Pediatric Board Review Flashcards

1
Q

What are signs and symptoms of a central cause of hypotonia

A

Axial hypotonia, normal-to-slightly decreased weakness, normal DTR, no muscle fasciculation, normal muscle bulk, normal sensation

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2
Q

What is the difference between a brown recluse spider bite and a black widow spider bite?

A

A brown recluse spider bite will cause localized necrosis and skin break down (redness, itching, hemorrhagic ulcer). Black widow spider bike will cause GI s/s (nausea, pain, parathesias) and more systemic signs and symptoms for acetylcholine and NE release at nerve endings. Typical story will be cleaning an attic or garage

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3
Q

Provide examples of hydrocarbons and how to treat ingestions

A

Hydrocarbons = lamp oil, nail polish, pine oil, gasolene, lighter fluid, paints, solvents. They can cause MODS (encephalopathy, myocardial dysfunction, arrhythmias, resp distress, liver injury, ATN). Even if they have exposure but no s/s, observe for 6 hrs. Very common to have aspiration event that leads to chemical pneumonitis and should be treated with oxygen and bronchodilator

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4
Q

What are signs and symptoms of hyperventilation syndrome and how do we confirm the diagnosis?

A

S/s: recent emotional trigger with hyperventilation. This causes metabolic alkalosis which causes decreased ionized calcium (albumin binds the calcium d/t alkalosis decreasing free calcium), and this causes parasthesias. You confirm diagnosis with capillary blood gas.

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5
Q

How do you work-up and evaluate a thyroid nodule?

A

All get a thyroid US and Thyroid studies. If > 1 cm obtain a fine needle aspiration if they are solid, or if there are other suspicious features: (hypoechogenicity, irregular margins, increased intranodular blood flow, microcalcifications, abnormal cervical lymph nodes)

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6
Q

Describe the differences between ETEC and Entamoeba histolytica.

A

ETEC - usually starts 1-3 days after exposure, lasts 3-4 days, low grade fever, non-bloody diarrhea.
E. h. more severe, bloody diarrhea, tenesmus, wt loos, high fever, crampy abdominal pain. most common cause worldwide, transmission by fecal-oral route. Both can happen with travelling. Treatment of amoebic colitis is with intravenous (or oral) metronidazole (35-50 mg/kg per day every 8 hours) or oral tinidazole (age ≥3 years: 50 mg/kg, max 2 g orally, once daily for 5 days).

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7
Q

what is the first line antibiotics for acute bacterial lymphadenitis? and what organisms do you suspect?

A

Unasyn -The most common bacteria isolated in these infections are Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus pyogenes, other Streptococcus species, and anaerobes. Ampicillin/sulbactam or clindamycin

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8
Q

What does the AAP recommend for toilet training?

A

The AAP recommends avoiding: 1) pressure or negative reinforcement, and 2) initiation during times of transition, such as a new school, moving, new caregivers, or new siblings, and 3) keeping toddlers in wet or soiled diapers. The child-directed approach recommends that children should: 1) be encouraged to use the toilet when feeling the urge to go rather than at scheduled times; 2) have a safe, comfortable toilet-training environment, including an accessible toilet or chair at the appropriate size, and 3) use training paints as a transition from diapers to underwear.

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9
Q

How is PPROM managed?

A

all are hospitalized. If < 32 weeks, expectant management. If 32-39 weeks, fetal lung maturity testing with lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio, phophatidylglycerol level, etc. All get antibiotics if go into labor. If in labor > 48 hrs give GBS ABX for 48 hrs

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10
Q

What is Bloom Syndrome

A

Blood syndrome is an AR disorder, also called congenital telangiectatic erythema, causes sun-exposed rashes, telangictasias, increased risk for cancer, hypogonadism. Face is long and narrow, prominent ears. Long extremities. Decreased serum IgG, IgM, and IgA. Mutation in BLM causes altered function of DNA helicase activity

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11
Q

What is the newborn test for SCID?

A

T-cell Receptor Excision Circles (surrogate measure for Naive T-cells)

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12
Q

Differentiate the different types of E.coli infection (ETEC vs STEC vs EPEC vs entero-invasive Ecoli

A

Reference screen shot

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13
Q

What is bathrocephaly

A

Prominent occiput with no frontal bossy. It is causes be persisent mendosal suture (that typically disappears in utero). Often confused with sagittal synostosis, but this causes frontal bossing, narrowing of biparietal diameter. Sagittal synostosis should be referred for NSG proc, bathrocephaly is reassurance.

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14
Q

Describe erythema multiforme

A

Typically triggered by infection (like HSV, EBV, mycoplasma, etc). Dusky center, surrounding pallor, ring of erythema. Involves drunk, extremities, palms. Meds can also trigger (NSAIDs, anit-epileptics, etc)

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15
Q

Describe ectodermal dysplasia

A

Many different forms, most common is X-linked. Has to effect 2 of the following: hair, teeth, nails, and sweat glands. Common to have hypodontia, hypohidrosis, hypotrichosis (little hair). It is critical to avoid overheating if they do not sweat, remainder is supportive care for body systems involved

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16
Q

What are the indications for ABX ppx for dental procedures?

A
  • prosthetic cardiac valve or prosthetic material used in cardiac valve repair
  • previous hx of endocarditis
  • Specific congenital heart disease (CHD)
    1. Unrepaired cyanotic cardiac lesions, including palliative shunts or conduits
    2. Completely repaired CHD (via surgical or interventional procedure) with prosthetic material/device for the first 6 months after the procedure
    3. Repaired CHD with residual defects at or adjacent to the site of prosthetic material which would present endothelialization
  • A history of cardiac transplantation with valvulopathy
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17
Q

What is the best screening test for HIV?

A

HIV-1/HIV-2 antibody/antigen combination assay. Screen at least once between the ages of 13-64, and annually for those w/ high risk

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18
Q

What sports should be limited in those w/ 1 functional eye? What precautions do they need to take?

A
  • Definition is vision worse than 20/40 corrected
  • should wear protective eye wear in all sports, and they should not participate in sports where they cannot wear protective eye wear (i.e. wrestling, boxing, martial arts). Basketball and baseball are high-risk sports for eye-injury, but you can wear protective eye wear
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19
Q

What is spasmus nutans?

A

A form of fine, horizontal, pendular nystagmus found between 6-24 months that usually resolves with time (months to years). They have a normal brain MRI and development. It is associated with torticollis and slow head nodding

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20
Q

What is Job Syndrome?

A

Job syndrome is AKA Hyper-IgE syndrome and presents with eczema, eosionphillia, recurrent skin abscesses, lung infections

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21
Q

What is Wisckot-Aldrich Syndrome?

A

Combination of thrombocytopenia, eczema, and recurrent infections. May have log IgM and elevated IgG and IgE. Can treat w/ IV-IG + platelet transfusions or HSCT in severe cases

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22
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria of Benign Paroxysmal Vertigo in childhood?

A
  1. Brief episodes of nausea, vomiting, nystagmus, dizziness, ataxia fearfullness. 2. Normal neuro exam in between episodes 3. symptom free intervals 4. non-attributable to othe disorders. Typically in children age 2-12 yrs, may go on to develop migraines. Middle ear pathology is most common cause of vertigo, so consider this for ddx. Long-term prognosis good, remits by adolescence. Treat with anti-emitics or anti-histamines if long-lasting s/s
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23
Q

Describe characteristics of toxocariasis infections?

A

s/s: Wheeing, hepatomegaly, anemia, FTT/poor weight gain, pica, eosinophilia
Exposure to dogs or cats (visceral larva migrans)
Dx by Serum IgG to Toxocara
albendazole is the treatment
It is a tissue roundworm infection

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24
Q

Describe cohort vs case-control vs cross-sectional

A

Cohort: a cohort is observed over time for the development of the outcome of interest.
Case-control: You have “cases” and “controls” and you look for exposures/risk factors. Good for rare diseases
Cross-sectional: looks at exposures and outcomes in a single point in time, not followed longitudinally

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25
Q

Describe indications for antibiotics in a neonate.

