PD Head and Neck Flashcards

1
Q

Common head and neck complaints

A
Trauma
Headache
Vision changes
diplopia
Otalgia
Hearing loss
Tinnitus
Vertigo, dizziness, lightheaded
Syncope
Epistaxis
Sore throat
Changes in smell and taste
Swollen glands
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Name some vision changes

A

Hyperopia
Presbyopia
Myopia
Scotomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the bones of the face?

A
Frontal
Nasal
Zygomatic
Ehtmoid
Lacrimal
Sphenoid
Maxillary
Mandible
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Innervation of facial muscles

A

CN V Trigeminal

CN VII Facial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Blood supply to face

A

Temporal artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Salivary glands

A

Parotid
Submandibular
Sublingual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Head position for inspection

A

Upright and still

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Bobbing or jerking during inspection

A

Tremor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Nodding movement during inspection

A

Aortic insufficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Head tilt during inspection

A

Favor unilateral hearing or vision loss

Toticolis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Inspection of facial features

A
Symmetry
Shape
Tics
Characteristic facies
Unusual features
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Symmetry of facial features

A

Symmetry of eyelids, eyebrows, palpebral fissures, nasolabial folds, mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Shape of face

A
Edema
Puffiness
Coarse features
Prominent eyes
Hirsuitism
Lack of expression
Muscle wasting
Diaphoresis
Pallor 
Pigmentation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Tics

A

Spasmodic muscle contractions of head, neck, or face

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Inspection of skull

A
Size
Symmetry
Scales
Hair pattern
Trauma
Nits, parasites
Shape
Lesions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Cushing syndrome

Causes

A

Effects of hypercortisolism (increased adrenal hormone production)

Adenoma or adenocarcinoma
Stimulation by excess ACTH from pituitary tumor
Corticosteroid therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Features of Cushing’s syndrome

A
Moon facies
Hirsuitism
Thick neck, central obesity with thin extremities
Purple striae
Pink cheeks
Buffalo hump
Peripheral edema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Cause of myxedema

A

Severe hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Features of myxedema

A
Round, puffy face
Dry, coarse, sparse hair
Periorbital edema
Slow speech
Hoarseness
Cold, dry, thick, scaling skin
Weight gain
Cold intolerance
Bradycardia
Hypotension
Hypothermia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Features of nephrotic syndrome

A

Face edematous and pale
Swelling begins around eyes
Eyes may become slit like with severe edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Nephrotic syndrome is classified as proteinuria…

A

Proteinuria over 3 gm/dl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Causes of nephrotic syndrome

A

Renal disease
DM
Idiopathic
Preeclampsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

S&S with nephrotic syndrome

A

Anorexia
Vomiting
Diarrhea
Lassitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Parkinson’s features

A
Mask like facies
Decreased facial mobility - blunted expression
Decreased blinking
Characteristic stare
Upper neck and trunk flexed forward
Patient seem to peer upward towards you
Facial skin is oily
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Bell’s palsy features

A
Facial nerve palsy
Asymmetry of one side of face
Drooping of lower eyelid and corner of mouth
Loss of nasolabial fold
Inability to completely close eye
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Causes of bell’s palsy

A

Idiopathic
Viral infections
Most common over 70

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What percentage of patients recover from bell’s palsy?

A

85%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Causes of parotid gland enlargement

A

Bacterial infection
Mumps
Neoplasm
Cirrhosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Hurler syndrome features

A
Mucopolysaccharidoses
Enlarged skull
Low forehead
Corneal clouding
Short neck
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Craniosynostosis

A

Premature fusion of cranial sutures
Sutures involved determine the shape of the head
Not associated with mental retardation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Microcephaly

A

Congenitally small skull

Associated with mental retardation and failure of brain to develop normally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Down syndrome features

A
Trisomy 21 (extra chromosome)
Depressed nasal bridge
Monogoloid slant of eyes
Low set ears
Large tongue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Fetal alcohol syndrome features

