PEARLS Flashcards

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1
Q

“After warfarin is discontinued, anticoagulant effects persist for”

A

“2 to 5 days.”

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2
Q

“Asian patients may require lower starting and maintenance doses of”

A

warfarin

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3
Q

“Some genotypes require lower doses of”

A

warfarin

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4
Q

“Persons older than 60 years are more likely to have”

A

“larger increases in INR (after dose is increased) compared with younger patients.”

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5
Q

“INR values lower than 2.0 increase”

A

stroke risk sixfold

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6
Q

“Mayonnaise, canola oil, and soybean oil also have high levels of”

A

vitamin K

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7
Q

“patient is already on HCTZ and doing well,”

A

do not change

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8
Q

“TB blood tests (IGRA) are preferred method of TB testing for people who have received”

A

the BCG vaccine

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9
Q

“During recent influenza seasons, between 80% and 90% of influenza-related deaths occurred in people aged”

A

“65 years or older. Remind older patients to get the influenza vaccine starting in the fall season.”

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10
Q

“MEEs can persist for 8 weeks or longer after treatment of”

A

AOM

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11
Q

“recommended for patients with allergic rhinitis”

A

“Allergy pillow covers, allergy mattresses, and HEPA allergy filters for air conditioners”

“Many are allergic to dust mites, an indoor allergen.”

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12
Q

“The FDA recommends that health providers avoid prescribing oral ketoconazole (Nizoral PO) for fungal skin and nail infections because”

A

“the harm (serious liver damage, etc.) outweighs the benefit. Topical ketoconazole shampoo is safe.”

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13
Q

“for rashes near the eyes USE”

A

“ophthalmic-grade sterile cream and ointments”

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14
Q

“Patients with scarlet fever are at higher risk for developing”

A

“postglomerular nephritis (compared with “strep” throat).”

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15
Q

“Recurrences of tinea pedis and tinea cruris infection are”

A

Common

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16
Q

“Patients on anti-TNF biologics are at higher risk for”

A

“melanoma and squamous cell skin cancer.”

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17
Q

“there is no evidence of tooth staining with short courses of doxycycline.”

A

“Per the CDC, recent research”

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18
Q

“Only a person who has had chickenpox (rarely the chickenpox vaccine) can get”

A

Shingles

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19
Q

“A susceptible person (who has never had chickenpox or been vaccinated) can become infected from shingles, but”

A

“that person’s initial infection will manifest as chickenpox.”

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20
Q

“Major bleeding episodes can occur even with a normal INR. Order an”

A

“INR with the PT and the PTT if you suspect bleeding.”

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21
Q

“Coumadin is an FDA category”

A

X drug

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22
Q

“after changing the warfarin dose to see a change in the INR it may take up to”

A

3 days

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23
Q

“It may take up to 3 days after changing the warfarin dose to see”

A

“a change in the INR”

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24
Q

“Hypertensive patients who are less than 20/10 mmHg above goal can initially be treated with”

A

Monotherapy

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25
Q

“Per JNC 8, consider chlorthalidone or indapamide (instead of hydrochlorothiazide)”

A

“better evidence and longer half-life.”

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26
Q

“may cause memory loss, confusion, etc. (cognitive effects), which are reversible upon discontinuation”

A

Statins

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27
Q

“Patients on simvastatin and lovastatin should avoid”

A

“grapefruit juice. Also, they should not mix these two statins with macrolides.”

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28
Q

“Muscle pain (mild to severe) from rhabdomyolysis is usually located on the”

A

“calves, thighs, lower back, and/or shoulders. Urine will be darker than normal (reddish-brown color). Rule out rhabdomyolysis if patient on a statin complains of muscular pain with dark-colored urine”

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29
Q

“Long-term use of oral corticosteroids increases the risk of”

A

Pneumonia

30
Q

“When you are treating a COPD patient, pick an antibiotic that has coverage against”

A

“Streptococcus pneumoniae and H. influenzae (gram negative).”

31
Q

“Depending on the stage of the disease and hydration status, the CXR result may be “normal” during the early phase of”

A

“bacterial pneumonia (lobar pneumonia)”

32
Q

“a “healthy” adult with no fever who has been coughing for more than 2 to 3 weeks, especially if previously treated with an antibiotic (that was not a macrolide) and is getting worse”

A

Suspect pertussis, rule out pneumonia first

33
Q

“best mucolytic, thins out mucus”

A

“Emphasize importance of adequate fluid intake”

34
Q

“can present as recurrent pneumonia”

A

Lung cancer “due to mass blocking bronchioles”

35
Q

“If S. pneumoniae macrolide resistance greater than 25%,”

A

“do not use macrolide monotherapy. See CAP treatment guidelines notes.”

36
Q

“The QuantiFERON-TB Gold in-tube and the T-SPOT TB tests are available at”

A

public health clinics

37
Q

“They only require one visit for the patient to be tested”

A

“one vial of blood”

38
Q

“Never treat TB with fewer than”

A

three drugs

39
Q

“According to the CDC, on the average, about 10 contacts are listed for each index person with”

A

infectious TB

40
Q

“Persons with HIV infection with CD4 fewer than 500 or patients who are taking tumor necrosis factor antagonists (or biologics) are at very high risk for”

A

“active TB disease after initial exposure (primary TB)”

41
Q

“The tuberculin skin test is considered”

A

“both valid and safe to use throughout pregnancy.”

