Pediatric Anesthesia Week 6 Flash Cards

1
Q

In which population is Necrotizing Enterocolitis most common in?

A

Preterm Infants

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2
Q

Morbidity associated with Necrotizing Enterocolitis include…

A
  • Short bowel syndrome
  • Sepsis
  • Adhesions associated with bowel obstruction
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3
Q

What are some risk factors associated with Necrotizing Enterocolitis?

A
  • Birth asphyxia
  • Hypotension
  • Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)
  • PDA
  • Recurrent apnea
  • Intestinal ischemia
  • Umbilical vessel cannulation
  • Systemic infections
  • Early feedings
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4
Q

What is Omphalocele?

A
  • A birth defect where intestines are COVERED with the amnion and is located AT THE BASE of the umbilicus
  • Failure of the gut to migrate from the yoke sac into the abdomen during 5TH TO 10TH WEEK OF GESTATION
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5
Q

What is Gastroschisis?

A
  • A birth defect where intestines are NOT COVERED and exposed to hypothermia, infection, and dehydration and is located PERIUMBILICAL
  • Develops as a result of OCCLUSION OF THE OMPHALOMESENTERIC ARTERY during 12TH TO 18TH WEEK OF GESTATION
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6
Q

Compare Omphalocele and Gastroschisis with regard to locaton, hernial sac, and associated congenital anomalies

A
Omphalocele: 
- Location is at the base of the umbilicus
- Hernial sac is present
- Associated congenital anomalies are present and include:
    - Trisomy 21 (Down's Syndrom)
    - Cardiac anomalies
    - Diaphragmatic hernia
    - Bladder anomalies
Gastroschisis:
- Location is lateral to umbilicus
- Hernial sac is absent
- No known associated congenital anomalies
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7
Q

Perioperative management of Omphalocele and Gastroschisis centers around what 3 preventative measures?

A
  1. Hypothermia
  2. Dehydration
  3. Infection
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8
Q

In which order, Omphalocele or Gastroschisis, are hypothermia, dehydration, and infection most serious? Why?

A

More serious in Gastroschisis because the hernial sac is absent

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9
Q

Where is the fistula usually located in a patient with a trachea-esophageal fistula (TEF)?

A

LOWER SEGMENT of the esophagus, about 90%, where the esophagus inserts just above the carina onto the posterior wall of the trachea

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10
Q

Where is the proper placement of the ETT in a patient with tracheal-esophageal fistula? Describe the procedure for intubating the patient with a TEF?

A
  • The tip of the ETT can be placed just distal to the TEF (in between the fistula and carina)
  • Steps for proper placement:
    - Insert ETT until mainstem occurs
    - Confirm with unilateral breath sounds
    - Slowly WITHDRAW until bilateral breathsounds are
    present
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11
Q

The key to successful anesthetic management of the neonate with TEF is correct positioning of the ETT. What is the important consideration for intubating the infant with a TEF? What intubaton techniques are appropriate?

A
  • AVOID POSITIVE PRESSURE VENTILATION
  • Use 1 of 2 techniques:
    • Inhalation induction followed by topical application of
      lidocaine and intubate while the patient is
      spontaneously breathing
    • Use an IV or inhalation induction and intubate the
      trachea with muscle paralysis.
      *The latter technique may lead to distension of the fistula and stomach after onset of positive pressure ventilation
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12
Q

What is Tracheomalacia (also known as Tracheobronchomalacia)? What patients are at risk for developing Tracheomalacia?

A
  • “Malacia” means abnormal softening of tissue, so softening of the tracheal tissue
  • Commonly seen in neonates/infants often in a association with esophageal atresia (TEF) or with extrinsic compression by vascular anomalies or mediastinal masses. May also be associated with hyperthyroidism
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13
Q

What is the anesthetic concern for the patient with Tracheomalacia?

A

AIRWAY OBSTRUCTION, possibly requiring urgent intubation

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14
Q

What is the etiology of Epiglottitis?

A

Due to a life-threatening infection by Haemophilus Influenza Type B bacteria

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15
Q

List 9 signs & symptoms of Epiglottitis?

A
  1. Upper airway obstruction
  2. Inspiratory stridor
  3. Chest retractions
  4. Tachypnea
  5. Drooling
  6. Cyanosis
  7. Difficulty swallowing
    8 Insists on sitting
  8. Restlessness
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16
Q

Children of what age are at highest risk of Epiglottitis?

A

Children ages 1 to 7 years old, occurs more frequently in children less than 3 years of age.