A

If mother meets criteria for intra-amniotic infection (F > 39 + 1 of following: leukocytosis, purulent discharge from cervix, fetal tachycardia) then ABX are recommended in these situations: Signs of sepsis, gestational age < 37 W, maternal PROM, inadequate tx GBS colonization, evidence of maternal chorioamnionitis

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26
Q

What are the Rome IV clinical diagnostic criteria for colic

A
  • younger than 5 months at the start and end of symptoms
  • Crying > 3 hrs/day for at least 3 days/week
  • No evidence of underlying medical problem
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27
Q

Describe typical characteristics of juvenile polyposis syndrome?

A
  • age 2-6 typically
  • Painless hematochezia
  • Most polyps are pedunculated w/ narrow stalk
  • Tx if removal of polpy, no repeat colonoscopy is needed
  • Most common syndromes w/ several polyposis: FAP, JPS, Peutz-Jeghers, hamartoma syndrome (should be suspected when have 5 or more)
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28
Q

Describe the gram stain of shigella vs E coli

A

Gram-negative rod that is non-lactose fermenting, oxidase negative, and non-hydrogen sulfide producing. Only needs a small amount of organisms for infection

vs

Gram neg rod, ferments lactose

Salmonella produces hydrogen sulfide (red-black center)

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29
Q

What are the birth defects you can see in fetuses exposed to carbamazepine, valproate, and phenytoin?

A

Carbamazepine and Valproate: spina bifda vs NTD (increased risk in later of 2)

Phenytoin: Fetal hydrantoin syndrome: Growth restriction, delays, craniofacial anomalies, microcephaly, hypoplastic fingers/nails

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29
Q

What are the differences between von Willebrand Disease type 2B and Type 1

A

Type 2B: can be associated w/ neonatal thrombocytopenia. Tx w/ antihemophilic factor/vWF complex or another factor VIII/vWF concentrate. DO NOT use desmopressin as it can cause a transient decrease in platelets (this is a qualitative defect)

Type 1: Can use desmopression as this increase in factor VIII activity, von Willebrand antigen, and ristocetin cofactor activity. Tx can cause hyponatermia so restric fluids (this is the only type of vWD that can be treated with this, as it is a quantitative defect) - most common type

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30
Q

What is Blau Syndrome?

A

Familial form of scarcoidosis presents w/ uveitis, “boggy arthritis” and rash

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31
Q

What diseases cause amyloid deposition?

A

SLE, Bechet disease, Familial Mediterranean Fever, IBD, TB, chronic osteomyelitis. Kidney disease is the most common and serious manifestation of amyloid deposition

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32
Q

Differentiate Type A vs Type As vs Type Ad vs Type B vs Type C tympanograms (reference screen shot pdf for visual)

A

Type A: normal
Type As: shallwo peak, normal position but low ocmpliance, seen ww/ ossicular fixation, TM scarring or otosclerosis.
Type Ad: (disarticulation) normal peak pressure but highly compliant TM seen w/ ossicular chain discontinuity
Type B: peak that is absent or poorly defined. Poorly mobile TM seen w/ middle ear effusion or perforated ear drums
Type c: Clear peak, but peak shifted to left, indicating negative pressure in middle ear, seen with Eustachian tube dysfunction

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33
Q

What is validity? Internal vs External Validity?

A

validity evaluates the extent to which a measurement or finding is accurate or true.
Internal validity examines the ability of a tool to accurately measure the intended condition.
External validity or generalizability measure the extent to which the tool can be used in the broader population

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34
Q

What are the 2 types of internal validity

A

Convergent validity: When you use 2 different tests looking at the same outcome to see if the produce the same results.
Predictive validity: evaluates the accuracy of a tool to measure a future event or outcome

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35
Q

What are the types of reliability?

A

Test-retest reliability: measures the ability of an instrument or tool to produce the same results w/ repeated measurements.

Interrelator reliability: measures the ability of 2 individuals to independently produce the same results

Internal consistency reliability: is a measure of how consistent the items within a single instrument are with each other

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36
Q

A patient has a sub-mucosal cleft palate, long narrow face with widely spaced eyes, what syndrome could this be and describe it?