42
Q

“Younger children are more likely than older children to develop”

A

“life-threatening forms of TB disease”

43
Q

“If you suspect that the patient has allergic asthma, check”

A

“serum immunoglobulin G allergy panels (mold allergy, grass allergy panels, others). Refer to allergist for scratch testing and treatment.”

44
Q

“Consider supplementing with calcium with vitamin D 1,200 mg tabs QD for”

A

“menopausal women and other high-risk patients (for osteoporosis) such as males who are on medium- to high-dose inhaled steroids long term.”

45
Q

“Consider bone density testing (in males or females) who are on chronic steroids to rule out”

A

osteopenia or osteoporosis

46
Q

“Annual eye exams if on long-term steroids since higher risk of”

A

cataracts and glaucoma

47
Q

“Exercise-induced bronchospasm is a marker for”

A

inadequate asthma control

48
Q

“Many patients with subclinical hypothyroidism will eventually develop”

A

overt hypothyroidism

49
Q

“before swallowing with water for better absorption.”

A

“Advise patient to crush Synthroid tablets with teeth inside mouth”

“These tablets are synthetic T4 (levothyroxine)”

50
Q

“Using a small amount of K-Y Jelly to lubricate the tips of the speculum (in patients with atrophic vaginitis to reduce pain and vaginal bleeding) will”

A

“not affect the Pap test results.”

51
Q

“In reproductive-age teens or women who present with acute pelvic pain or lower abdominal pain, always”

A

“perform a pregnancy test (use good-quality urine human chorionic gonadotropin strips).”

52
Q

“Girls and teenagers have larger”

A

“ectropions. Some adult women on birth control pills may develop ectropion.”

53
Q

“Yaz or Yasmin contain”

A

“estrogen and drospirenone. Has a higher risk of blood clots, stroke, heart attacks, and hyperkalemia.”

54
Q

“Do not recommend Depo-Provera for women who want to”

A

“become pregnant in 12 to 18 months because it may cause delayed return of fertility. It can take up to 1 year for some women to start ovulating.”

55
Q

“Cu-IUD probably has the broadest indication for use as”

A

“a contraceptive for women with medical conditions (diabetics, smoker for more than 35 years, on anticonvulsant or antiretroviral therapy, ovarian cancer, ischemic heart disease, liver tumors, etc.).”

56
Q

“Wet smear or microscopy is gold-standard diagnosis”

A

“bacterial vaginosis, candidal or trichomonal vaginitis”

57
Q

“Women who have persistent vaginal and urinary tract infections, despite hygiene measures, adequate hydration, and in the absence of sexual exposures from partner(s), should be screened for”

A

“underlying glucose metabolism disorders and diabetes”

58
Q

“False-positive RPR can be caused by”

A

“pregnancy, Lyme disease, autoimmune diseases, chronic or acute disease.”

59
Q

“Recheck syphilitic chancre in”

A

“3 to 7 days after injection (should start healing).”

60
Q

“Nontreponemal titers (RPR or VDRL) usually decline after treatment, but in some persons,”

A

“nontreponemal antibodies can persist for a long time (serofast reaction). Most patients with reactive nontreponemal tests will be reactive for the rest of their lives (low titers), but 15% to 25% revert to being serologically nonreactive in 2 to 3 years.”

61
Q

“if both gonorrheal and chlamydial tests are negative”

A

“treat a sexually active patient who has signs and symptoms of PID combined with a sexual history.”

“PID is a clinical diagnosis.”

62
Q

“A large study found that adnexal tenderness is the most sensitive physical exam finding for”

A

“PID (compared with cervical motion tenderness, which may be negative).”

“Probably better to “overtreat” than to miss treating possible PID infections.”

63
Q

“After treating a patient for PID, follow up within”

A

“72 hours and perform vaginal bimanual examination to check for improvement of adnexal tenderness and/or cervical motion tenderness.”

64
Q

“For STDs treated with azithromycin 1 g × one dose (chlamydia),”

A

“instruct patient and partner not to have sex for at least 7 days.”

65
Q

“It can take from 3 to 12 weeks for HIV antibody tests to detect”

A

HIV Infection

66
Q

“The HIV antibody/antigen test can detect infection in”

A

“2 to 6 weeks (may be positive within 2 weeks after infection).”

67
Q

“NAAT can detect HIV infection in”

A

“7 to 28 days”

68
Q

“For job-related exposures, contact”

A

“National Clinician’s Postexposure Prophylaxis Hotline (Pipeline) toll free at (888) 448-4911 for advice (open 24/7).”

69
Q

“GDM is diagnosed in the”

A

“second to third trimester”

70
Q

“A woman with diabetes in the first trimester has”

A

type 2 diabetes.

71
Q

“An A1C <6% (second to third trimesters) has the lowest risk for”

A

“large-for-gestationalage infants”