PD 4 - Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is health IT? What are the 2 different forms?

A

Allows healthcare providers to collect, store, retrieve, and transfer information electronically

Passive - information storage

Active - patient reminders, prescribing alerts, etc.

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2
Q

What are the 3 categories of health IT?

A

Administrative and Financial: Payroll, patient registration, patient accounts, scheduling, supply management

Clinical Systems: Electronic Health Records (EHR), provider orders, remote patient monitoring, e-prescribing, drug interaction checks, e-mail, patient portals

Infrastructure: computers, servers, internet service, handheld devices, barcoding information

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3
Q

What is interoperability?

A

Extent to which systems and devices can EXCHANGE data and INTERPRET shared data

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4
Q

What are the 3 levels of interoperability?

A

foundational: think faxing

structural: think sending across a hospital system

semantic: all information is already seen and interpreted

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5
Q

What are the 3 different kinds of EHR templates?

A

templates - pre-structured portions of software for common or basic data

structured - give framework for data entry

unstructured - free-form data entry

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6
Q

**What is the electronic medical record for clinicians composed of?

A

Digital version of paper chart in a clinician’s office

Info collected by and for the clinicians in that facility

Primarily used for dx, tx, and preventative care

May NOT have all records from all providers

Clinical-related functions

Confidential notes/reminders

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7
Q

How can patient accesses their patient health records?

A

To be accessed and managed by pts
May be presented as a patient portal

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8
Q

What is the electronic health record?

A

all components of EMR and overall health information for a given patient

and gives a broader view of the patient’s care and is meant to follow the patient from practice to practice

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9
Q

What is the purpose of CPOE? Computerized Provider Order Entry

A

Designed to replace facility paper-based ordering systems and can electronically write a full range of orders

includes electronic medication administration record and helps providers follow less expensive alternatives or hospital protocol

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10
Q

Why was CPOE created?

A

Created in response to significant rates of hospital errors in medication administration and procedures and has NOT shown to dramatically increase patient care

HAS increased time overall to enter orders

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11
Q

What is a clinical decision support system?

A

Provides knowledge-specific and person-specific information to enhance clinical decision making and provision of healthcare

example was primary care practice that sees lots of DM and helps them not to forget any test

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12
Q

What is PACS?

A

Picture Archiving/Communication System

radiologic film with digital image storage and transmission

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13
Q

What are the advantages of PACS?

A

improved organization of images

improved accessibility

improved viewing: can compare images easily

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14
Q

What are the disadvantages of PACS?

A

significant cost for implementation and maintenance

PACS system-wide failure could be very detrimental or even catastrophic to provision of care

Files can still become corrupted or lost

Training and understanding use

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15
Q

T/F: Bar coding has stopped healthcare workers from ordering incorrect interventions, performing incorrect tests, or administering incorrect treatments

A

FALSE

does NOT stop

these things still happen today

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16
Q

What is RFID? What is the basic application?

A

Tags attached to people or objects

Basic application - track patients for anti-elopement and anti-abduction programs

can also be used to inventory control and equipment tracking

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17
Q

What is the potential concern for RFID?

A

Potential for interference with pacemakers, ICDs

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18
Q

What are some advantages of automated medication dispensing machines?

A

increased security

increased patient safety

increased access to medications

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19
Q

What are some disadvantages of automated medication dispensing machines?

A

errors are still possible

cost of implementation, maintenance and training

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20
Q

What is electronic materials management?

A

Electronic monitoring and management of materials used in the healthcare setting

Includes monitoring how much of each material is used and when it is used the most

to help with billing and ordering of materials based on usage

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21
Q

**What is the distant/hub site mean in telemedicine?

A

where the provider is located

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22
Q

**What is the ongoing/spoke site mean in telemedicine?

A

where the pt is located

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23
Q

What is asynchronous telemedicine?

A

data is recorded and stored, then sent to another site for consultation

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24
Q

What are 4 common types of telemedicine?

A

primary care/specialist appt

remote pt monitoring: think vital signs, EKG, glucose

consumer information: Internet and wireless devices to obtain specialized health information or online discussion groups for support

medical education: CME for health professionals

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25
Q

What is teleradiology?

A

Radiologic images are sent from one location to another

Radiologist in remote location reads imaging report and sends interpretation to site

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26
Q

Where can the teleradiologist be physically located?

A

For reimbursement reasons - must use teleradiologist on US soil

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27
Q

What are some advantages of telepharm?

A

Drug therapy monitoring, patient counseling, prior authorization and refill authorization, monitoring of formulary compliance

pharm care provided to pts who may not be able to directly contact a pharmacist

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28
Q

What are the benefits of telemedicine?

A

Improved access to providers

Cost efficiencies - better management of chronic disease, shared staffing, reduced travel times

Equal or improved quality

Patient demand - patients like ease and convenience

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29
Q

What are the risks of telemedicine?

A

Increased risk of error

Decreased human interaction

Increased risk of health information exposure

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30
Q

What is the purpose of ICD-10? Who publishes the codes? When are they used?

A

Allows for standardization of assessments/diagnoses of patients

World Health Organization (WHO)

inpatient procedures

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31
Q

What is CPT code based on? Who publishes the codes? When are they used?

A

Types and number of diagnoses discussed/addressed

Extensiveness of history and physical exam

Extensiveness and complexity of decision-making process/care plan

American Medical Association

outpt procedures

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32
Q

** How should you list your codes?

A

** order of importance

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33
Q

T/F: Medical auditing is only to make sure the facility is not overcharging for services

A

FALSE!! To avoid undercharging or overcharging for services rendered

and to ensure adequate documentation of encounters

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34
Q

imaging, UA, EKG, wet mount/slide, spirometry are examples of ______

A

Diagnostic procedures and need to get coded as such

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35
Q

nebulizer treatment, injection, wound care are all examples of ______ and need to get coded as such

A

therapeutic procedures

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36
Q

_____ is always required! What are the 2 options for HPI?

A

chief complaint

brief or extended

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37
Q

**What are the requirements for a brief HPI?

A

Brief HPI - documentation of 1-3 HPI elements

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38
Q

** What are the requirements for an extended HPI?

A

Extended HPI - documentation of 4+ HPI elements or status of 3+ chronic conditions

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39
Q

What are the 3 options for ROS?

A

problem pertinent, extended, complete

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40
Q

Type of ROS: ______ only the system directly related to problem in HPI

A

problem pertinent

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41
Q

Type of ROS: ______ system directly related to CC plus 2-9 additional

A

Extended ROS

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42
Q

Type of ROS: ______ system directly related to CC plus 10+ additional

A

complete ROS

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43
Q

What are the 2 different options for past, family and/or social history?

A

pertinent or complete

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44
Q

_____ reviews at least one item from any of the 3 areas pertinent to the HPI in PFSH

A

pertinent

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45
Q

_____ review of two or all three areas in PFSH

A

complete

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46
Q

What is considered a problem focused PE?

A

1+ organ system with 1-5 elements

47
Q

What is an expanded problem focused PE?

A

1+ organ system with 6+ elements

48
Q

What is a detailed PE?

A

6+ organ systems with 2+ elements (comments)

49
Q

What is a comprehensive PE?

A

9+ organ systems with 2+ elements (comments about each)

50
Q

What are the requirements for a single system exam?

51
Q

** Draw the chart that shows the elements required for each type of decision making

A

*probably need to know this chart

51
Q

What are the different levels of medical risk?

A

minimal -> rest, gargles, bandages etc

low -> OTC drugs, PT, OT, IV fluids w/o additives, minor sx with no risk factors

moderate -> minor sx with risk factors, elective major sx, prescription drug management, IV fluids with additives

high -> major sx with risk factors, emergency major sx, IV controlled substances, drug therapy requiring extensive drug monitoring

52
Q

What is the patients over paperwork initiative?

A

Attempt to reduce administrative burden and stop providers from trying to document “to code” rather than to the needs of the pt/visit

53
Q

What is the major highlighted change that occurred with the 2021 and 2023 medicare coding changes?

A

Primary emphasis on either time spent caring for encounter or level of medical decision-making, not H&P requirements

54
Q

**What is a new noteworthy change about the 2023 medicare coding changes?

A

Eliminating Codes -> Merged some codes for services like observation into existing hospital care codes

55
Q

**What is the highlighted 2024 medicare coding change?

A

Caregiver Training Services CPT Codes Added

the patient does not need to be present during the training; focuses on strategies and techniques; facilitates functional performance

56
Q

Why did people stop using ICD-9 codes?

A

Outdated (had not been updated for 36 years)

Nonspecific codes; Limited data collection

Insufficient to adequately describe pt’s conditions and diagnoses

57
Q

What are the major changes in ICD-10?

A

Increased number of codes (from 13,000 to over 68,000); Increased specificity

Allows for clarification (laterality, initial/subsequent encounter, sequelae, severity, etc.)

Expandability (room to add new diagnoses); Combination codes (multiple dx in one code)

58
Q

Why should people stop using ICD-10?

A

Already outdated (released 7 years ago) with list of dx with limited options because you must use the same terms and spellings on the list

Areas of non-congruence with current medical science advances

New diagnostic categories and reported greater ease of use (searchable)

59
Q

What are the benefits of using ICD-11?

A

web-based search engine that recongnizes synonyms and with relatively flexible spelling

kept updated

knows common abbreviations

60
Q

_______ Any infection acquired by a patient while receiving treatment for a medical or surgical condition

A

Healthcare Associated
Infection (HAI)

61
Q

What are the 3 MC types of healthcare associated infections?

A

PNA

surgical site infections

GI infections

62
Q

What happened to HAI when COVID hit?

A

dramatic increase in ventilator associated events and decreased in C. diff infections

63
Q

What are 5 risk factors for HAIs?

A

Indwelling medical devices

skin breaks

Contamination of healthcare environment

Transmission between patients and providers/staff

Overuse or improper use of antibiotics

64
Q

What are the 8 hospital “never events?”

65
Q

What are the 3 methods of transmission for an infectious agent?

A

contact

droplet

airborne

66
Q

______ are the minimum infection protection standards for all patient care

A

standard precautions

67
Q

What are the 5 standard precautions?

A

Hand hygiene

Use of personal protective equipment (PPE)

Safe injection practices

Safe handling of potentially contaminated
equipment or surfaces

Respiratory hygiene/cough etiquette

68
Q

What are universal precautions?

A

similar, but older term - specific avoidance of body fluids due to infection risk

69
Q

**If the patient has an infectious diarrhea, what is the hand hygiene protocol?

A

the provider/staff MUST wash hands with soap and water NOT santizer

70
Q

What are the 6 key situations in which you should preform hand hygiene?

A

Before touching a pt (even if gloves will be worn)

Before exiting pt care area after touching pt or the pt’s immediate environment

After contact with blood, body fluids/excretions, or wound dressings

Prior to performing an aseptic task (e.g., placing an IV, preparing an injection)

If hands will be moving from a contaminated-body site to a clean-body site during patient care

After glove removal

71
Q

**Visibly soiled hands or after caring for pts with known or suspected infectious diarrhea, what should you do?

A

Wash hands with soap and water!!

72
Q

What finger is frequently missed when doing hand hygeine?

A

THUMB!! is frequently missed

73
Q

**______ is always the _____ after removing and disposing of PPE

A

Hand hygiene

final step

74
Q

**What is the correct order with donning PPE?

75
Q

**What is the correct order for doffing PPE?

76
Q

_______ medical equipment is ones that enter mucous membranes or non-intact skin

A

Semi-critical items (colonscopy or EGD scopes)

High-level disinfection prior to reuse

76
Q

_______ medical equipment is ones that enter sterile tissue or vascular system

A

critical items

MUST BE STERILE

77
Q

_______ medical equipment is ones that touch intact skin only; no mucous membranes

A

Noncritical items -> BP cuff

low- or intermediate-level disinfection

78
Q

______ are part that generally do not contact pt

A

Environmental surfaces (floor, walls)

routine cleaning with low level disinfection

79
Q

_____ are used pts have an infection that can be spread by contact with another human or equipment, or environmental surfaces

A

contact precautions

80
Q

in a pt’s room with contact precautions, what additional things do you have to have before entering?

A

Gown and gloves upon room entry

Use disposable single-use or pt-dedicated equipment

81
Q

_____ is used for pts with infection that can spread through close respiratory or mucous membrane contact with respiratory secretions. What kind of room is preferred?

A

droplet precautions

SINGLE room

82
Q

in droplet precautions, what additional thing but you do before entering the room?

A

Wear a mask upon room entry of a pt on droplet precautions

83
Q

**If single room is not an option for a pt with droplet precautions, what is the second best?

A

separation of 3+ feet and curtain between beds

and the pt needs to wear a mask if transported out of the room

84
Q

______ is used for pts with infection that can spread over long distances when suspended in air

A

airborne precautions

85
Q

In addition to standard precautions, what additional things should you do in airborne precautions?

A

Wear a mask or respirator prior to room entry, depending on disease-specific recommendations

86
Q

What type of room is preferred for a pt under airborne precautions? Secondary option?

A

Pt should be in airborne infection isolation room – single-person equipped with special air handling and ventilation

If no such room - private room with door closed until pt can be transferred

87
Q

What type of healthcare worker should NOT provide care to someone under airborne precautions?

A

Non-immune workers should not care for pt with vaccine preventable airborne diseases

88
Q

What is the national certifying body for PAs?

A

National Commission on
Certification of Physician
Assistants

NCCPA

89
Q

What are the requirements to re-certify?

A

Must log 100 hrs of CME
every 2 years

Must pay $150 maintenance
fee every 2 years

Must pass a recertification
exam every 10 years

90
Q

When is the earliest you can take the PANCE?

A

until at least 7 days after completing program requirements

91
Q

What are the PANRE exam requirements?

A

Cannot apply to take PANRE until the 9th or 10th year of your recertification cycle

$350 registration fee

180 day timeframe to schedule exam

Can only take once in a 90 day time period

4 hour, 240 MC questions with the option to choose practice focused content

92
Q

What are the PANRE- LA alternative requirements?

A

Cannot apply until the 6th year of your recertification cycle

Exam process is completed in years 7-9

$350 registration fee

Quarterly (q 3 mo) blocks of 25 multiple choice questions with 5 minutes per question

must complete 8 quarters of blocks

93
Q

How many 50 hours do you need of each type of CME? What are the requirements?

A

50 hours - Category 1 CME
-Formally planned activities - follow ACCME Standards certified for credit by an ACCME accredited CME provider

50 hours - Category 2 CME
- informally planned self-initiated activities

94
Q

What is a performance improvement CME?

95
Q

What is a self assessment CME?

96
Q

What is scope of practice?

A

List of activities, responsibilities, procedures and processes that a provider can perform

Differs depending on state, type of practice and provider who you are practicing under

Supervising physician will complete a form stating what responsibilities and procedures you are allowed to perform

97
Q

What are the 4 parameters that define scope of practice?

A
  1. PA’s education and experience
  2. State laws
  3. Facility policy
  4. Needs of the practice and its patients
98
Q

What are the 3 requirements an item must meet in order to be in your scope of practice?

A

Provider must have been educated academically or on-the-job to perform this task and have documentation proving their education

Task must be allowed (or not explicitly banned) by local, state and federal laws for a member of your profession

Facility and supervising physician must allow you to perform this task

99
Q

What are the 4 functions of HIPAA?

100
Q

What 4 entities are covered by HIPAA?

A

Health plans

Health care providers

Health care clearinghouses (billing)

Business associates

101
Q

What is the key phrase for information that is protected by HIPAA?

A

ALL “individually identifiable health information”

102
Q

What info is NOT protected under HIPAA?

A

“De-identified health information”

neither identifies nor provides a reasonable basis to identify an individual

103
Q

What are the 2 situations that we HAVE to release information?

A

To individuals or their designated representatives when they request access to it

To Health and Human Services when they are undertaking a HIPAA compliance investigation

104
Q

How much information should be disclose under HIPAA?

A

Minimum amount of information needed to accomplish the intended purpose of the disclosure

105
Q

What type of disclosure notice do we have to provide?

A

Must provide notice of privacy practices

Notice must describe ways in which the we use patient information

Must be provided to patients as soon as care starts

106
Q

T/F: Patients can make an amendment request if they feel there is incorrect data in their file

107
Q

T/F: If the amendment request is denied, the information in the chart stands without any additional action

A

FALSE, Patients can have a statement of disagreement in their file if their amendment request is denied

108
Q

Patients can receive an ______ of their health information up to 6 years prior to the request

A

accounting of disclosures

109
Q

What is the exception with regards to HIPAA protection of a minor?

A

Parents are considered personal representatives for minors in most circumstances

exception: if there is a reasonable belief that the personal representative is abusing or neglecting the individual

110
Q

What are the 2 consequences of NOT following HIPAA?

A

Civil Money Penalty for those who accidentally broke HIPAA without malicious intent

Criminal Violation for those who had malintention

111
Q

What does HIPAA stand for?

A

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act