A
Small eye openings
Hypoplastic philtrum
Thin upper lip
Flat mid face
low nasal bridge
Microceophaly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Hyperthyroidism features

A
Prominent eyes
Exopthalamos
Lid lag
Startled expression
Thin, fine hair
Moist, smooth skin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Hippocartic facies features

A
Marked cachexia
Sunken eyes, cheeks
Temporal muscle wasting
Sharp nose
Dry, rough skin
Seen in end stages of terminal illness or malnutrition
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Palpation of head and scalp

A
Symmetry
Smoothness
Hair texture
Scalp movement
Areas of tenderness, swelling, masses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Scalp in hyper hypothyroidism

A

Hyper - fine and silky

Hypo - dry and coarse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which arteries do we palpate and where?

A

Temporal arteries - continuation of external carotid arteries anterior to the ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Palpation of temporal arteries

A

Thickening
Decreased pulsations
Tenderness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Temporal arteritis features

A
Necrotizing vasculitits
Persistent, severe, throbbing headache
Hard and nodular
Red and edematous
Vision impaired, may cause blindness
MS changes common

Idiopathic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Palpation of TMJ

A

Open and close mouth
Laterally back and forth
Protrude and retract

Note tenderness, popping, locking, crepitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is a normal gap between upper and lower teeth for an open jaw?

A

3-6 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How many cm is a normal lateral movement?

A

1-2 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Palpation of salivary glands

A

Asymmetry
Masses
Tenderness
Discharge through duct into mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Other name for parotid duct

A

Stenson’s duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Other name for submandibular duct

A

Wharton’s duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Where does the parotid duct open in the mouth?

A

Opens in buccal mucosa adjacent to maxillary second molar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Where does the submandibular duct open in the mouth?

A

Opens adjacent to the lingual frenulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Sialadentitis

Features

A
Bacterial infection of the gland
Swelling
Tenderness
Pain with eating
Fever
Can milk pus through the affected duct
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Which ducts are the most common to get sialadentitis?

A

Parotid, then submandibular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What bacteria is the most common cause of sialadentitis?

A

Staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the risk factors for sialadentitis?

A

Dehydration
Dry oral mucosa
Sjogren’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Sialolithiasis features

A

Postprandial pain and swelling

Sucurrent sialodentitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

wharton’s stones

A

Larger

Radiopaque

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Stenson’s stones

A

Smaller

Radiolucent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Repeated episodes of stone formation may necessitate…

A

Sialadenectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Where is the most common salivary gland tumor? Are they malignant or benign?

A

80% in the parotid gland, and 80% are benign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Presentation of salivary gland tumors

A

Asymptomatic mass

Facial nerve involvement strongly correlates with malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the choice imaging modality for salivary gland tumors?

A

MRI and CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Anterior triangle of the neck

A

SCM
Midline
Mandible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Structures within anterior triangle

A
Hyoid bone
Cricoid cartilage
Trachea
Thyroid
Anterior cervical LN
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

… artery and vein lie deep in the anterior triangle and run parallel to SCM

A

Internal jugular and carotid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

… crosses the surface of the SCM diagnoally

A

External jugular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Posterior triangle of the neck

A

SCM
Trapezius
Clavicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Contents of posterior triangle

A

Cervical chains LN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

LN of head and neck

A
Preauricular
Post auricular
Occipital
Tonsillar
Submandibular
Submental
Superficial cervical
Deep cervical
Posterior cervical
Supraclavicular
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

History complaints with neck

A
Pain
Stiffness
Decreased ROM
Dysphagia
Masses, lumps, swelling
Dyspnea
Radiculopathies
Thyroid over/under activity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Inspection of neck

A
Symmetry of structures
Deviation of trachea
Masses
Lesions
Scars
Jugular venous distension
ROM
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Examples of masses in the neck

A

Carcionoma
Branchial and thyroglossal duct cysts
Lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Palpation of the neck

A

Trachea midline
Hyoid bone
Cartilage - thyroid, cricoid, tracheal rings
Thyroid gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

How do we palpate for a midline trachea?