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17
Q

Where is the optimal location for intubation of a patient with Epiglottitis in the hospital? Why?

A
  • The operating room
  • Because total obstruction of the airway could occur at any moment. Attempt to visualize the epiglottis should not be taken unless in the area where emergency tracheostomy can be performed
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18
Q

What is the induction agent of choice and ETT size of choice in a patient with Epiglottitis?

A

An inhalation induction should be performed, followed by an intubation with ETT 1/2 to 1 size smaller than usual

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19
Q

How long would you expect the ETT to be left in place with a patient with Epiglottitis? What is one sign suggesting the patient is ready for extubation?

A
  • ETT is left in place for 24 to 96 hours

- AIR LEAK usually appears around the ETT as swelling decreases

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20
Q

Where and when should the patient with Epiglottitis be extubated?

A

Extubation should be performed in the OR only after direct laryngoscopy has confirmed resolution of the swelling of the Epiglottis

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21
Q

How is general anesthesia induced in the child with acute Epiglottitis?

A
  • Parents should be present until airway is secure
  • OR should be quiet
  • Initiate inhalation induction with 100% O2 and Sevo with patient in SITTING POSITION
  • Start IV, give fluids and Atropine
  • **DO NOT USE MUSCLE RELAXANTS
  • **AVOID TOUCHING THE EPIGLOTTIS (Go in Vallecula)
22
Q

In what position would you induce a patient with Epiglottitis?

A

A parent should hold the child in his/her lap and after mask induction the child is placed supine with HEAD SLIGHTLY UP

23
Q

What is another name for Laryngotracheobronchitis? What is its characteristic?

A
  • Croup

- Barking cough

24
Q

List 3 treatments for post-intubation laryngeal edema (post-intubation “croup”)?

A
  1. Cool, humidified mist, and O2 therapy via face tent
  2. Aerosolized racemic epinephrine (0.25 to 0.5 ml or 2.25% epinephrine mixed in 3 mL of normal saline)
  3. Intravenous Dexamethasone (0.25 to 0.5 mg/kg) may prevent edema, but takes up to 4 to 6 hours for onset
25
Q

What is the usual cause of croup?

A

The cause is usually VIRAL

26
Q

Identify 11 factors associated with post-intubation laryngeal edema i.e. “Croup”?

A
  1. Age YOUNGER than 4 years old
  2. Tight-fitting ETT, no audible leak at 15 to 25 cmH2O
  3. Traumatic or repeated intubation
  4. Prolonged intubation
  5. High-pressure, low-volume cuff
  6. Patient “bucking” or coughing during intubation
  7. Head repositioning while intubated
  8. History of infectious or post-intubation croup
  9. Neck/airway surgery
  10. Upper respiratory infection
  11. Trisomy 21 (Down’s Syndrome)
27
Q

What is the pathogenesis of post-intubation croup? Identify 6 risk factors for post-intubation croup?

A
  • Due to glottic or tracheal edema
    1. Early childhood (age 14 years)
    2. Repeated intubation attempts
    3. Large ETT
    4. Prolonged surgery
    5. Head & neck procedures
    6. Excessive movement of the ETT
28
Q

What is the appropriate treatement for post-intubation croup?

A

Inhalation of NEBULIZED RACEMIC EPINEPHRINE (0.25 to 0.5 mL of 2.25% solution in 3 mL of normal saline) and/or IV Dexamethesone (0.25 to 0.5 mg/kg)

29
Q

What is the most frequent pediatric surgical emergency?

A

Foreign body aspiration into the airway or esophagus

30
Q

What is Spina Bifida Occulta?

A

A Spina Bifida that occurs when skin and soft tissues cover the defect

31
Q

What is Spina Bifida Aperta?

A

A Spina Bifida that is used to describe the lesions where the defect communicates with the outside as either a MENINGOCELE or MYELOMENINGOCELE

32
Q

What causes Myelomeningocele? What is the difference between a Meningocele and Myelomeningocele?

A
  • Caused from failure of the neural tube to close in the fetus during development
  • Failure of the caudal end to close results in Spina Bifida
  • A sac is present which contains meninges and neural elements
  • A Meningocele is a sac containing only meninges
33
Q

List 7 anomalies often co-existent with Myelomeningocele?

A
  1. Club foot
  2. Hydrocephalus (along with stenosis of the aqueduct of the Sylvius and Arnold-Chiari malformation)
  3. Dislocation of hips
  4. Extrophy of bladder (possible incontinence)
  5. Prolapsed uterus
  6. Klippel-Feil Syndrome
  7. Congenital cardiac defects
34
Q

What are the concerns for anesthetizing the newborn with a Myelomeningocele?

