.

Explanation: The goals of surgical repair in bladder exstrophy are to close the bladder and urethra, reconstruct the genitalia, and create functional organs for continence, voiding, and sexual function.

135
Q

What is the difference between delayed closure and neonatal closure in bladder exstrophy repair?
a. Delayed closure has higher continence rates
b. Neonatal closure has higher continence rates
c. Delayed closure results in greater ultimate bladder capacity
d. Neonatal closure results in greater ultimate bladder capacity

A

a. Delayed closure has higher continence rates.

Explanation: Delayed closure and neonatal closure have been used in bladder exstrophy repair. Delayed closure has been found to have equal continence rates and no difference in ultimate bladder capacity compared to neonatal closure. However, delayed closure may be preferred in some cases to allow for growth and development of the bladder.

136
Q

What is the modern staged repair of bladder exstrophy (MSRE)?
a. Combination of bladder closure, bladder neck reconstruction, urethral elongation, and epispadias repair in a single operation
b. Converting bladder exstrophy into complete epispadias to allow time for bladder to cycle and grow
c. Penile reconstruction to correct dorsal chordee, urethral reconstruction, glanular reconstruction, and skin closure
d. Pelvic osteotomy to prevent tension on closure

A

b. Converting bladder exstrophy into complete epispadias to allow time for bladder to cycle and grow.

Explanation: The modern staged repair of bladder exstrophy (MSRE) involves converting bladder exstrophy into complete epispadias to allow time for bladder to cycle and grow. This is done before a complete primary repair of bladder exstrophy (CPRE), which includes a combination of bladder closure, bladder neck reconstruction, urethral elongation, and epispadias repair in a single operation. Pelvic osteotomy may also be performed to prevent tension on closure.

137
Q

What are the possible outcomes after exstrophy repair?
a. Published continence rates vary from 37% to 90%
b. Erectile function, sensation, and libido are intact for most males
c. Fertility is unimpaired, but prolapse occurs more commonly in females
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above.

Explanation: The outcomes after exstrophy repair vary widely, but published continence rates vary from 37% to 90%. Erectile function, sensation, and libido are intact for most males. Fertility is unimpaired, but prolapse occurs more commonly in females because of the lack of pelvic floor support.

138
Q

Image
Image
FIG. 6.9 Robot-assisted laparoscopic appendicovesicostomy in a child with valve bladder syndrome and a history of posterior urethral valves. (A) The detrusor muscle is incised in the posterior bladder wall to allow tunneled anastomosis of the appendix. (B) Anastomosis of the appendix to the bladder with a feeding tube traversing the appendix into a cystotomy along the posterior wall of the bladder. (C) Postoperative appearance with appendicovesicostomy stoma visible just inside the umbilicus.

A
139
Q

What is Prune Belly Syndrome?

a) A disease that affects the respiratory system
b) A condition characterized by deficient or absent abdominal wall musculature, bilateral intraabdominal cryptorchidism, and urinary tract anomalies
c) A disorder that affects the nervous system
d) An autoimmune disease

A

b) A condition characterized by deficient or absent abdominal wall musculature, bilateral intraabdominal cryptorchidism, and urinary tract anomalies

Explanation: Prune belly syndrome (PBS) is a rare condition that affects the abdominal wall, urinary tract, and genital organs. It is characterized by a lack of or underdeveloped abdominal muscles, bilateral intraabdominal cryptorchidism (undescended testicles), and various urinary tract anomalies.

140
Q

Which gender is primarily affected by Prune Belly Syndrome?

a) Boys
b) Girls
c) Both boys and girls equally
d) It is not gender-specific

A

a) Boys

Explanation: Prune belly syndrome primarily affects boys. In fact, by strict definition, the condition includes cryptorchidism (undescended testicles), which only affects males.

141
Q

What is the contemporary incidence of Prune Belly Syndrome in live births?

a) 1 in 2,000 live births
b) 1 in 10,000–20,000 live births
c) 1 in 29,000–40,000 live births
d) 1 in 100,000 live births

A

c) 1 in 29,000–40,000 live births

Explanation: Prune belly syndrome is a rare condition, with a contemporary incidence of 1 in 29,000–40,000 live births.

142
Q

What type of urinary tract anomalies are associated with Prune Belly Syndrome?

a) Megacolon and megalourethra
b) Hypospadias and hydroureteronephrosis
c) Polycystic kidneys and bladder exstrophy
d) Megacystis and hydroureteronephrosis

A

d) Megacystis and hydroureteronephrosis

Explanation: Prune belly syndrome is associated with several urinary tract anomalies, including megacystis (enlarged bladder) and hydroureteronephrosis (dilation of the ureters and kidneys).

143
Q

Image
FIG. 6.10 Appearance of a newborn with prune belly syndrome: wrinkled, redundant skin with bulging at the flanks due to deficient of abdominal wall musculature and massively distended bladder.

A
144
Q

What is the significance of neonatal abdominal wall appearance in PBS?

a) It can indicate the severity of pulmonary hypoplasia
b) It is not related to PBS
c) It is a sign of gastrointestinal issues
d) It indicates renal dysplasia

A

a) It can indicate the severity of pulmonary hypoplasia

Explanation: The appearance of the neonatal abdominal wall in a newborn with PBS can provide important information about the severity of the condition. Specifically, the initial postnatal course is dictated by the severity of pulmonary hypoplasia, which can be suggested by the appearance of the abdominal wall.

145
Q

What are some other clinical presentations of PBS besides the abdominal wall appearance?

a) Hearing loss and vision problems
b) Joint pain and stiffness
c) Genital ulcers and lesions
d) Urinary tract anomalies and cryptorchidism

A

d) Urinary tract anomalies and cryptorchidism

Explanation: While the neonatal abdominal wall appearance is a prominent feature of PBS, the condition is characterized by a range of clinical presentations, including urinary tract anomalies and cryptorchidism (undescended testicles). Many patients also have other complications related to the gastrointestinal, musculoskeletal, and cardiopulmonary systems.

146
Q

Table 6.2

Spectrum of Prune Belly Syndrome

A
147
Q

What prenatal findings may appear similar to bladder outlet obstruction in PBS?

a) Irregular abdominal circumference
b) Hydroureteronephrosis
c) Severe pulmonary hypoplasia
d) Both a) and b)

A

d) Both a) and b)

Explanation: Prenatal findings in PBS may appear similar to bladder outlet obstruction, with irregular abdominal circumference and hydroureteronephrosis being characteristic. However, these classic findings may not be consistently seen even at 30 weeks of gestation.

148
Q

How many categories of neonatal presentation are there in PBS?

a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four

A

c) Three

Explanation: There are three major categories of neonatal presentation in PBS, as outlined in Table 6.2. These categories are based on the severity of the condition and the extent of renal and pulmonary involvement.

149
Q

What does Category I neonatal presentation in PBS include?

a) Pronounced oligohydramnios with severe pulmonary hypoplasia and skeletal abnormalities
b) Moderate renal insufficiency and moderate-severe hydroureteronephrosis
c) Mild features, with normal or mildly impaired renal function and no pulmonary insufficiency
d) None of the above

A

a) Pronounced oligohydramnios with severe pulmonary hypoplasia and skeletal abnormalities

Explanation: Category I neonatal presentation in PBS includes pronounced oligohydramnios with severe pulmonary hypoplasia and skeletal abnormalities. This is the most severe category of presentation, with a poor prognosis.

150
Q

What postnatal testing is recommended for baseline assessment of renal function in PBS?

a) Ultrasound only
b) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine only
c) Electrolytes only
d) Ultrasound, BUN, creatinine, and electrolytes

A

d) Ultrasound, BUN, creatinine, and electrolytes

Explanation: Baseline assessment of renal function in PBS should include ultrasound, blood urea nitrogen (BUN), creatinine, and electrolytes. While a voiding cystourethrogram (VCUG) may be necessary to assess bladder outlet and emptying, unnecessary catheterization should be avoided.

151
Q

What are Potter features?

A

Potter sequence, also known as Potter syndrome or Potter’s sequence, refers to a constellation of physical findings in a newborn that result from a lack of amniotic fluid during fetal development. The absence of amniotic fluid, also known as oligohydramnios, can be caused by various factors, including renal agenesis, obstructive uropathy, and premature rupture of membranes. The physical findings associated with Potter sequence are commonly referred to as Potter features, which include flattened facial features, wide-set eyes, low-set ears, a beaked nose, and limb deformities. These physical characteristics result from the pressure of the uterine wall on the developing fetus in the absence of amniotic fluid. In addition to the physical features, babies with Potter sequence may have pulmonary hypoplasia, which is a severe underdevelopment of the lungs that can result in life-threatening respiratory distress after birth. The condition is usually fatal unless aggressive neonatal care, including mechanical ventilation, is initiated.

