Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Physical Exams 1 > PE Test 1 > Flashcards

PE Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the abbreviation for vital signs?

A

VS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the abbreviation for general surgery?

A

GEN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the abbreviation for head, eyes, ears, neck, throat?

A

HEENT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the abbreviation for cardiovascular?

A

CV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the abbreviation for breasts and axillae?

A

BRST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the abbreviation for abdomen?

A

ABD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the abbreviation for male genitourinary?

A

MGU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the abbreviation for female genitourinary?

A

FGU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the abbreviation for neurological?

A

NEURO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the abbreviation for extremities or musculoskeletal?

A

EXT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the abbreviation for mental status?

A

MS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the abbreviation for lab findings?

A

LAB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the abbreviation for radiological findings?

A

RAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the abbreviation for electrocardiograph?

A

ECG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

At a minimum you must do what before and after exams?

A

Wash hands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the contents of vital signs?

A 
Temperature - degrees
Blood Pressure - Sys/Dia
Pulse - 30 sec times 2
Respiration Rate - 60 sec
Oxygen saturation  - O2 %
Pain - 0-10
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the bell side of a stethoscope used for?

A

Low-pitched sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the diaphragm side of a stethoscope detect?

A

High-pitched sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the technique for taking BP in your patient?

A
  • Pt avoid smoking or caffeine 30 minutes prior
  • Pt sit for 5 minutes
  • arm should be free of clothing, IVs or injury
  • Apply cuff and inflate to 30mmHg above pulse disappears
  • Deflate slowly
    • Systolic: 1st sound
    • Diastolic: sound disappears
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the 128 C tuning fork used for?

A

Vibratory sensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the 512 C tuning fork used for?

A

Auditory testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is used to measure range of motion?

A

Goniometer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are Cotton-tipped Applicators used for?

A

Light touch

Sharp/dull sensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are tongue blades used for?

A

Inspection of oral cavity and oral pharynx
Percussion of teeth
Demographic testing
Sharp/dull sensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the abbreviation for right eye?

A

OD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the abbreviation for left eye?

A

OS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the abbreviation for both eyes?

A

OU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What would be the cause of a bitemporal hemianopia?

A

Optic chiasm lesion

Pituitary tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What would cause a right nasal hemianopsia?

A

Outer optic lesion

Internal carotid artery thrombus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What would cause a right homonymous hemianopsia?

A

Optic tract lesion

31
Q

What would cause a Right Superior Quadrantanopia?

A

Meyer’s Loop lesion

Left temporal lesion

32
Q

What would cause a Right inferior quadrantanopia?

A

Dorsal optic radiation lesion

Left parietal lesion

33
Q

What would cause a right hemianopsia with muscular sparing?

A

PCA infarct

34
Q

What cranial nerve innervates the lateral rectus?

A

CN 6

35
Q

What cranial nerve innervates the superior oblique?

A

CN 4

36
Q

What cranial nerve innervates the inferior oblique?

A

CN 3

*LR6(SO4) 3

37
Q

Poor convergence of the eyes is a sign of what?

A

Hyperthyroidism

38
Q

What is a condition in which binocular fixation is not present?

A

Strabismus

39
Q

What is the term for misalignment that is always there in the eyes?

A

Tropia

40
Q

What is the term for a misalignment of the eyes that only occurs some of the time?

A

Phoria

41
Q

What test is used to check for tropria?

A

Hirschberg’s test

*use penlight, aim between eyes, inspect reflected light in eyes

42
Q

What test is used to check for phorias?

A

Cross-cover test

43
Q

What are bilateral small pupils that constrict when the patient focuses on a near object, but do not constrict when exposed to bright light?

A

Argyll Robertson (AR) pupils

44
Q

What is the specific sign for AR pupils?

A

Neurosyphilis

45
Q

What type of pupils have minimal or no reaction to light, but slow reaction to convergence due to damage?

A

Tonic pupil

46
Q

What is the most common cause of Marcus Gunn pupil?

A

Lesion of the optic nerve

47
Q

What is a relative afferent pupillary defect indicating a decreased pupillary response to light in the affected eye?

A

Marcus Gunn pupil

48
Q

What is drooping of the upper eye lid called?

A

Ptosis

49
Q

What are red inflamed lid margins?

A

Blepharitits

50
Q

What are painful, tender red infections in a gland at the eye lid margin?

A

Sty

51
Q

What are non-tender, usually painless nodule of the meibomian gland?

A

Chalazion

52
Q

What are yellowish, slightly raised, plaques?

A

Xanthelasma

53
Q

What is bleeding underneath the conjunctiva called?

A

Hyposphagma

*subconjunctival hemorrhage

54
Q

What is a sign of bilirubin retention in the sclera called?

A

Icterus

55
Q

What is a thin grayish white arc or circle not quite at the edge of the cornea?

A

Corneal arcus

56
Q

What is triangular thickening of the bulbar conjunctiva that grows slowly across the outer surface of the cornea?

A

Pterygium

57
Q

What is a collection of fat, medial or lateral to the iris, but DOES NOT extend onto the cornea?

A

Pinguecula

58
Q

What type of lighting is it when you shine you light directly from the temporal side of each eye?

A

Tangential lighting

59
Q

Swelling of the optic disc with bulging of the physiologic cup is known as what?

A

Papilledema

60
Q

What are white, yellowish, or grayish, ovoid lesions with irregular “soft’ borders?

A

Soft exudate

61
Q

What are yellowish round spots with soft or hard borders?

A

Drusen

62
Q

How many salivary glands are in the head?

A

3 pairs (6)

63
Q

What is the alternate name for the submandibular gland?

A

Wharton’s duct

64
Q

What is the alternate name for the parotid gland?

A

Stenson’s duct

65
Q

What is a firm hypertrophic mass of scar tissue extending beyond the area of injury?

A

Keloid

66
Q

What is a chronic inflammatory lesion that starts out as painful, tender papillae on the helix or antihelix, then ulcerated and crusts?

A

Chondrodermatitis Helicis

67
Q

What are hard nodules on the helix or antihelix that is a deposit of uric acid crystals?

A

Tophi

68
Q

What is a dome-shaped lump in the dermis that forms a benign closed, firm sac attached to the epidermis?

A

Cyst

69
Q

What does the “Weber Test” test for?

A

Lateralization of hearing

70
Q

What does the “Rinne Test” test for?

A

Compares Air Conduction and Bone Conduction

71
Q

What are the test characteristics if you have Conductive Hearing Loss?

A

Weber lateralizes to impaired ear

BC > AC

72
Q

What is something that starts with softening of the skin at the angles of the mouth and is followed by a fissure?

A

Angular Cheilitis

73
Q

What is non-pitting, tense swelling of the skin and subcutaneous tissue, that develops rapidly due to allergy or hives?

A

Angioedema

74
Q

What are early signs of measles located in the buccal mucosa near the first or second molars?

A

Koplik’s spots

Physical Exams 1 (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions