Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

GCSE PE > Pe > Flashcards

Pe Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
GCSE Religious Studies - Edexcel Route A flashcards GCSE Religious Studies - Eduqas Route A flashcards GCSE Geography - AQA flashcards GCSE Religious Studies - Edexcel Route B flashcards GCSE Religious Studies - Eduqas Route B flashcards
1
Q

What are the different functions of the skeleton?

A

Support
Protection
Movement
Making blood cells
Mineral storage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the three types of bones in the body?

A

Long bones
Short bones
Flat bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are long bones used for?

A

Gross movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are short bones used for?

A

Fine movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are flat bones used for?

A

Protect internal organs
Allow muscle attachment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which bones are long bones?

A

Humerus
Ulna and radius
Femur
Fibula and tibia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which bones are flat bones?

A

Cranium
Sternum and ribs
Scapula
Pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which bones are short bones?

A

Talus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What other bones are there?

A

Vertebral column
Patella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is a joint?

A

Any point where two or more bones meet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the bones which meet at a joint called?

A

Articulating bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What bones meet at the hip joint?

A

Pelvis and femur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What bones meet at the shoulder joint?

A

Humerus and scapula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What bones meet at the knee joint?

A

Femur and tibia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What bones meet at the ankle joint?

A

Tibia, fibula and talus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What bones meet at the elbow joint?

A

Humerus, radius and ulna

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is flexion at a joint?

A

The closing of a joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is extension at a joint?

A

The opening of a joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is adduction at a joint?

A

The moving of a limb towards the midline of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is abduction at a joint?

A

The moving of a limb away from the midline of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is rotation at a joint?

A

The clockwise or anticlockwise movement of a limb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is circumduction at a joint?

A

The movement of a limb, hand or foot in a circular motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is plantar flexion at a joint?

A

Extension at the ankle joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is dorsiflexion at a joint?

A

Flexion at the ankle joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the two types of joint?

A

Ball and socket
Hinge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What types of movements can be done at a ball and socket joint?

A

All types

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What types of movements can be done at a hinge joint?

A

Just flexion and extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which joints are ball and socket?

A

Hip joint
Shoulder joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which joints are hinge?

A

Knee
Ankle
Elbow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the three types of connective tissue?

A

Ligaments
Tendons
Cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the job of ligaments?

A

Connect bone to bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the job of tendons?

A

Attach muscle to bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the job of cartilage?

A

Acts as a cushion between bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What types of joints are synovial joints?

A

Hinge joints and ball and socket joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is a synovial joint?

A

A joint which allows a wide range of movement and has a joint capsule enclosing and supporting it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are synovial joints held together by?

A

Ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What does the synovial membrane do?

A

Releases synovial fluid into joint capsule to lubricate it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What does the bursae do?

A

Reduce friction between bones and tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What movement do biceps allow for?

A

Flexion at the elbow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What movement do triceps allow for?

A

Extension at the elbow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What movement do pectorals allow for?

A

Adduction and flexion at the shoulder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What movement do hip flexors allow for?

A

Flexion at the hip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What movement do the gluteals allow for?

A

Extension, rotation and adduction at the hip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What movement do the deltoids allow for?

A

Flexion, extension, abduction or circumduction at the shoulder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What movement do the latissimus dorsi allow for?

A

Extension, adduction or rotation at the shoulder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What movement does the tibialis anterior allow for?

A

Dorsiflexion at the ankle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What movement do the rotator cuffs allow for?

A

Rotation and abduction at the shoulder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What movement do the abdominals allow for?

A

Flexion at the waist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What movement do the gastrocnemius allow for?

A

Plantar flexion at the ankle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What movement do the quadriceps allow for?

A

Extension at the knee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What movement do the hamstrings allow for?

A

Flexion at the knee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the two types of muscle contractions?

A

Isometric
Isotonic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What happens in an isometric contraction?

A

The muscle stays the same length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What happens in an isotonic contraction?

A

The muscle changes length so something moves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are the two types of isotonic contractions?