A

Place finger along one side of trachea and note distance between it and SCM - should be equal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Cause of trachea deviation

A
Pneumothorax
Masses
Unilateral thyroid enlargement (goiter)
Aortic aneurysm
Atelectasis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Palpation of thyroid

A

Should be smooth and contender
Should move under finger when pt swallows

Size
Shape
Consistency
Configuration
Tenderness
Nodules
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What position do we inspect the thyroid?

A

Could be either facing patient or from behind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

When palpating the thyroid, fingers should be just below…

A

Cricoid cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

When is the thyroid auscultated?

A

If enlarged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Auscultation of thyroid - diaphragm or bell?

A

Bell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Auscultation of thyroid

A

Hypermetabolic state has increased blood supply - bruit is heard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Features of hyperthryoidism

A
Heat intolerance
Weight loss
Fine hair, hair loss
Thinning hair
Exopthalmos
Lid retraction
Goiter
Tachycardia, palpitations
Diarrhea, Increased B
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Features of hypothyroidism

A
Cold intolerance
Weight gain
Coarse hair, brittle hair
Dry, flaky skin
Periorbital puffiness
No goiter
Constipation
Menorrhagia or amenorrhea
Lethargic, but muscle strength usually intact
81
Q

Palpation of LN

A
Site
Size
Shape
Warmth
Tenderness
Consistency - hard, soft, rubbery
Mobility
Discrete or matted
Fluctuance, suppuration
82
Q

Features of infected LN

A
Soft
Mobile
Discrete
Tender 
Warm
83
Q

Features of malignant LN

A

Hard
Fixed
Matted
Non tender

84
Q

Thyroglossal duct cyst

Features

A
Remnant of embryologic development
Common before 20
Midline neck mass
Painless, could have discomfort with swallowing
Fluctuant, soft, mobile mass
85
Q

Thyroglossal duct cyst cause and presentation with…

A

Noted during or after URI

May present with sinus or fistulous tract

86
Q

Tx thyroglossal duct cyst

A

Surgical excision

87
Q

Branchial cleft cysts

A

Congenital epithelial cysts

Common in early adulthood 20-30

88
Q

Features of branchial cleft cysts

A
Smooth
Non tender
Fluctuant
Mass along anterior SCM
May become tender and firm if secondarily infected
Sinus tract may develop
Odynophagia
89
Q

Tx of branchial cleft cysts

A

Surgical excision of non infected cyst and duct

90
Q

Torticollis aka…

A

Wryneck

91
Q

Congenital torticollis cause

A

Hematoma or partial rupture of SCM at birth results in unilateral muscle shortening

92
Q

Adult torticollis cause

A
Trauma to SCM
Chronic spasm
Infection
Neoplasm
psychiatric
93
Q

Ocular torticollis

A

Head position assumed to compensate for vertical squint or an ocular muscle palsy/imbalance

94
Q

History complaints of eyes

A
Red eyes
Painful
Change in visual acuity
Pruritic
Eye discharge
Increased or decreased tearing
Trauma
Foreign body
Diplopia
Flashing lights, floaters
95
Q

Causes of red eyes

A
Conjunctivitis
Allergies
Glaucoma
Iritis
Trauma
Foreign body
Corneal abrasion/ulcer
Environmental irritants
96
Q

Causes of painful eyes

A
Glaucoma
Iritis
Conjunctivitis
Trauma
Headaches
Foreign body
Corneal abrasion/ulcer
Sinusitis
Trachoma
Entropion
Hordeolum
Chalazion
Tumor
Eye muscle strain
Dry eyes
97
Q

