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Pediatric trivia Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the order of cranial suture close?

A
  1. metopic
  2. coronal
  3. lambdoid
  4. sagittal
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2
Q

What is another name for metopic carniosynostosis?

A

trigonencephaly

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3
Q

What is another name for coronal craniosynostosis?

A

brachycephaly

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4
Q

What is another name for lambdoid craniosynostosis?

A

turricephaly

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5
Q

What is another name for sagittal craniosynostosis?

A

scaphocephaly or dolichocephaly

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6
Q

Absence/dysplasia of the greater sphenoid wing should make you think?

A

NF1

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7
Q

Tibial pseudo-arthrosis should make you think of what disease?

A

NF1

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8
Q

Scolisois and lateral thoracic meningocele should make you think of what disease?

A

NF1

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9
Q

What two fissures close prematurely with clover leaf syndrome? What else is a common finding?

A

coronal and lambdoid

hydro

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10
Q

Apert and Crouzons have premature closure of what suture?

A

coronal (brachycephaly)

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11
Q

Are parietal foramina benign? What causes them?

A

yes

venous anamolies

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12
Q

Too many wormian bones make you think what disease?

A

Osteogenesis Imperfecta

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13
Q

Too many wormian bones plus an absent clavicle should make you think what disease?

A

cleido-cranial dysostosis

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14
Q

What is the mnemonic for too many Wormian Bones?

A

PORK CHOP

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15
Q

What is the appearance of dermoid/epidermoid of the skull have?

A

benign appearing, sclerotic

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16
Q

Where are the two classic locations for a congenital dermal sinus of the face/skull?

A

nose and occiput

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17
Q

A cephalohematoma lies under what structure?

A

periosteum

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18
Q

A subgaleal hemorrhage lies ON TOP of what structure?

A

periosteum

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19
Q

What type of scalp hematoma can cause life threatening bleeding?

A

subgaleal hematoma

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20
Q

What complication can happen to a cephalohematoma?

A

super-infection

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21
Q

Supposedely, depressed fractures greater than what distance need surgery?

A

> 5mm

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22
Q

What is the textook definition of a sinus pericranii?

A

“abnormal communication between an intracranial dural sinus and extracranial venous structure”

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23
Q

What has a stronger association with NAT, epidurals or subdurals?

A

subdurals

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24
Q

Greater than what size is needed to diagnose BESSI? What is the etiology?

A

> 5mm

immature villi

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25
Q

What is the most common cause of macrocephaly? What does this predispose to?

A

BESSI

subdural

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26
Q

PVL pre-disposes a child to what type of abnormality?

A

CP

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27
Q

How long do PVL cysts take to develop?

A

4 weeks

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28
Q

By what age of gestation should the germinal matrix cease to exist?

A

36 weeks

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29
Q

What is the definition of a grade 1 germinal matrix hemorrhage?

A

blood at caudo-thalamic groove

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30
Q

What is the definition of a grade 2 germinal matrix hemorrhage?

A

blood in vents, vents are normal size

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31
Q

What is the definition of a grade 3 germinal matrix hemorrhage?

A

blood in vents, vents dilated

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32
Q

What is the definition of a grade 4 germinal matrix hemorrhage?

A

intraparenchymal hemorrhage

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33
Q

What is the most common syndromic associated with choanal atresia?

A

CHARGE

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34
Q

What type of defects are associated with choanal atresia?

A

midline defects, SPECIFICALLY hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal

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35
Q

What are the two radiotracers for ectopic thyroid?

A

I-123 or Tc-MIBI

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36
Q

An enhancing nodule within a thyroglossal duct cyst should make you think what?

A

cancer (papillary)

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37
Q

What does a pediatric neck dermoid look like?

A

“sac of marbles”

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38
Q

Is phlebectasia associated with a stenosis?

A

no

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39
Q

Does the chin point towards or away from fibromatosis coli?

A

away

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40
Q

What is the most common soft tissue mass in the trachea?

A

subglottic hemangioma

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41
Q

What does subglottic hemangioma look like on frontal Xray?

A

unilateral croup

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42
Q

What is a laryngeal cleft? How are these definitively diagnosed?

A

communication between larynx and trachea

endoscopy

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43
Q

How many ribs are necessary to say the lungs are hyperinflated?

A

6 anterior or 8 posterior

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44
Q

With meconium aspiration, are lung volumes normal or high?

A

high

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45
Q

What additional finding is seen with meconium aspiration 20-40% of time?

A

ptx

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46
Q

In addition to C-section, what are two risk factors for TTN?