A

Concentric
Eccentric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What happens in a concentric contraction?

A

The muscle contracts and shortens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What happens in an eccentric contraction?

A

The muscle contracts and lengthens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are antagonistic muscles?

A

Pairs of muscles which work against each other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are the different movement of muscles in an antagonist pair called?

A

Contracting muscle - agonist or prime mover
Relaxing muscle - antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are the three types of blood vessels?

A

Arteries
Veins
Capillaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Where do arteries carry blood?

A

Away from the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Where do veins carry blood?

A

Towards the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Where do capillaries carry blood?

A

To exchange gases and nutrients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

How does air pass through the respiratory system?

A

Trachea to bronchi to bronchioles to alveoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What happens to the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles as you breathe in?

A

Contract to move the rib cage upwards and expand chest cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What happens to the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles as you breathe out?

A

Relax moving the rib cage down and shrinking the chest cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What two gases are exchanged in the alveoli?

A

Oxygen
Carbon dioxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is of a high concentration and what has a low concentration in the alveoli before diffusion?

A

High concentration of oxygen
Low concentration of carbon dioxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is of high concentration and what is of low concentration in the capillaries before diffusion?

A

High concentration of carbon dioxide
Low concentration of oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is used to measure the amount of air in your lungs?

A

A spirometer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is your tidal volume?

A

The amount of air you breathe in or out in one breath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is your inspiratory reserve volume?

A

The extra volume of air you can breathe in after a normal breath in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is your expiratory reserve volume?

A

The extra air you can breathe out after a normal breath out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is your residual volume?

A

The air left in your lungs after you have breathed out as much as you can

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What does a spirometer trace show?

A

Lung air volumes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What type of exercise would you use aerobic respiration?

A

When exercise is not too fast but steady

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What type of exercise would you use anaerobic respiration?

A

When exercise is short and at high intensity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

At what type of exercise are carbohydrates used as fuel?

A

Aerobic exercise at moderate intensity and anaerobic exercise at high intensity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

When are fats used as the body’s fuel?

A

Aerobic exercise at low intensity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What are the short term effects of exercise on the muscles?

A

Produce lactic acid causes muscle fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What are the short term effects of exercise on the respiratory system?

A

Increased breathing rate
Increased depth of breath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What are the short term effects of exercise on the cardiovascular system?

A

Heart rate and stroke volume increase
Increased blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is heart rate?

A

The number of times your heart beats per minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is stroke volume?

A

The amount of blood pumped with each contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is cardiac output?

A

The amount of blood pumped by the ventricle per minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

How is cardiac output calculated?

A

Heart rate x stroke volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is vasodilation?

A

The widening of the blood vessels to let more blood flow through

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is vasoconstriction?

A

The narrowing of the blood vessels to reduce the amount of blood flowing through

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What are the long term effects of exercise on the musculoskeletal system?

A

Make muscles thicker and reduce body weight this increases your strength
Stronger ligaments and tendons reduces injury risk
Improve speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What are the long term effects of exercise on the cardio-respiratory system?

A

Bigger stronger heart which has an increased cardiac output
Increased cardiovascular endurance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is a lever arm?

A

The bone of body part being moved about a point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is the fulcrum?

A

The joint where the lever arm pivots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is the effort?

A

The force applied by the muscles to the lever arm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What is the resistance?

A

The thing acting against the pull of the muscles on the lever arm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What are the three types of lever system?

A

First class
Second class
Third class

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What does a first class lever system look like?

A

The load and effort are at opposite ends with the fulcrum in the middle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What does a second class lever system look like?

A

The fulcrum and effort are at opposite ends and the load is in the middle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What does a third class lever system look like?

A

The fulcrum and load are at opposite ends with the effort in the middle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What does the mechanical advantage of a lever measure?

A

How efficient it is at moving heavy loads

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Formula for mechanical advantage

A

Mechanical advantage= effort arm / weight arm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What lever system has a high mechanical advantage?

A

Second class

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What lever system has a low mechanical advantage?

A

Third class

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Which lever system can have both high and low mechanical advantage?

A

First class

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What is a plane?

A

An imaginary flat surface which runs through the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What are planes used for?

A

Describe the direction of movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What are the three types of plane?

A

Sagittal
Transverse
Frontal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

How does the sagittal plane divide the body?

A

Into left and right sides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

How does the transverse plane divide the body?

A

From top to bottom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

How does the frontal plane divide the body?

A

Front and back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What is an axis?

A

A imaginary line which runs through the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What are the three types of axis?

A

Sagittal
Transverse
Longitudinal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

How does the sagittal axis run through the body?

A

From front to back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

How does the transverse axis run through the body?

A

Left to right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

How does the longitudinal axis run through the body?

A

Top to bottom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Which plane and axis does flexion / extension use?

A

Sagittal plane
Transverse axis

116
Q

What plane and axis does abduction/ adduction use?

A

Frontal plane
Sagittal axis

117
Q

What plane and axis does rotation use?

A

Transverse plane
Longitudinal axis

118
Q

What is the definition of health?

A

A state of complete physical, mental and social wellbeing and not just the absence of disease

119
Q

What is the definition of fitness?

A

The ability to cope with the demands of the environment

120
Q

What is cardiovascular endurance?

A

The ability of the heart and lungs to supply oxygen to the working muscles

121
Q

What is muscular endurance?

A

The ability to repeatedly use muscles over time without getting tired

122
Q

What is strength?

A

The amount of force that a muscle can apply against a resistance

123
Q

What are the 4 types of strength?

A

Maximal
Static
Explosive
Dynamic

124
Q

What is speed?

A

The rate at which someone is able to cover a distance

125
Q

What is power?

A

A combination of speed and strength

126
Q

How do we calculate power?

A

Strength x speed

127
Q

What is agility?

A

The ability to change direction quickly with control

128
Q

What is balance?

A

The ability to keep the bodies centre of mass over a base of support

129
Q

What is coordination?

A

The ability to use two or more parts of the body together effectively

130
Q

What is reaction time?

A

The time taken to move in reaction to a stimulus

131
Q

What is flexibility?

A

The amount of range of motion at a joint

132
Q

What do fitness tests allow is to do?

A

Identify our fitness strengths and weaknesses

133
Q

How do we test coordination?

A

Wall toss test

134
Q

How do we test flexibility?

A

Sit and reach test

135
Q

How do we test reaction time?

A

Ruler drop test

136
Q

How do we test cardiovascular endurance?

A

Multistage fitness test

137
Q

How do we test speed?

A

30m sprint test

138
Q

How do we test maximal strength?

A

One rep max

139
Q

How do we test agility?

A

Illinois agility test

140
Q

How do we test power?

A

Vertical jump test

141
Q

How do we test muscular endurance?

A

Sit up bleep test

142
Q

How do we test balance?

A

Stork stand test

143
Q

How do we test strength?

A

Handgrip dynamometer test

144
Q

What are the limitations of fitness tests?

A

Do not test specific sporting actions
Require motivation to work at maximal
No direct measurements

145
Q

What are the four sport principles of training?

A

Specificity
Progressive
Overload
Reversibility
Tedium

146
Q

What are the FITT principles of training?

A

Frequency
Intensity
Time
Type

147
Q

How does your body adapt during exercise?

A

Changes during rest and recovery to cope with increased intensity causing you to get fitter

148
Q

Why is recovery time important?

A

Avoid overtraining and injury

149
Q

How do you work out your theoretical maximum heart rate?

A

220 - age

150
Q

What is the aerobic training target zone?

A

60-80% of maximum heart rate

151
Q

What is the anaerobic training target zone?

A

80-90% of maximum heart rate

152
Q

What are the boundaries of training zones called?

A

Thresholds

153
Q

What are the different training types?

A

Continuous training
Fartlek training
Interval training
Weight training
Circuit training
Plyometric
High altitude
Static stretching

154
Q

What is continuous training used for?

A

Cardiovascular endurance
Muscular endurance

155
Q

What are advantages and disadvantages of continuous training?