A

Loeys-Dietz syndrome (LDS). AD condition w/ characteristic vascular findings (aortic aneurysms, arterial tortuosity), craniofacial findings (hypertelorism, bifid uvula, cleft palate, craniosynostosis), and musculoskeletal findings (pectus excavatum or carinatum, arachnodactyly, joint laxity). The diagnosis of LDS is made when the characteristic clinical features are present and/or genetic testing. Loeys-Dietz syndrome is associated with pathologic variants in the TGFBR1, TGFBR2, SMAD3, and TGFB2 genes. Individuals with suspected LDS should be screened for aortic root dilatation and monitored for progression and development of aortic dissection. Contact sports and isometric exercises should be restricted due to the risk of increasing systemic vascular resistance.

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37
Q

How does a cryptosporidium infection present? What is the treatment for this?

A

Cryptosporidium causes watery diarrhea after drinking contaminated water or hanging out at recreational water parks. Treat only w/ severe s/s (>10 episodes/day or s/s > 2 weeks) treat w/ nitazoxanide In a child with HIV infection, prompt initiation of antiretroviral therapy (eg, dolutegravir, emtricitabine, and tenofovir combination) to improve the CD4 cell count results in resolution of diarrheal symptoms.

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38
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for bacterial vaginosis

A
  1. Homogeneous, thin vaginal discharge that smoothly coats the vaginal walls
  2. Clue cells (vaginal epithelial cells covered with adherent bacteria) on microscopic examination (Item C234A)
  3. pH of vaginal fluid >4.5 (normal vaginal pH is 3.8 to 4.3)
  4. Fishy odor of vaginal discharge before or after addition of 10% potassium hydroxide (KOH; ie, the whiff test)
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39
Q

Describe Spondylosis vs Spondylolisthesis, diagnosis and treatment

A

Spondylosis is a fracture of the vertebral pars interarticularis. Spondylolisthesis is a fracture with anterior displacement of the vertebral bodies. Diagnoses by plain radiography. Treat w/ NSAIDs, rest for 6 weeks, and strength exercises. They may require bracing or spinal fusion if significant displacement and/or neurological symptoms are present.

39
Q

What is the treatment for congenital idiopathic talipes equinovarus? What is on the ddx?

A

Ponseti method - serial casting. Must be down by orthopedic surgeon
Metatarsus adductus: forefoot points inward, but the hindfoot is normal. The ankle can easily dorsiflex past neutral, and the subtalar joint moves normally.

39
Q

What are the 3 types of clavicle fractures? Which is the most common? Which is the least worrisome? Which is the most worrisome? When do you need to refer for orthopedic consultation, internal reduction and fixation?

A

Class 1: middle third (most common), class 2: distal end (heal w/ rest, ice, NSAID), Class 3: proximal (least common, most likely to require referral)
Urgent orthopedic consultation should be obtained for open fractures, sternoclavicular dislocation, distal displaced fractures, tenting of the skin over the clavicle, or evidence of neurovascular compromise

40
Q

Describe indications for statin therapy.

A

Statin therapy (eg, atorvastatin) is recommended for those aged 10 years and older whose LDL cholesterol level remains above goal after lifestyle modification. For those with a family history of cardiovascular disease, 1 high-level risk factor, or 2 or more moderate-level risk factors, the threshold for starting statin therapy is an LDL cholesterol level ≥160 mg/dL (4.1 mmol/L). The treatment goal is an LDL level <130 mg/dL (3.4 mmol/L). For those at higher risk, the threshold for statin treatment is an LDL level ≥130 mg/dL (3.4 mmol/L). The treatment goal is an LDL level <100 mg/dL (2.6 mmol/L).

41
Q

Describe the work-up of a sub-acute or chronic lymphadenopathy?

A

Sub-acute is 2-6 weeks, chronic is > 6 weeks. Most common cause is infectious so work-up should be targeted towards this (CBC, EBV + CMV + bartonella serology/titers). If this negative, then thick of non-TB mycobacterim and FNA can dx this (vs surgical exicision). US may be helpful with general work-up but doesn’t give you an exact diagnosis.

42
Q

How long do you treat HSV that is in the eye, skin, mouth vs CNS?

A

14 vs 21 (21 days for disseminated as well)

43
Q

Which populations should you consider giving varicella-zoster IG?

A
  1. children w/ immunocompromised
  2. Pregnant females
  3. newborns whose mothers had variclla from 5 days before to 48 hrs after delivery.
    Hospitalized preterm infants >/= to 28 weeks if born to varicella antibody-negative mothers
  4. Hospitalized PReM infants < 28 w of gestation or < 1000 G regardless of varicella status of mother
44
Q

Describe the infection from human herpesvirus 6 infection

A

AKA 6th disease or Roseola. Presents w/ fever for 3-5 days, abrupst cessation of fever and then appearance of a macular-to-macularpapular rash. Rash beings on trunk, spreads to extremities, sparing face

45
Q

Describe an older child w/ Rubella infection. What are the oral spots called.

A

Typical s/s are fever, headache, sore thorat, cough, mild coryza, mailase. Spots are Forchhiemer spots (sm red spots that appear on soft palate)

46
Q

What differentiates the oral lesions of herpangina from those w/ HSV?

A

Herpangina: tiny vesicles or punched out ulcers on uvula, posterior oropharynx, or tonsilas.
HSV: front part of moth, extends onto lips

47
Q

Within what time frame after exposure should rabies vaccine be given, and in how many doses?

A

Give vaccine w/in 1st day of exposure (Day 0) and repeat doses on days 3, 7, and 14. A 5th dose is recommend in individuals w/ immunocompromise.

48
Q

Describe the rash of erythema infectiosum? What virus causes it and what are the s/s?

A

Caused by parvovirus B19, causes “slapped cheek” appearance with circumoral pallor, lattice- or lace-like, becomes more prominent in sun or warm baths. Can cause arthritis/arthralgias, aplastic anemia. Pregnant females should not be excluded from work w/ community infections (common virus, low risk for fetal infection)

49
Q

Which HPV virus strains put you at risk for genital warts? Cervical Cancer?

A

HPV serotypes 6 and 11 - waters
HPV types 16, 18, and 31 - cervical cancer

50
Q

What is the diagnosis for fever, tachypnea w/ crackles on lung exam, purulent conjunctivitis, oral mucositis, and Target rash

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae–induced rash and mucositis (MIRM). Approximately 10% of individuals develop a nonspecific maculopapular rash. Also causes other distinct mucocutaneous eruptions including erythema multiforme, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, and MIRM.
Treatment = azithromycin + steroid therapy may shorten the clinical course of MIRM

51
Q

Describe developmental milestones of a 5 year old

A

Developmental milestones expected of a 5-year-old include the ability to balance on one foot for about 8 seconds and hop about 15 times. Children at age 5 years can copy a triangle, draw a person with 8 to 10 body parts, self-dress, count to 10, name 10 colors, and remember their phone number and address. Parents should instruct their children to memorize their telephone number for safety purposes.

Language and communication skills at age 5 years should include a more than 2,000-word vocabulary and use of complete sentences to tell stories with a beginning, middle, and end. Five-year-old children have groups of friends, are able to apologize for mistakes, enjoy rhyming words, and understand adjectives. Imagination, fantasy, and creativity emerge at this age.

52
Q

Describe developmental milestones of a 6 year old

A

Copying a flag and tying shoe laces are milestones typical of a 6-year-old child. In addition, 6-year-olds are able to tandem walk, look both ways before crossing the street, draw a diamond, and write their first and last name. Six-year-old children are able to understand seasons, know the days of the week, and count to 20. They are able to distinguish fantasy from reality and make meaningful relationships with their peers including wanting to please them.

53
Q

A person has numerous pale, bluish 0.5-to-1 cm macules around the lower abdomen, proximal thighs, and buttocks. What do you suspect?

A

Pediculosis - pubic lice (fr anticoagulant activity after injection of saliva during feed) Tx w/ topical permerthrin 1%)

54
Q

Describe noonan syndrome

A

Heart murmur: Pulmonic stenosis: ejection click heard loudest w/ inspiration over LUSB, triangular face, webbed neck, down slanting palpebral fissures, short stature, joint laxity, pectus deformity, bleeding diatheses (most common factor 11 deficiency)

55
Q

What conditions are associated w/ nasal polyps? What is the mainstay of treatment?

A

Diagnosis: allergic rhinitis, asthma, chronic sinusitis, certain drug sensitivities (ASA) and CF
Tx w/ nasal steroids

56
Q

What rash can be associated w/ reactive arthritis?