Causes of pruritic eyes

A
Conjunctivitis
Allergies
Noxious stimuli
Dry eyes
Eye fatigue
98
Q

Causes of eye discharge

A
Conjunctivitis
Trachoma
Allergies
Infection
Foreign body
99
Q

Causes of increased tearing

A
Foreign body
Trauma
Allergies
Infection
Noxious stimuli
Emotions
100
Q

Causes of decreased tearing

A

Fatigue
Sjogren’s syndrome
Obstruction of tear ducts
Trauma to CN VII

101
Q

Causes of loss of vision

A
Optic neuritis
Detached retina
Retinal hemorrhage
Cataracts
Macular degeneration
Central retinal vascular occlusion
Glaucoma
Infection
CVA
Trauma
Tumor 
Retinopathy
102
Q

Causes of diplopia

A
Head trauma
Cranial nerve palsy
Poor ocular muscle coordination
Opthalmoplegia
Tumor
Cataracts
Retinal detachment
Central retinal venous occlusion
Migraine
MS
103
Q

External eye inspection

A

Symmetry
Eyebrows
Eyelids

104
Q

PERRLA

A

Pupils equal, round and reactive to light and accommodation

105
Q

Palpation of eye

A

Nodules

Tenderness

106
Q

Ptosis

A

Dropping of upper eyelid

107
Q

Causes of ptosis

A

Muscular weakness (myasthenia gravis)
Damage to CN III
Interference with sympathetic nerves (Horner’s syndrome)

108
Q

Exopthalmus

Causes

A

Widened palpebral fissures
Bulging of the eyes

Hyperthyroid, Grave’s disease

109
Q

Ectropion

A

Excessive laxity or sagging of lower eyelid

110
Q

Cause of ectropion

A

Common in elderly

Trauma to nerve

111
Q

What happens when the punctum is turned outward in ectropion?

A

Tearing may be present due to abnormal drainage

112
Q

Entropion

Complications

A

Lower eyelid and lashes roll inwards
Common in elderly
Can cause inflammation and trauma to cornea

113
Q

Periorbital edema causes

A
Infection (cellulitis)
Crying
Allergies
Myxedema
Nephrotic syndrome
CHF
Trauma
114
Q

Herniated fat pad

A

Swelling under eye due to fat accumulation

Common in elderly, may result from trauma

115
Q

Dacrocystitis

A

Pain, swelling of the lacrimal sac due to infection or trauma
Pressure on sac may produce purulent drainage

116
Q

Xanthelasma

Associated with…

A

Raised yellow plaques found on the nasal aspect of upper and lower eyelids
Hyperlipidemia

117
Q

Hordeolum

A

Sty
Pustule on the lid margin, forms when sebaceous gland near the hair follicle is inflamed
Hyperemia and swelling
Rupture and heal on its own

118
Q

Chalazion

A

Acute inflammation of Meibomian gland

Deeper, more chronic than hordeolum

119
Q

When do we inspect the upper conjunctivae?

A

If a foreign body is suspected

120
Q

Method of inspecting conjunctivae

A

Cotton swab, gently press onto surface of upper eyelid
Patient looks down
Gently grab rim of eyelid
Break suction and pull lid up over cotton swab

121
Q

Conjunctivitis Causes

A

Pink eye

Allergies
Bacterial
Viral
Foreign body

122
Q

Features of conjunctivitis

A

Red eyes from hyperemia of conjunctival vessels
Crusting of eyes
Exudate
Burning

123
Q

Conjunctival petechiae causes

A

Finding in endocarditis from emboli

Seen with bleeding disorders or sudden change in venous pressure

124
Q

Causes of subconjunctival hemorrhage

A

Trauma
Bleeding DO
Sudden increase in venous pressure
Sponatneous

125
Q

Pinguecula

A

Normal, slightly raised fatty structure under conjunctiva between the canthus and limbus, usually nasal side

126
Q

Pterygium

A

Chronic inflammation extends a vascular membrane over the limbus towards the center of the cornea
Benign, but vision may be obstructed

127
Q

Where is pterygium more common?