A

Easy to do
Prepare for sports with little break

No improvement to anaerobic fitness
Becomes boring
Injury risk as lots of the same muscles working

156
Q

What is fartkek training used for?

A

Cardiovascular endurance
Muscular endurance
Speed

157
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of fartlek training?

A

Adaptable so easily tailored to different sports

Lacks structure

158
Q

What is interval training used for?

A

Cardiovascular endurance
Anaerobic fitness
Speed

159
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of interval training?

A

Easily adapted to change purpose

Exhausting
Injury risk

160
Q

What is weight training used for?

A

Strength
Muscular Endurance
Power

161
Q

What are advantages and disadvantages of weight training?

A

Easily adapted
Little to no equipment needed

High stress on muscles
Can be dangerous

162
Q

What is circuit training used for?

A

Cardiovascular endurance
Strength
Speed

163
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of circuit training?

A

Personalised to you
Variety keeps interest

Long time to set up with lots of equipment

164
Q

What are plyometrics used for?

A

Power

165
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of plyometrics?

A

Only form which directly improves power

Demanding on working muscles

166
Q

What is high altitude training used for?

A

Cardiovascular endurance
Muscular endurance

167
Q

What are advantages and disadvantages of high altitude training?

A

Improves cardiovascular and muscular endurance

Effects only short term
Expensive
Altitude sickness

168
Q

What is static stretching used for?

A

Flexibility

169
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of static stretching?

A

Improves athletic performance
Everyone can do
Increases range of movement

Poor technique can lead to injuries
Only effective for some muscles

170
Q

What are the three training periods?

A

Pre-season (preparation)
Competition (peak)
Post-season (transition)

171
Q

What is training focused on in pre-season?

A

General fitness
components of fitness needed to compete

172
Q

What is training focused on in competition?

A

Maintaining fitness level
Develop specific skills
Avoiding fatigue

173
Q

What is training focused on in post-season?

A

Recovery
Maintain general fitness

174
Q

What things do we do before exercise to prevent injury?

A

Warm up
Maintain hydration
Taping and bracing as support
Correct clothing and equipment
Correct technique
Correct training structure

175
Q

What do we do after exercise to prevent injury?

A

Cool down
Eat and hydrate
Leave recovery time
Ice baths

176
Q

What should a warm up involve?

A

Raising pulse
Stretching and mobility exercises
Practice actions

177
Q

What does the pulse raiser do?

A

Increases heart
warms up muscles, ligaments and tendons allowing more free movement
Increases oxygen supply to muscles

178
Q

What do stretching and mobility exercises do pre exercise?

A

Increase flexibility and range of motion
Reduces injury risk

179
Q

What should a cool down involve?

A

Gradually reducing intensity
Stretching

180
Q

What does the gradually reducing intensity do?

A

Keep heart and breathing rates high to pay oxygen debt and remove lactic acid

181
Q

What does post exercise stretching do?

A

Speed up recovery
Improve flexibility
Prevent DOMS

182
Q

What is a skill?

A

A learned action to bring about a result with certainty and minimum effort

183
Q

What is ability?

A

A persons set of traits that control their potential to learn a skill

184
Q

What is a basic skill?

A

Doesn’t require much thought or decision making

185
Q

What is a complex skill?

A

Requires lots of thought or decision making

186
Q

What is an open skill?

A

Performed in a changing environment where they need to react and adapt to external factors

187
Q

What is a closed skill?

A

Performed in the same predictable environment not effected by external factors

188
Q

What is a self-paced skill?

A

Performer decides how quickly it is done

189
Q

What is an externally-paced skill?

A

External factors decide when it starts and how quickly it happens

190
Q

What is a gross skill?

A

Involves powerful movements by large muscle groups

191
Q

What is a fine skill?

A

Precise movements of accuracy and coordination done by smaller muscle groups

192
Q

What are the two types of goals you can set?

A

Performance
Outcome

193
Q

What do performance goals focus on?

A

Improving your own personal performance

194
Q

What do outcome goals focus on?