152
Q

Image
FIG. 6.12 Surgical correction of megalourethra in a patient with prune belly syndrome. (A) Penile deglovement. (B) Exposure of the scaphoid megalourethra. (C and D) Tailoring of the dilated urethral segment. (E) Completed urethroplasty. (F) Presentation of excessive preputial skin. (G) Completed procedure after urethroplasty and circumcision (note the empty scrotum).

A
153
Q

Image
FIG. 6.13 Surgical technique for Monfort abdominoplasty and concomitant reconstruction of prune belly uropathy. (A) Delineation of redundancy by tenting up abdominal wall. (B) Skin incisions are outlined with a separate circumscribing incision to isolate the umbilicus. (C) Skin (epidermis and dermis only) is excised with electrocautery. (D) Abdominal wall central plate is incised at the lateral border of the rectus muscle on either side, from the superior epigastric to the inferior epigastric vessels, creating a central musculofascial plate. (E) Adequate exposure is provided for concomitant transperitoneal genitourinary procedures. B, Bladder; T, testis; U, ureter. (F) Only the more normal proximal ureter is preserved for vesicoureteral reimplantation, and the urachal diverticulum is excised. (G) Transtrigonal ureteral reimplantation is performed with or without ureteral tapering as needed. The bladder is closed in two layers, and ureteral stents (not shown) and a cystostomy tube are used. (H) Completion of abdominoplasty by scoring of the parietal peritoneum overlying the lateral abdominal wall musculature with electrocautery. (I) The edges of the central plate are sutured to the lateral abdominal wall musculature along the scored line. (J) Lateral flaps are brought together in the midline, with closed suction drains placed between the lateral flaps and the central plate. Skin is brought together in the midline, enveloping the previously isolated umbilicus. Source: (From Woodard JR, Perez LM. Prune-belly syndrome. In: Marshall FF, ed. Operative urology. Philadelphia, PA: Saunders, 1996.)

A
154
Q

When is surgical repair recommended for Prune Belly Syndrome?

a) Immediately after birth
b) Around 6 months of age
c) During adolescence
d) In adulthood

A

b) Around 6 months of age

Explanation: Transabdominal or laparoscopic bilateral orchidopexy around 6 months of age is recommended for children with Prune Belly Syndrome. The extent and timing of urinary tract reconstruction is tailored to a given child’s bladder dynamics while taking into consideration respiratory status.

155
Q

When is ureteral reconstruction considered in Prune Belly Syndrome?

a) With repeated UTIs
b) With progressive anatomic or functional upper tract deterioration
c) Both a) and b)
d) Neither a) nor b)

A

c) Both a) and b)

Explanation: Ureteral reconstruction is considered in Prune Belly Syndrome with repeated UTIs or progressive anatomic or functional upper tract deterioration. Reduction cystoplasty may also be considered in cases of large urachal diverticulum or as part of a more extensive reconstruction, including an appendicovesicostomy to afford better long-term bladder emptying.

156
Q

What is the prognosis for Prune Belly Syndrome?

a) It is uniformly fatal
b) It results in chronic renal insufficiency in all cases
c) It has a high mortality rate in the perinatal period, and significant pulmonary difficulties and chronic renal insufficiency in survivors
d) It has no long-term effects on health

Answer: c) It has a high mortality rate in the perinatal period, and significant pulmonary difficulties and chronic renal insufficiency in survivors

A

c) It has a high mortality rate in the perinatal period, and significant pulmonary difficulties and chronic renal insufficiency in survivors

Explanation: Prune Belly Syndrome has a high mortality rate in the perinatal period due to severe pulmonary hypoplasia, and significant pulmonary difficulties have been reported in 55% of survivors. Up to one-third of survivors develop chronic renal insufficiency. However, adequate bladder emptying can help reduce the risk of UTIs and upper tract deterioration, and a normal pattern of sexual development is expected after orchidopexies.

157
Q

Table 6.3

Spinal Level of Myelomeningocele

A
158
Q

What is the most common cause of neurogenic bladder in children?
A) Cerebral Palsy
B) Neurologic Lesions
C) Meningomyelocele
D) Urinary tract infections

A

C) Meningomyelocele
Explanation: Meningomyelocele, which is a type of neural tube defect, is the most common cause of neurogenic bladder in children. It is caused by incomplete closure of the neural tube during fetal development, which results in the spinal cord and surrounding membranes protruding through an opening in the back. This condition can cause a range of neurologic abnormalities, including dysfunction of the lower urinary tract.