A

oral ulcers, genital ulcers, balnitis, and papular skin lesions (keratderma blennorrhagicum on palms and soles)

57
Q

What disease is associated w/ Pathergy?

A

Behcets (sterile neutrophilic infiltration of sites of injury)

58
Q

What does squatting and valsalva due to the heart?

A

squatting increases venous return, valsalva decreases venous return to heart

59
Q

What is Sotos Syndrome?

A

Overgrowth syndrome, born large for age and grow fast until 5 then have high-normal adult predicted high. They have hypertelorism, low IQ (65) w/ behavior problems (OCD, ADHD, emotional outbursts), increased risk for cancer, seizures

60
Q

What are the different types of Salter Harris fractures? Vs GreenStick Fracture?

A

For Salter Harris fractures, reference Screenshot.
A greenstick fracture occurs when a bone bends and cracks on one side, but doesn’t break all the way through. The name comes from the way a green branch of a tree breaks when bent.

61
Q

What is the typical care of a tooth avulsion?

A
  1. Clean with sterile water
  2. Put back in mouth or transport in alkaline solution (like milk)
  3. Wash w/ chlorhexidine solution BID and doxy (or amox) BID for 7 days after
62
Q

What is the correct dose of epinephrine for anaphylaxis?

A

Epi 0.01 mg/kg of 1:1000 epi.

For epi-pens: 0.15 mg for children < 30 kg or .3 mg for children > 30 kg (for epi pens)

63
Q

Immunodeficiency w/ recurrent infections in the first year of life, male, Low IgA, IgG, IgM

A

X-linked Agammaglobulinemia (Brutons)
Tx w/ Immunoglobulins and ppx abx. Presents after 3 mo of life. B-cell problems

64
Q

Describe a Brue and low risk criteria?

A

BRUE = < 1 min
- cyanosis or pallor
- altered breathing (irregular or stopped)
- hyper or hypotonia
- Altered level of responsiveness

Low risk: > 60 days, born > 32 weeks, normal physical exam, nothing concerning in hx, 1st even, no CPR given by medical professional

65
Q

What is the difference between distal patellar apophysitis vs osgood-Schlatters vs patella-femoral pain syndrome vs patellar tendonitis vs patellar instability.

A

distal patellar apophysitis: pain over distal patella, atraumatic pain over distal pole, happens with jumping or running. pain reproduce with extension and patella pressure

Osgood-Schlatters: pain over tibial tubercles, most common knee pain

patella-femoral pain syndrome : “Joggers knee”: progressive anterior pain with increased activity

patellar tendonitis: “jumping knee” : Pain along patella tendon with jumping sports

patellar instability: most common is lateral patella instability w/ medial pain, presents w/ patellar subluxation or dislocation

66
Q

Differentiate 5-alpha-reductase vs mixed gonadal dysgenesis vs androgen insensitivity sydnrome

A

Androgen insensitivity syndrome (or partial) is when there is a lack of receptors with normal hormones
5-alpha-reductase is when there is decreased conversion of testosterone to DHT (more potent hormone that creates external male structures of penis and scrotum), so will have very high testosterone and low DHT. Mixed gonadal dysgenesis: 45X/45XY: streak on one side with ovary/testes on other side

Pathophy: Need SRY gene to make male parts, absence makes female parts. Anti-mullerian hormone results in regression of mullerian structures (uterus, fallopian tubes, proximal vagina). Testosterone makes Wolfian ducts (epididymis, vas deferens, semineforous tubules)

67
Q

What is the NPO rule for sedation?

A

2 hrs clears
4 hrs breast mild
6 hrs non-human milk or solid food

68
Q

What is Mayer-Rokitansy-Kuster-Hauser Syndrome?

A

lack of development of the mullerian structures (uterus, fallopian tubes, proximal vagina)

69
Q

When are urine organic acids useful? vs Plasma acylcarnitines? vs Plasma amino acids?