A

Performing better than others

195
Q

Why is it better to set performance goals rather than outcome goals?

A

An outcome goal is controlled by how others also perform and can be more demotivating if u fail to meet it

196
Q

What do the letters in SMART stand for?

A

Specific
Measurable
Accepted
Realistic
Time-bound

197
Q

What are the different types of guidance?

A

Verbal
Visual
Manual
Mechanical

198
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of verbal guidance?

A

Can be combined with other types of guidance, can be done during performance

Sometimes skills are difficult to explain, language may be confusing

199
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of visual guidance?

A

Allows beginners to copy what they see, can highlight small details of skill

Some skills can’t be copied as they change what is needed everytime, must be clear concise and simple

200
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of manual guidance?

A

Helps beginners get a feel for the skill, helps teach complex skills

Performer could become reliant, difficult to use in big groups

201
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of mechanical guidance?

A

Give performers that extra feeling of safety, useful for complex skills

Performer may become reliant, difficult to use in big groups

202
Q

What are the two types of feedback?

A

Intrinsic
Extrinsic

203
Q

What is the difference between intrinsic and extrinsic feedbacks?

A

Intrinsic comes from yourself based on the feeling of the action while extrinsic is from someone else

204
Q

What two aspects of the skill can feedback focus on?

A

Performance
Result

205
Q

What are the 4 parts of the information processing model?

A

Input
Decision making
Output
Feedback

206
Q

What happens in the input phase on the information processing model?

A

You receive information for your senses on the environment

207
Q

What happens in the decision making phase of the information processing model?

A

You decide what is the best way to respond to the input

208
Q

What happens during the output phase of the information processing model?

A

Muscles react to a message from the brain telling them what to do

209
Q

What happens in the feedback phase of the information processing model?

A

Receive feedback on how to improve performance

210
Q

What are the different techniques to help with mental preparation?

A

Mental rehearsal
Visualisation
Deep breathing
Imagery
Positive self-talk
Selective attention

211
Q

What is arousal level?

A

How mentally and physically alert you are

212
Q

What is the theory which describes the relationship between arousal level and performance?

A

Inverted-u theory

213
Q

What happens if arousal is too low?

A

You are not exited and won’t perform well

214
Q

What happens if arousal is too high?

A

Anxious and nervous leading to mistakes

215
Q

Which type of skills require higher arousal?

A

Gross skill

216
Q

Which types of skills require lower arousal?

A

Fine skills

217
Q

What are the two types of motivation?

A

Intrinsic
Extrinsic

218
Q

What is intrinsic motivation caused by?

A

The enjoyment and good feelings from taking part in

219
Q

What is extrinsic motivation caused by?

A

Rewards from others
Either tangible or intangible

220
Q

What is usually the most effective type of motivation?

A

Intrinsic motivation

221
Q

What is direct aggression?

A

Involves physical contact with another person

222
Q

What is indirect aggression?

A

Doesn’t involve physical contact but is aimed at an object

223
Q

What types of sports do introverts prefer?

A

Individual sports which require fine skills, high concentration and low arousal

224
Q

What types of sports to extroverts prefer?

A

Team sports which are fast-paced, need gross skills and low concentration

225
Q

How do people influence the activities you do?

A

Parents encourage or discourage participation aswell as may lead to influencing which sport you do as they expose you to it at a young age

Friend also effect this as you may follow what they already play

226
Q

How does your gender influence the activities you do?

A

Women’s sports event are often much lower profile so girls are not as aware of sport
There is also lots of gender tagging of certain sports which pushes people away from certain sports

227
Q

How does ethnicity and religion influence the activities you do?

A

Religious festivals may impact the days that you can play sport on
Large amounts of racism may also discourage people from wanting to participate

228
Q

How does disability influence how active you are?

A

Much less access to sporting facilities
Sports not able to be done and a replacement one not available

229
Q

How does your socio-economic group affect your activity participation?

A

The cost to participate may be too much for some people
Requirement for expensive specialist equipment
Some sports require special facilities
Unable to get there due to poor access to transport or working irregular hours

230
Q

How does age limit the sports you can do?