159
Q

What is the relationship between folic acid and neural tube defects?
A) High levels of folic acid during early pregnancy increase the risk of NTDs.
B) Low levels of folic acid during early pregnancy increase the risk of NTDs.
C) Folic acid has no effect on the risk of NTDs.
D) The relationship between folic acid and NTDs is not yet understood.

A

B) Low levels of folic acid during early pregnancy increase the risk of NTDs.
Explanation: Folic acid is important for proper development of the neural tube in early pregnancy. Women with low levels of folic acid during early pregnancy are at increased risk of having a fetus with a neural tube defect, including meningomyelocele.

160
Q

Which of the following is associated with almost all infants with spina bifida?
A) Cerebral Palsy
B) Hydrocephalus
C) Muscular Dystrophy
D) Down Syndrome

A

B) Hydrocephalus
Explanation: Almost all infants with spina bifida have Arnold-Chiari malformation, which is associated with hydrocephalus and developmental brain abnormalities. Arnold-Chiari malformation is a condition in which the lower part of the brain (cerebellum) extends down into the spinal canal. This can block the flow of cerebrospinal fluid, leading to hydrocephalus, which is an accumulation of fluid in the brain.

161
Q

Image
FIG. 6.14 Oxybutynin is a potent anticholinergic agent that dramatically delays detrusor contractions and lowers contraction pressure, as demonstrated on these two graphs. U.C., Uninhibited contraction.

A
162
Q

What is the recommended timing of prenatal closure for optimal neuromotor function and decreased need for ventriculo-peritoneal shunting?
A) Before 20 weeks of gestation
B) Before 26 weeks of gestation
C) Before 30 weeks of gestation
D) Before 34 weeks of gestation

A

B) Before 26 weeks of gestation
Explanation: Prenatal closure before 26 weeks of gestation has been shown to improve neuromotor function and decrease the need for ventriculo-peritoneal shunting. However, there is a significant risk of fetal demise, maternal morbidity, and preterm labor with prenatal intervention.

163
Q

What are the three categories of lower urinary tract dynamics that may be detected in postnatal testing?
A) Synergic, dyssynergic, and incontinent
B) Synergic, dyssynergic with poor detrusor compliance, and complete denervation
C) Overactive, underactive, and normal
D) High pressure, low pressure, and normal

A

B) Synergic, dyssynergic with poor detrusor compliance, and complete denervation
Explanation: Postnatal testing for lower urinary tract dysfunction involves renal-bladder ultrasound as early as possible after birth, baseline urodynamics, and serum creatinine obtained at 3 months. Three categories of lower urinary tract dynamics may be detected: synergic (26%), dyssynergic with and without poor detrusor compliance (37%), and complete denervation (36%).

164
Q

What is the primary goal of postnatal management for children with lower urinary tract dysfunction?
A) Prevention of bowel dysfunction
B) Preservation of renal function
C) Improvement of bladder control
D) Correction of hydrocephalus

A

B) Preservation of renal function
Explanation: The primary goal of postnatal management for children with lower urinary tract dysfunction is preservation of renal function by maintaining low bladder pressures and actively managing symptomatic UTI/VUR. Clean intermittent catheterization (CIC) is implemented if postvoid residuals are elevated. Early intervention with CIC and antimuscarinics to keep filling pressures less than 30 cm H2O improves the rate of UTI, VUR, and upper urinary tract deterioration, as well as the incidence of chronic kidney disease (CKD).

165
Q

What are the risk factors for renal dysfunction in children with lower urinary tract dysfunction?
A) Clean intermittent catheterization and antimuscarinics
B) Neurogenic bowel dysfunction and bladder control
C) High detrusor pressures, detrusor overactivity, febrile UTI, and VUR
D) Poor compliance and incomplete denervation

A

C) High detrusor pressures, detrusor overactivity, febrile UTI, and VUR
Explanation: Risk factors for renal dysfunction in children with lower urinary tract dysfunction include detrusor sphincter dyssynergia (DSD), high detrusor pressures, detrusor overactivity, febrile UTI, and vesicoureteral reflux (VUR). Management of neurogenic bowel dysfunction may also improve bladder function.