A

materal diabetes

maternal sedation

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47
Q

Surfactant deficiency can cause what two complications?

A

pulmonary hemorrhage

increased risk of PDA

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48
Q

Does GBS pneumonia have high or low lung volumes?

A

low

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49
Q

Does non-GBS pneumonia have high or low lung volumes?

A

high

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50
Q

Can surfactant administration mimic PIE?

A

yes

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51
Q

Does intra-lobar pulmonary sequestration have venous drainage to pulmonary or systemic veins?

A

pulmonary veins

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52
Q

Does extra-lobar pulmonary sequestration have venous drainage to pulmonary or systemic veins?

A

systemic

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53
Q

Is intra or extralobar pulmonary sequestration associated with other congential anamolies?

A

extra

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54
Q

When does extra-lobar pulmonary sequestration present? Why?

A

infancy

respiratory compromise

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55
Q

Do bronchogenic cysts communicate with the airway?

A

no

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56
Q

Which lobe is favored with congenital lobar emphysema?

A

left upper

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57
Q

Do CCAM/CPAM communicate with the airway?

A

yes

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58
Q

How is CLE treated?

A

lobectomy

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59
Q

Mortality rate of CDH is related to what?

A

degree of pulmonary hypoplasia

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60
Q

Most CDH pts have what entity?

A

congenital heart disease

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61
Q

Essentially all CDH patients are what?

A

malrotated

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62
Q

Regarding a bronchial foreign body, what side is put down?

A

affected side

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63
Q

Does CF have an absent or clogged vas deferens?

A

absent

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64
Q

What liver pathology can CF patients get?

A

biliary cirrhosis

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65
Q

Do men with PCD has absent vas deferns or immobile sperm?

A

immobile sperm

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66
Q

Does pleuralpulmonary blastoma invade the chest wall?

A

no

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67
Q

What complication can happen if a UVC becomes lodged in the PV?

A

hepatic infarct

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68
Q

What are the two positions for appropriate placement of a UAC?

A

high = T8-10

Low = L3 - L5

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69
Q

What is a contraindiction for a UAC?

A

omphalocele

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70
Q

Klinefelter syndrome is highly associated with what mediastinal mass?

A

“extra-gonadal germ cell tumor”

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71
Q

Rash after antibiotics should make you think which two things?

A

amoxicillin after mono

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72
Q

What vascular abnormality needs to be identifed prior to TEF repair?

A

right arch

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73
Q

How many VACTERL abnormalities need to be diagnosed in order to be VACTERL?

A

three

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74
Q

What is the only vascular variant that courses between the esophagus and trachea?

A

pulmonary sling

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75
Q

What vascular variant will produce an indentation on the anterior esophagus and posterior trachea?

A

double arch

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76
Q

What is a diverticulum of kommerrell?

A

aneurysmal out pouching of proximal origin of aberrant left subclavian

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77
Q

Corkscrew duodenum should make you think what disease?

A

midgut volvulus

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78
Q

How will the SMA appear in relation to the SMV during midgut volvulus?

A

SMA to RIGHT of SMV

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79
Q

How do Ladd’s Bands present?

A

intermittent episodes of duodenal obstruction

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80
Q

What two time frames does hypertrophic pyloric stenosis not occur?

A

at birth

after three months

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81
Q

What are two two size criteria for HPS?

A

4 and 14 mm

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82
Q

Where does a duodenal web occur in relation to the ampulla of vater?

A

distally

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83
Q

How does annular pancreas present in kids?

A

obstruction

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84
Q

How does annular pancreas present in adults?

A

pancreatitis

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85
Q

Short micro-colon should make you think what?

A

colonic atresia

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86
Q

Long microcolon can be seen with what two diseases?

A

meconium ileus

distal ileal atresia

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87
Q

What is another name for meconium plug syndrome?

A

small left colon syndrome

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88
Q

Is meconium plug syndrome associated with CF?

A

no

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89
Q

Meconium plug syndrome is most often seen with what two conditions?

A

maternal diabetes

magnesium sulfate

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90
Q

‘Sawtooth’ appearance of the rectum should make you think what disease?

A

Hirschsprung

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91
Q

Imperforate anus patients need to be screened for what?

A

tethered cord

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92
Q

Are direct or indirect hernias more common in kids?

A

indirect

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93
Q

Pressure should not exceed what during air contrast enema?

A

120 mm Hg

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94
Q

How is tension pneumoperitoneum treated?

A

needle decompression

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95
Q

What are the two types of ectopic mucosa in a meckels diverticulum?

A

gastric and pancreatic

96
Q

Is gastroschisis always on the right or left sides?

A

right

97
Q

What part of the GI tract are enteric duplication cysts most commonly located?

A

ileal region

98
Q

What can enteric duplication cysts cause in utero?

A

bowel perforation/obstruction

99
Q

30% of enteric duplication cysts are associated with what?

A

vertebral anamolies

100
Q

DIOS in CF patients often occurs due to what?

A

not taking enzymes

101
Q

Other than prematurity, what is the other risk factor for NEC?

A

congenital heart disease

102
Q

What causes fibrosing colonopathy? What part of the colon is effected?

A

pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy

right colon

103
Q

What is the second most common cause of pancreatic insufficiency in kids?

A

Schwachman Diamond syndrome

104
Q

What are the thre symptoms of Schwachman Diamond syndrome?

A
  1. pancreatic insufficiency/diarrhea
  2. eczema
  3. short stature
105
Q

Where in the pancreas are most of the beta cells located?

A

tail

106
Q

Does the dorsal or ventral bud form the pancreatic tail?

A

dorsal

107
Q

What is the most common pediatric neoplasm of the pancreas? Demographic?

A

SPEN

young girl, asian or black

108
Q

What is an infantile hepatic hemagioma associated with?

A

high output HF

109
Q

An enlarged aorta above the celiac takeoff would be indicative of what liver abnormality?

A

hepatic hemangioma

110
Q

What growth factor is elevated with hepatic hemangioma of the liver?

A

EGFR

111
Q

What hepatic malignancy is associated with multiple syndromes?

A

hepatoblastoma

112
Q

Prematurity is a risk factor for what liver abnormality?

A

hepatoblastoma

113
Q

What pediatric liver abnormality is cystic in appearance?

A

mesenchymal hamartoma

114
Q

What pediatric liver abnormality is cystic in appearance?

A

mesenchymla hamartoma

115
Q

What pediatric liver abnormality often has a portal vein feeding branch?

A

mesenchymal hamartoma

116
Q

What does the central scar of FNH look like on T2?

A

bright

117
Q

Does the central scar of FNH enhance?

A

yes

118
Q

What does the central scar of fibrolamellar HCC look like on T2?

A

T2 dark

119
Q

Does the central scar of fibrolamellar HCC enhance?

A

no

120
Q

What is the “pissed off cousin” of the hepatic mesenchymal hamartoma?

A

undifferentiated embryonal sarcoma

121
Q

What is the most common choledochal cyst?

A

Type I

122
Q

What is a type 1 choledochal cust?

A

focal dilation of CBD

123
Q

What type of choledochal cyst is Caroli’s Disease?

A

Type 5

124
Q

Is Caroli disease intrahepatic or extrahepatic?

A

intra-hepatic

125
Q

What is the ‘sign’ for Caroli disease? What does this represent?

A

central dot sign

portal vein in dilated bile duct

126
Q

What two things happen in the kidney are associated with a patient with Caroli?

A

polycystic kidney

medullary sponge kidney

127
Q

What two abnormalities are seen in the liver with HHT?

A

cirrhosis

massively dilated hepatic artery

128
Q

Is biliary atresia intra or extra hepatic?

A

extra

129
Q

What visceral organ may be absent with biliary atresia?

A

gallbladder

130
Q

Is Alagille Syndrome intra or extrahepatic atresia?

A

intrahepatic

131
Q

A pediatric patient with gallstones should make you think what disease?

A

sickle cell

132
Q

Is azygous continuation a left or right sided isomerism?

A

left

133
Q

Is right or left sided isomerism associated with more cardiac malformations?

A

right

134
Q

What causes ‘pancake’ adrenal gland?

A

renal agenesis

135
Q

Horse shoe kidney gets trapped on what structure?

A

IMA

136
Q

Renal Carcinoid is a zebra seen with what condition?

A

horse shoe kidney

137
Q

Which kidney is inferior during crossed fused renal ectopia, the ectopic kidney or normally placed kidney?

A

ectopic

138
Q

What changes management of UPJ obstruction?

A

looking for crossing vessels on CT

139
Q

What is often the cause of death with ARPKD?

A

portal hypertension

140
Q

What are the three risk factors for neonatal renal vein thrombosis?

A

maternal diabetes

sepsis

dehydration

141
Q

How does neonatal renal artery thrombosis present? What is the most common cause?

A

acute hypertension

UAC

142
Q

What is the definition of a ureterocele? What are ureteroceles associated with?

A

“intra-cystic dilation of ureter”

duplicated collecting system

143
Q

PUV is a remnant of what structure?

A

wolfian duct

144
Q

What is the pathophysiology of a hutch diverticula?

A

“congenital muscular defect”

145
Q

What is the most common complication of a urachal remnant?

A

infection

146
Q

Does bladder extrophy increase the likelihood of squamous cell or adenocarcinoma of the herniated bladder?

A

adeno

147
Q

What osseus defect is associated with bladder exstrophy?

A

unfused pubic ramus

148
Q

Does a cloacal malformation occur only in boys or girls?

A

girls

149
Q

WHat renal malignancy can one be born with?

A

mesoblastic nephroma

150
Q

What is the pathophysiology behind nephroblastomatosis? Might turn into what? Ultrasound until when? How often?

A

embrylogical crap that didnt involute

bilateral wilms

age 7-8, q3 months

151
Q

Where does Wilms tumor most often met?

A

lung

152
Q

Where does clear cell Wilms met to?

A

bone

153
Q

Where does rhabdoid wilms met to?

A

brain

154
Q

Multi-locular cystic nephrome cannot be differentiated from what other renal tumor?

A

cystic wilms

155
Q

RCC in a kid should make you think what disease?

A

VHL

156
Q

Necrosis within nephroblastomatosis should make you think what?

A

wilms

157
Q

What is the buzz word for nephroblastomatosis appearance?

A

hypodense rind

158
Q

Mesoblastic nephroma is essentially what on pathology?

A

fetal hamartoma

159
Q

Does MCDK have micro or macro cysts? Do they communicate?

A

macro

do not communicate

160
Q

What are the three main abnormalities of Beckwith Wiedemann?

A
  1. hemi-hypertrophy
  2. omphalocele
  3. hepatoblastoma
161
Q

What are the two main symptoms of Sotos syndrome?

A

macrocephaly

retarded

162
Q

What are the abnormalities of WAGR syndrome?

A

wilms

aniridia

genital stuff

growth retardation

163
Q

What are the three abnormalities of denys-drash syndrome?

A

wilms

pseudo-hermaphroditism

progressive glomerulo-nephritis

164
Q

Biopsy wilms? Why?

A

never

seed tract

165
Q

What two genital abnormalities does wilms like to pal a round with?

A

hypospadias

cryptorchidism

166
Q

What is the most common pediatric bladder malignancy?

A

rhabdomyosarcoma

167
Q

What is the presentation of a rhabdomyosarcoma in the scrotum?

A

“para-testicular mass”

168
Q

What age must Stage 4S neuroblastoma be diagnosed under?

A

age 1

169
Q

Neuroblastoms stage 4S mets are confirmed to what three locations?

A
  1. Liver
  2. skin
  3. bone MARROW
170
Q

What are the five most common causes of lucent metaphyseal lines?

A

congenital infection

anatomic variation

metastatic NB

earlier infection

leukemia/lymphoma

171
Q

What calcifies, neuroblastoma or wilms?

A

NB

172
Q

What invades vessels, Wilms or NB?

A

wilms

173
Q

What encases vessels, Wilms or NB?

A

NB encases

174
Q

What is circumscribed, wilms or NB?

A

wilms

175
Q

Neonatal adrenal hemorrhage is associated with hemorrhage where else?

A

scrotum

176
Q

Blue Dot Sign on physical exam is found with what disease process? Greater than what size?

A

testicular appendage infarction

> 5mm

177
Q

What testicular tumor is often bilateral? What genetic condition can this be seen in?

A

sertoli cell

Peutz Jegher

178
Q

What class of patients are at risk for testicular lymphoma?

A

immunosuppressed

179
Q

How does testicular lymphoma look like on US?

A

multiple hypo-echoic masses

180
Q

What testicular neoplasm often has elevated AFP?

A

yolk sac tumor

181
Q

Are sacrococcygeal teratomas more often benign if they present younger or older?

A

younger

182
Q

Are sacrococcygeal teratomas more likely to be malignant if entirely within the abdomen or pelvis?

A

within abdomen = more likely malignant

183
Q

What type of sacrococcygeal teratoma is entirely within the abdomen?

A

Type 4

184
Q

What type of sacrococcygeal teratoma is entirely outside the pelvis?

A

Type 1

185
Q

What muscle group inserts on the iliac crest?

A

rectus

186
Q

What muscle group originates from the ASIS?

A

sartorius

187
Q

What muscle group originates from the AIIS?

A

rectus femoris

188
Q

Which group of kids are prone to a Sinding Larsen Johannson lesion?

A

CP

189
Q

What is the wimberger sign? Where is it seen?

A

destruction of the medial portion of the tibial metaphysis

syphillis

190
Q

What type of neonatal medication is known to cause a periosteal reaction?

A

prostaglandin

191
Q

What two bones are involved with physiological periostitis of the newborn? What part of the bone?

A

femur and tibia

diaphysis

192
Q

Physiological periostitis occurs in which bone first, femur or tibia?

A

femur

193
Q

What two patient populations can have osteomyelitis spread to the epiphysis?

A

newborns and adults

194
Q

What is a risk factor for achondroplasia?

A

advanced PATERNAL age

195
Q

What is another name for Jeune Disease?

A

asphyxiating thoracic dystrophy

196
Q

What do the ribs look like with jeuene disease?

A

short

197
Q

What are the four findings of Gorlin Synrome?

A

Bifid ribs

falx calcs

basal cell cancers

odontogenic keratocysts

198
Q

What are the three findings of pynknodysostosos?

A

Osteopetrosis

wormian bones

acro-osteolysis

199
Q

What is a sprengel deformity? When is it seen?

A

high riding scapula

klippel-feil

200
Q

What syndrome possesses an omovertebral bone?

A

klippel feil

201
Q

What are the three mucopolysaccharidoses?

A

hunter

hurler

morquio

202
Q

What is the most common cause of death in the mucopolysaccharidoses?

A

cervical myelopathy at C2

203
Q

What are the two osseus findings of NF1 in the leg?

A

anterior tibial bowing

pseudo-arthrosis of the distal fibula

204
Q

What disease has an Erlenmeyer shaped femur?

A

gaucher

205
Q

What do the vertebral bodies look like with Gauchers diease?

A

H-shaped

206
Q

What happens to the femoral heads with Gauchers?

A

AVN

207
Q

Blounts disease is not seen before what age?

A

two

208
Q

What does talipes mean?

A

congenital

209
Q

What does ‘Equines’ mean?

A

plantar flexed ankle

210
Q

What does varus mean?

A

fore foot turned in

211
Q

What does valgus mean in regards to the forefoot?

A

forefoot turned out

212
Q

What is the latin term for high arch?

A

cavus

213
Q

What is more common, osseus of fibrous coalition?

A

fibrous

214
Q

DDH more common in male or females?

A

female

215
Q

DDH seen with polyhydramnios or oligohydramnios?

A

oligo

216
Q

Regarding DDH, the alpha angle should be less than what?

A

60 degrees

217
Q

Fraying, cupping and irregularity along the physeal margin should make you think of what?

A

ricketts

218
Q

What are ricketts patients at an increased risk of?

A

SCFE

219
Q

Is ricketts seen in newborns?

A

no

220
Q

What is it called if findings similar to ricketts are seen in a newborn?

A

hypo-phosphatasia

221
Q

What is the metabolic abnormality with hypophosphatasia?

A

insufficient alkaline phosphatase

222
Q

Scurvy does not occur before what age?

A

6 months

223
Q

What happens to the periosteum with scurvy?

A

subperiosteal hemorrhage

224
Q

What can happen to the joint spaces with scurvy?

A

hemarthrosis

225
Q

What is the differential for lucent metaphyseal band?

A

LINE

Leukemia

Infection (torch)

Neuroblastoma met

Endocrine (scurvy, ricketts)

226
Q

What is the pathophysiology with a tethered cord?

A

ischemia

227
Q

Conus below what level would be concerning for a tethered cord?

A

L2

228
Q

Conus greater than what size would be concerning for a tethered cord?

A

> 2mm

229
Q

What two congenital entities can be associated with a tethered cord?

A

myelomeningocele

filum terminale lipoma

230
Q

At what level, above or below, would a skin dimple need screened for a tethered cord?

A

gluteal crease

231
Q

A lipomyelocele or lipomyelomeningocele is 100% associated with what other abnormality?

A

tethered cord

232
Q

What is the term for a duplicated cord?

A

diplomyelia

233
Q

What is the definition of diastematomyelia?

A

sagittal split in cord

234
Q

What are the two associations with caudal regression syndrome?

A

VACTERL

Currarino triad

235
Q

Is caudal regression syndrome associated with maternal diabetes or maternal alcoholism?

A

Diabetes

236
Q

What is the Currarino triad?

A
  1. ANTERIOR sacral meningocele
  2. Anorectal malformation
  3. scimitar sacrum
237
Q

Are parietal foramina benign?

A

yes

pediatric trivia (1 decks)

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