A

Urine organic acids: useful for dx of organic acidemias such as isovaleric acidemia (encephalopathy, metabolic acidosis w/ ketosis, sweaty feat), propionic acidemia (severe ketoacidosis +/- hyperammonemia), and methylmalonic acidemia (ketoacids, hyperammonemia, thrombocytopenia).
Plasma acylcarnitines: fatty acid oxidation defects
Plasma amino acids: problems with amino acid metabolism (PKU, MSUD, tyrosinemia)

70
Q

What infection should you suspect when physical exam shows punctate petechial lesions overlying an erythematous vaginal mucosa on the cervix?

A

Multiple motile trichomonads on wet mount. Often complain of profuse, foul-smelling, water, or yellowish-grey vaginal discharge, pruritus
Tx w/ metronidazolex7 day and treat men x1 day

71
Q

What are symptoms of Late Lyme Disease (stage 3) vs Early disseminated Lyme disease (stage 2)

A

Late = arthritis (months to years after untreated infection), involves lg joints. Tx for 28 days
Early disseminate: aseptic meningitis, uveitis, cranial nerve palsies, carditis. Tx for facial palsy is doxy x14 days, all others IV CTX 14-21 days.
Can tx early lyme w/ doxyx10 days or amox/cefuroxim x14 d

72
Q

Describe an infection w/ German measles (Rubella)

A

mild fever, prominent postauricular and suboccipital lymphadenopathy, rash = fine, discrete, irregular, pinkish-red macules located on the face and trunk - usually lasts 3 days, also see Forchheimer spots. Adolescents may have arthralgias

73
Q

Differentiate ingestion of LSD vs huffing vs MDMA (ecstasy) vs Ketamine vs Bath Salts

A

LSD: distortions of sensory perception: dilated pupils, hyperthermia, tachycardia, and “seeing smells”

Huffing: slurred speech, lacrimation, salivation, stupor

MDMA: clenching/grinding teeth, hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, anxiety

ketamine: excessive salivation, involuntary tongue and limb movements, anxiety, laryngospasms

Bath Salts: Hallucinations, paranoia, seizures

74
Q

Within what time frame prior to administration of IV-IG would you need to repeat a vaccination? How long do you need to wait to administer a live vaccine after IV-IG?

A

If vaccine is administered within the 2 weeks preceding IV-IG - should re-dose
Need to wait 3-11 months depending on dose/indication for IV-IG. For Kawasaki, you should wait 11 months

75
Q

What is chorea? Differentiate Syndenham Chorea vs Childhood-onset hereditary chorea.

A

Chorea = hyperkinetic, irregular, involuntary movement, dance-like, continuous flow of random muscle contractions

Sydenham chorea = most common form of acquired chorea in childhood. Happens 1-8 mo after GAS infection

Childhood-onset chorea: AD NKX2-1 chorea starts in infancy w/ hypotonia–> chorea. ADCY-5 related dyskinesia–> Infancy or early childhood w/ fluctuating hyperkinetic movements

76
Q

When do you screen for perinatal Hep C exposure and with what test?

A

> 18 mo, screen w/ anti-HCV antibody testing

OR HCV-RNA testing after 2 mo

77
Q

What are the 3 treatments for SMA?

A

SMA type 1 most severe

Screen for SMA on newborn state screen

3 disease-modifying therapies: onasemnogene abeparvovec, nusinersen (started after 2 yrs) and risdiplam.

78
Q

What work-up should you do for someone who has concern for pericarditis?

A

Even if vitals are reassuring, you should eval for myocarditis component w/ troponin and echo, and admit if elevated troponin.

79
Q

What is the treatment for congenital CMV?

A

6 mo of oral valganciclovir and should monitor CBCs for cytopenias

80
Q

When do you start metformin vs insulin in type 2 diabetes as initial treatment?

A

Start metformin if no signs of acidosis, HbA1C < 8.5%, and fasting glucose < 250

Start insulin when HbA1C is > 8.5%, serum glucose > 250 w/ symptoms, or ketosis/ketoacidosis is present

81
Q

When do you start pneumocystis pneumonia prophylaxis and with what?

A

Start when undergoing treatment for cancer, cell-mediated immunodeficiencies, immunosuppression after organ transplant, and HIV w/ CD4 count < 200 cells/microL

Tx w/ Bactrim (ABX of choice) 3 cons days. Atovaquone and Dapsone (avoid if hx of SJS, TEN w/ bactrim) are safe alternatives.
Aerosolized pentam reserved for kids who can’t tolerate other agents

82
Q

What are oxygen targets at 1 min - 10 min for newborns? What initial FiO2 should you use if needed?

A

1 min - 60-65%
2 min - 65-70%
3 min - 70-75%
4 min - 75-80%
5 min - 80-85%
10 min - 85-95%

If > 35 weeks - 21%
If < 35 weeks - 21-30%

83
Q
A
84
Q

What are the alternatives for Bite wounds? For GAS? (for amox allergies)

A

Bite wounds: extended-spectrum cephalosporin or Bactrim + Clinda

GAS: Clinda for 10 days or Azithro for 5 days

85
Q

What are contraindications for DTaP vaccine?

A

anaphylactic reaction or severe neurologic sequelae/encephalopathy w/in 7 days of vaccine

Also, if have Guillain-Barre syndrome should wait at least 6 weeks before receiving next DTaP vaccine

86
Q

What levels in newborns are lower or higher compared to older children?

A

Potassium - higher (up to 5.9)
Bicarbonate - lower (18-22)
Phosphorus - Higher (up to 7.5)
Creatinine can take up to 1 week representative of mothers Cr

87
Q

What is the treatment for invasive fungal infection?

A

Echinocandin (caspofungin or micafungin). Voriconazole and liposomal amphotericin could be use, but ampho causes more risk, and with vori would need to confirm it’s a susceptible species of candida first (i.e. candida albicans), but is not good as empiric treatment.

88
Q

What babies need RoP screening?

A

all infants with birth weight < 1500 g or GA < 30 weeks

infants w/ weights 1500-2000 g or GA > 30 w/ risk (hx of hypotension requiring meds, O2 supplementation more than a few days)

89
Q

What are the X-ray findings of Congenital syphilis vs Infantile cortical hyperostosis vs osteogenesis imperfecta Type 2 vs rickets d/t Vit D def vs Fanconi syndrome

A

Syphilis: osteochondritis and periostitis, involving metaphysis and diaphysis of long bones. Appear as irregular bands of decreased mineralization or focal circumscribed areas of bony destruction

Infantile cortical hyperostosis: significant cortical thickening (often mandible) and periosteal reaction with normal mineralized bone

Osteogenesis imperfecta Type 2: extreme undermineralization of entire skeleton, vertebral flattening, hypoplastic beaded ribs, broad telescoped long bones

Rickets d/t Vit D def: widening of epiphysis, metaphyseal cupping and fraying, cortical thinning, periosteal reaction

Fanconi syndrome: rickets and osteomalacia

89
Q

What screening test should you do in a child w/ intelectual disability who is non-syndrome w/out a significant family history? What percent of patients will you find something?

A

15-20% of patients you will find something
Screen w/ chromosomal microarray analysis, consider Fragile X.

90
Q

What is the rule for body parts and guessing a child’s age?

A

For every body part they draw (2 eyes, 2 ears, mouth, nose, 2 legs, 2 arms, 2 hands, 2 feet, neck and a trunk) they get 1/4 additional age added to a base of 3

91
Q

What is the appropriate weight gain and length gain over the 1st couple years of life?

A

Weight gain: 30 g/d x3 month, then 15 g/d until 6 months, then 10 g/day up until 1 year.
Length: increases by 25 cm
Head Circumference about 13 cm (about 0.5 cm/week for first 2 months)

Another rule of thumb: Birth length increases by 50% by 1 year of age, double by 4, and triples by 13

For weight: Regain birth weight by 2 weeks, double wt by 4 mo, triple wt by 12 months, quadruple by 24 mo

92
Q

What percentage of BSA is included in SJS vs TEN? What specialist should you consult to help w/ assessment?

A

SJS is < 10%, > 30% is TEN

Must c/s an ophthalmologist for eye examintation

93
Q

What are indications for referral to a burn center? What is the rule of 9s? What is the Parkland formula?

A

See screen shot

94
Q

What is the antidote for benzodiazepine toxicity? Iron toxicity? Lead Toxicity? Tyelnol?

A

Benzo - flumazenil

Iron - Deferoxamine - consider whole bowel irrigation if stable

Lead- Dimercaprol

Tylenol - NAC