A
  • Patient may not be able to lay supine for intubation due to sac disruption
  • A lateral intubation after inhalation induction is usually performed
  • An awake lateral decubitus position may be necessary, but doesn’t really happen
35
Q
  • What is Arnold-Chiari malformation? What are 4 symptoms of Arnold-Chiari malformation?
A
  • The malformation consisting of an elongated cerebellar vermis that herniates through the foramen magnum and also compresses the brain stem. No CSF drainage, thus resulting in hydrocephalus
  • 4 symptoms include:
    1. Difficulty swallowing
    2. Recurrent aspiration
    3. Stridor
    4. Possibly apneic episodes
36
Q

A 7 year-old patient with Spina Bifida comes to the OR for a ventricular-peritoneal shunt. What is the primary concern?

A

The patient is a high probability of LATEX ALLERGY, which may trigger an anaphylactic episode in the OR

37
Q

What is the incidence of latex allergies in children with Spina Bifida?

A

18 to 34% (w/out SB usually 6 to 7%)

38
Q

Which type of shock is most frequent in the pediatric patient?

A

Hypovolemic shock

39
Q

Children may lose as much as _________ of their blood volume without significant cardiovascular changes in the supine position.

A

1/4

40
Q

What is the best fluid replacement for the pediatric patient in hypovolemic shock?

A

Lacated Ringer’s Solution

41
Q

Children with long-standing obstructive sleep apnea (caused by hypertrophied tonsils, for example) show what anatomic changes in the heart?

A

Development of pulmonary artery hypertension and RV hypertrophy due to the long-standing hypoxemia and hypercarbia

42
Q

What is Pick-Wickian Syndrome?

A

Morbid Obesity, Obstructive Sleep Apnea, Lethargy

43
Q

List 3 congenital anomalies associated with Prune-Belly Syndrome?

A
  1. Cryptochidism (undescended testicle)
  2. Club foot
  3. Genitourinary tract abnormalities

*No associated gastrointestinal anomalies

44
Q

What is Prune-Belly Syndrome?

A

A lack of abdominal muscles r/t undescended testicles

45
Q

Name 9 pediatric syndromes

A
  1. Pierre Robin Sequence
  2. Treacher Collins Syndrome
  3. Goldenhar Syndrome
  4. Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome
  5. Down Syndrome (Trisomy 21)
  6. VATER/ VACTERL Syndrome
  7. Cerebral Palsy
  8. Fetal Alcohol Syndrome
  9. Cystic Fibrosis
46
Q

What is Pierre Robin Sequence? What are the concerns and how should this patient be managed? What intubation technique should be used?

A
  • A combination of a cleft palate, micrognathia, and glossoptosis
  • Respiratory obstruction may occur and can lead to Cor Pulmonale
  • Maintain airway by placing prone on the frame, may require tongue suture, intubation, or tracheostomy
47
Q

Describe the suggested tracheal intubation technique for a patient with Treacher Collins Syndrome?

A
  • Topicalization with 1% Lidocaine
  • LMA insertion
  • Fiberoptic intubation through the LMA
  • Also consider fiberoptic tracheal intubation after inhalation induction
48
Q

What is the most common mandibulofacial dystoses?

A

Treacher Collins Syndrome

49
Q

What is Treacher Collins Syndrome? What are its characteristics?

A
  • Most common of the mandibulofacial dystoses, a group of syndromes that freature mandibular hypoplasia (underdeveloped chin)
  • 30% have an associated cleft palate, down slanting eyes, notched lower eyelids, underdeveloped or absent cheekbones, LOWER JAW IS OFTEN SMALL and RECEDING, and underdeveloped or malformed ears
50
Q

Treacher Collins Syndrome is associated with cleft palate, what congenital heart disease is associated with Treacher Collins Syndrome?

A
  • It is frequently accompanied by congenital heart disease, prominantly VSD (the most common congenital heart disease)
51
Q

** In addition to cleft palate and VSD, what other conditions are associated with Treacher Collins Syndrome? Is a macroglossia (large tongue) associated with Treacher Collins Syndrome?

A
  • 30% have an associated cleft palate
  • VSD
  • Malar hypoplasia
  • Colobomas (notching of the lower eyelids)
  • Macrostomia (large mouth)
  • Malocclusion
  • Small oral cavity
    • Treacher Collins Syndrome IS NOT ASSOCIATED with Macroglossia (large tongue) or mental retardation