A

Older people are more physically limited
Some sports are unsuitable for young people so have a minimum age requirement
As people get older they have less time to do sports

231
Q

How do schools effect participation?

A

A good teacher can inspire and vice versa with a bad one
Facilities may limit activities available and reduce participation

232
Q

What does the commercialisation of sport mean?

A

Managing sport in a way to make money

233
Q

What two things is sport connected to which allows it to grow?

A

Media
Sponsorship

234
Q

How are sponsorship and sport linked?

A

Sponsors pay for advertising which makes them money
Give the sport money which is used to help players and improve spectators experience
Players can earn a better wage

235
Q

How are sponsorship and media linked?

A

More people watch a sport more see the sponsorship making it more valuable
Can now reach a larger audience

236
Q

How is sport and media linked?

A

Media pay sport to cover its events allows it to develop more people aware of the sport so more play or watch it
Players become superstars however then become hounded by media
Media get a power in the sport in terms of the schedule
People will also pay the tv company to be able to watch the games making them money

237
Q

Negatives of sponsorship in sport?

A

Money only available for those at the top
Players can lose deals for bad performance or reputation and may then give sponsor bad reputation as a result of their behaviour
Sponsors can hold a power over the team

238
Q

What types of sponsors are inappropriate?

A

Cigarettes, tobacco, alcohol and fast food as it encourages people to lead an unhealthy lifestyle

239
Q

How can technology help players?

A

Better equipment and clothes help improve performance
Better training facilities can allow for more improvement in performance
New medical improvements allow quicker recovery from injuries

240
Q

How does technology help officials?

A

Allow correct decision to be made with more accuracy using things like:
Hawk-eye (tennis)
Decision review system (cricket)
Television match official (rugby)
Goal-line technology (football)

241
Q

What are the advantages of technology helping officials?

A

Make the sport more fair
Lessen pressure on officials as decisions can be reviewed
Increase respect for officials as it proves them right
Sponsors can use waiting time to show adverts

242
Q

What disadvantages are there to technology helping officials?

A

Expensive to install
Undermine the authority of officials
Can take a long time and disrupt flow of play and be boring for spectators

243
Q

What is sportsmanship?

A

Playing within the rules upholding the spirit of the game and using sports etiquette

244
Q

What is the contract to compete?

A

Agreement between competitors to comply with all rules

245
Q

What does sporting etiquette mean?

A

Filling the unwritten rules and conventions of the activity

246
Q

What is gamesmanship?

A

Gaining an advantage by using tactics that push the rules but don’t break them

247
Q

What do gamesmanship techniques usually involve?

A

Breaking up the flow of the game or distracting your opponent
e.g time wasting in football or shrieking in tennis as someone else hits it

248
Q

Why do people use PEDs?

A

Improve performance which can give them wealth and fame
Level the playing field if others are doing so too

249
Q

What issues are there with taking PEDs?

A

They are banned and can have nasty side effects
Those caught usually face fines, disqualification and lengthy bans

250
Q

What are the different types of PEDs?

A

Beta blockers
Diuretics
Narcotics analgesics
Stimulants
Anabolic agents
Peptide hormones

251
Q

What do beta blockers do to the body?

A

Reduces effect of adrenaline which improves fine motor skills

Cause nausea, weakness, cramp and heart failure

252
Q

What do diuretics do to the body?

A

Increase amount you urinate causing weight loss

Cause cramp, dehydration, loss of salts, muscle weakness and heart damage

253
Q

What do narcotics analgesics do to the body?

A

Kill pain

Addictive with strong withdrawal symptoms
Cause overtraining

254
Q

What do stimulants do to the body?

A

Increase mental and physical awareness

Cause high blood pressure
Are addictive

255
Q

What do anabolic agents do to the body?

A

Increase bone and muscle growth
Help with faster recovery

Increase risk of cancer
Women may grow facial and body hair

256
Q

What do peptide hormones do to the body?