Causes

A

Southwest, patients older than 35
Nasal side

Wind and dust irritation

128
Q

Arcus senilis

A

Gray band of opacity in the cornea is separated from the limbus by a narrow clear zone
Bilateral
Due to deposits of lipids
No effect on vision

129
Q

Causes of corneal abrasion or ulcer

A

Infection - bacterial, viral, or fungal

Abrasion/injury

130
Q

S&S of corneal abrasion/ulcer

A
Pain - superficial
Circumcorneal injection
Vision usually decreased
Photophobia
Watery or purulent drainage
131
Q

Hyphema

A

Blood in anterior chamber

132
Q

Hyphema causes

A

Trauma
Bleeding DO
Increase in venous pressure

133
Q

Hypopyon

A

Pus in anterior chamber

134
Q

Lens

A

Made of water and protein
Posterior to iris and pupil
Transparent

135
Q

Cataract

A

Protein clumps together and clouds the lens

136
Q

Causes of cataracts

A
Congenital from rubella or CMV
DM
Steroids
Trauma
Advancing age
137
Q

S&S of cataracts

A

Slow blurring of vision over months to years
One or both eyes
No pain, redness, or discharge

138
Q

Pupil inspection

A

Size
Symmetry
Roundness
Reactivity to light and accommodation

139
Q

Miosis

A

2 mm or less

140
Q

Mydriasis

A

6 mm or greater

141
Q

Iritis

Causes

A
Inflammation of iris due to infection
Surgery
Injury
Systemic conditions:
IBD
Sarcoidosis
RA
Reiter's syndrome
Lupus
142
Q

S&S of iritis

A
Pain
No discharge
Ciliary infection
Decreased vision
Pupil irregular, sluggish
Photophobia
143
Q

Anisocoria

When is it benign

A

Difference in pupil size
Normal variant in about 20% of population
If pupillary reactions are normal, considered benign

144
Q

When is anisocoria serious?

A

Horner’s syndrome
Oculomotor nerve palsy
Glaucoma

145
Q

Pupillary reactions

A

Should dilate with light on same side and consensually

146
Q

When do we test accommodation?

A

If abnormal pupil response to light

147
Q

What do pupils do during accommodation tests?

A

Should constrict when looking at close object and dilate when looking far away

148
Q

What conditions may cause an abnormal pupillary reaction but normal accommodation?

A

DM

Syphilis

149
Q

Where is corneal reflection seen?

A

Slightly nasal to the center of pupils

150
Q

Why do we pause at extreme upward and lateral gazes during the H pattern?

A

To detect nystagmus

151
Q

Blink reflex (4)

A

Closing the eye is accomplished by muscles innervated by CN VII
Light touch to cornea will cause blink mediated by CN V
Loud noise will cause blinking by CN VIII
Bright light will cause blinking by CN III

152
Q

Which axons remain ipsilateral a and which cross?

A

Temporal remain ipsilateral

Nasal axons cross at optic chiasm

153
Q

What does the image appear as on the retina?

A

Reversed and inverted

154
Q

Where does the temporal retina see? Nasal retina?

A

Temporal retina sees over the nose

Nasal retina sees out to the sides

155
Q

Which occipital cortex sees the right world?

A

Left cortex

156
Q

Confrontation Test

A

Gross defects in visual fileds

Cover eye and slowly bring fingers from hand from periphery towards the center until the patient can see

157
Q

How many directions do we do the confrontation test from?

A

4 directions

158
Q

Homonymous

A

Loss of same visual field in both eyes

159
Q

Heteronymous

A

Different visual field loss in each eye

160
Q

Hemianopsia

A

Half of visual field is lost in both eyes

161
Q

Quadrantanopsia

A

1/4 of visual field is lost

162
Q

What two charts do we use to screen visual acuity?

A

Snellen

Rosenbaum pocket chart

163
Q

What do the first and second numbers mean in 20/40?

A

Patient is 20 feet from the chart

A normal person can read the line from 40 feet away

164
Q

Myopia

A

Nearsightedness

Eyeball and or cornea is elongated, focusing light rays before the retina

165
Q

Myopia - red or green diopters

A

Red

166
Q

Hyperopia

A

Eyeball and or cornea is shallower, focusing lights rays behind the retina

167
Q

Hyperopnia - red or green diopters

A

Green diopters

168
Q

Astigmatism

A

Cornea is irregularly shaped
Light rays can focus anywhere
Difficulty seeing near and far

169
Q

Astigmatism - red or green diopters?

A

Diopter setting varies

170
Q

Retinal detachment features

A

Blurring of vision unilaterally
“Curtain covering eye”
No pain, swelling, redness, or discharge
Seen with fundoscopy

171
Q

Where is the most common site for retinal detachment?

Who commonly suffers?

A

Superior temporal area

Older than 50

172
Q

Central vision remains intact with retinal detachment until…

A

Macula detaches

173
Q

Central and branch retinal artery occlusion features

A

Sudden profound vision loss

Retinal swelling

174
Q

Amaurosis fugax

A

Fleeting blindness - seconds to minutes
Curtain coming over eye vertically
No major fundoscopic findings

175
Q

Causes of amaurosis fugax

A

70% have ipsilateral carotid stenosis

Think cardiac dz, a fib

176
Q

Optic neuritis

Features

A

Blurring of vision unilaterally
Develops rapidly
Pain in region of eye with eye movement
Optic disc appears swollen

177
Q

Causes of optic neuritis

A

MS
Viral infection
Autoimmune disorder

178
Q

Tx for optic neuritis

A

Steroids - IV then PO

179
Q

Fundoscopic exam allows for the visualization of…

A

Retinal background
Macula
Optic disc/cup
Vessels

180
Q

What is the first thing to visualize on fundoscopy?

A

Red reflex

181
Q

What do opacities in the path of the light on red reflex appear as?

A

Black densities

182
Q

Causes of lack of red reflex

A

Ill positioned scope
Large cataracts
Hemorrhage into vitreous humor

183
Q

Color of fundus

A

Pink or yellow background

184
Q

Which settings do you use if patient is myopic? Hyperopic?

A

Myopic - Red, minus lens

Hyperopic - Green, plus lens

185
Q

Vessels branch to or away from the optic disc?

A

Vessels branch away from optic disc

186
Q

Difference between arteries and veins

A

Arteries are smaller and brighter red

187
Q

Disc margin

A

Sharp and well defined

188
Q

Macula features

A

Darker in color that surrounding retinal background
Usually about 1 disc diameter in size
2 DD temporal to the disc

189
Q

Fovea centralis

A

Centermost point of macula, does not contain rods

190
Q

Optic disc/cup

A

Most prominent landmark
Round or oval
Nasal side
Vessels from all 4 quadrants emerge

191
Q

How large is the cup in comparison to the disc?

A

Cup should not be more than 1/2 disc diameter in size

192
Q

What does the disc look like in papilledema?

A

Loss of disc margins

193
Q

Causes of papilledema

A
Increase IC pressure
Head trauma
Tumor
Increased intraocular pressure
Glaucoma 
Bleeds
194
Q

Hypertensive retinopathy features

A

Exudates
Flame hemorrhages
Increased arterial reflex

195
Q

Cotton wool spots

Causes

A

Irregular white/gray lesions with irregular borders

Infarcted nerve fibers
Seen in HTN

196
Q

Hard exudates

Causes

A

Creamy, yellow lesions with well defined borders, small and round
Clusters

DM or HTN

197
Q

Drusen bodies

Cause

A

Yellowish round spots
Tiny in size

Due to lipid deposits
Appear with normal aging

198
Q

Proliferative Diabetic retinopathy

A

New vessels on disc
Multiple hemorrhages
Dilation of retinal veins

199
Q

Retinoblastoma

A

Malignant retinal tumor that develops in children