A

Cause an increase in the amount of red blood cells that are produced

Cause stroke, heart problems, abnormal growth and diabetes

257
Q

What is blood doping and what does it do?

A

Blood doping involves removing blood from an athlete weeks before competition it is then frozen and re-injected pre competition

Causes an increase in red blood cells allowing for more oxygen supply

258
Q

What advantages and disadvantages are there to spectators at sporting events?

A

Create an atmosphere and add to excitement
Create a home-field advantage

Put pressure on performers
Takes lots of money and planing to ensure their safety

259
Q

What is hooliganism?

A

Rowdy, aggressive and violent behaviour from spectators

260
Q

What causes hooliganism?

A

Rivalries between fans cause fans to take it too seriously
Fans drinking and taking drugs can fuel aggression
Frustration with officials or teams performance
Some see it as a display of masculinity and want to show off

261
Q

What can be done to prevent hooliganism?

A

Kick-offs can be moved to earlier times
All-seater stadiums makes fans less packed together
Segregated seating between fans
Increase in amount of police and stewards
Banning orders for previous offenders
Campaigns to educate

262
Q

What is physical health and wellbeing?

A

Your body’s organs and systems are working well
You are able to do everyday activities easily

263
Q

How does exercise help your long term health?

A

Regular aerobic exercise helps prevent high blood pressure and removes cholesterol
Helps it maintain a healthy weight reducing the chance of diabetes

264
Q

What is emotional health and wellbeing?

A

You feel confident and content with yourself
You are not suffering from mental illness

265
Q

How does exercise help your emotional health and wellbeing?

A

Competing with others can improve ability to deal with others
Can relieve stress and tension off your mind
Feel good hormones are released by exercise

266
Q

What is social health and wellbeing?

A

You have friends
You believe your worth in society
You have food, clothing and shelter

267
Q

How can exercise help your social health and wellbeing?

A

Allows you to meet new people and make friends from all backgrounds
Playing in a team improves teamwork abilities

268
Q

What is a sedentary lifestyle?

A

One where there is irregular or no physical activity

269
Q

What health risks does a sedentary lifestyle cause?

A

Lethargy
Poor sleep
Emotional health problems
Poor social health
Obesity

270
Q

What problems does obesity cause?

A

Strain on cardiovascular system and reduced endurance
High cholesterol levels
Risk of developing diabetes

271
Q

What do we use BMI to work out and what score is obese?

A

Whether somebody is a health weight or not
Obese is a score of 30 or more

272
Q

What is a balanced diet?

A

A diet which contains the best ratio of nutrients to match your lifestyle

273
Q

What is the recommended amount of each food type?

A

Protein 15-20%
Fats 25-30%
Carbohydrates 55-60%

274
Q

What are carbohydrates needed for?

A

Provide energy for muscles during physical activity

275
Q

What are fats needed for?

A

Energy for low intensity exercise
Keep body warm and protect organs
Store vitamins

276
Q

What are proteins needed for?

A

Allow the body to grow and repair especially in muscles

277
Q

How many calories does an adult male and female need a day?

A

Male 2500 calories
Female 2000 calories

278
Q

What happens if you use an uneven amount of calories to what you took in?

A

Take in more - gain weight
Take in less - lose weight
Equal amount - maintain weight

279
Q

What are vitamins needed for?

A

Help body to grow
Bodies chemical reactions

280
Q

What are minerals needed for?

A

Build bone, teeth and other tissue
Chemical reactions

281
Q

What is water needed for in the body?

A

Sweat to regulate body temperature
Blood thickness
Brain function
Muscle endurance

282
Q

What are the three somatotypes?

A

Mesomorph
Ectomorph
Endomorph

283
Q

What are the characteristics of an endomorph?

A

Wide hips
Narrow shoulders
Lots of fat on body

284
Q

What are the characteristics of a mesomorph?

A

Wide shoulders
Narrow hips
Muscular
Strong arms and legs
Little body fat

285
Q

What are characteristics of an ectomorph?

A

Narrow shoulders, hips and chest
Not much muscle or fat
Long, thin limbs

GCSE PE (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions