Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Primary Care > PCP rotation > Flashcards

PCP rotation Flashcards

1
Q

treatment croup

A

Dexamethasone (0,6 mg/kg for kids liquid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Tx rosacea

A

Metronidazole (Abx) cream NOT steroids (too harsh on skin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the organism that commonly causes croup

A

Parainfluenza

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

3 Abx used in treatment of acute cystitis

A

Trimethoprim/sulf (Bactrim)
Nitrofurantoin (Macrobid)
Amoxicillin/Clav (Augmentin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

if you suspect pyelonephritis, which Abx do you start prophylactically while waiting for culture

A

Ceftriaxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

most common pathogens of urethritis?`

A

gonorrhea, chlamydia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Tx urethritis

A

Azithro + ceftriaxone (1 dose each)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

you see gram negative diplococci on UA culture. What organism is causing the dysuria?

A

gonorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

most common cause of bronchiolitis in young kids

A

RSV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what disorder is directly linked to the presence of HLA-B27 marker?

A

Ankylosing spondylitis (type of arthritis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

which 3 medications can be used for somatic symptoms of hot flashes/menopause?

A

Effexor, Gabapentin, Clonidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the treatment for ER/PR receptor-positive breast cancer tumor that is 1.2 cm?

A

Chemo - usually Tamoxifen, but only if tumor is <1 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the treatment for ectopic pregnancy?

A

Methotrexate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are 3 causes of B12 deficiency?

A

pernicious anemia (body attacks parietal cells, autoimmune), chronic use of PPIs, Gastric bypass surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what does a COOMBs test look for?

A

autoimmune destruction of RBCs; if positive, body surrounds RBCs and attacks it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

AEA antibody is positive for which GI disease?

A

Celiac sprue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

an AIDS patient with suspected toxoplasmosis of the brain should get what imaging (and what would it reveal?)

A

MRI - ring-enhancing lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

pathognomonic imaging finding for sarcoidosis?

A

bilaterally hilar adenopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

which type of murmur crescendo, descrescendo systolic murmur that radiates to the carotids

A

aortic stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what are the 2 major criteria for endocarditis?

A

vegetation on valves via TEE, bacteremia positive for staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What diameter in ABI score is indicative for PAD?

A

> 1.3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Tx whooping cough vs tx croup

A

Whooping cough: Azithromycin

Croup: Dexamethasone (viral)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Patient with known lung cancer presents with arm edema, dilated veins in chest, JVD. This is a complication known as

A

SVC syndrome, tumor obstructing SVC

24
Q

Tx sarcoidosis

A

Corticosteroids

25
Q

What does secretin test do?

A

Stimulates pancreas, evaluates for remaining function in chronic pancreatitis patient

26
Q

How is ERCP different from pancreatic US for assessing for pancreatitis

A

US looks at pancreatic head, ERCP looks into pancreatic duct

27
Q

Which type of hemorrhoids hurt?

A

External

28
Q

2 most important medications for treating cirrhosis complicated by ascites?

A

Lasix + spironolactone (get the fluid off and keep potassium supplies)

29
Q

What is the culprit of hepatic encephalopathy?

A

Ammonia buildup (liver can’t clear it). Give lactulose and neomycin to prevent absorption of ammonia

30
Q

Skip lesions is pathognomonic for EGD in Crohn’s, but what will you find on barium CT?

A

Cobblestoning, string sign

31
Q

A1C of _____ is diagnostic of Diabetes?

A

> 6.5

32
Q

Addison’s disease is a deficiency of what?

A

corticosteroids and mineralocorticoids (sugar and salt)

33
Q

treatment of Adrenal insufficiency (Addisons)

A

prednisone + fludrocortisone

34
Q

what is ramsay hunt syndrome?

A

herpes zoster infection of facial nerve - affects face and ear dermatomes

35
Q

serum uric acid at what level is diagnosis of gout

A

> 7

36
Q

symptomatic vs prophylactic tx Lupus

A

Symptomatic: NSAIDs or Steroids
Prophylactic: Hydroxycholorquine

37
Q

head CT of a hemorrhagic stroke appears what color?

A

White

38
Q

head CT of ischemic stroke appears what color?

A

black

39
Q

egg shell calcifications on XRAY is diagnostic of what lung disease?

A

silicosis

40
Q

positive serologic AEA is positive for?

A

Celiac

41
Q

positive ANCA is indicative of?

A

Ulcerative Colitis

42
Q

ASCA positive serology is indicative of?

A

Crohn’s disease

43
Q

tx torsades?

A

IV Magnesium

44
Q

ST elevation in leads II, III, aVF is MI in which artery?

A

inferior - RCA

45
Q

ST elevation in leads V1-V5 is MI in which artery

A

Anterior - LAD

46
Q

ST elevation in leads I, aVL, V5, V6 is MI in which artery

A

Lateral - LCA

47
Q

reciprocal changes in V1 - V3 is what kind of MI

A

posterior (tricky!)

48
Q

patient with otitis externa BUT they have tympanostomy tubes placed. Treatment?

A

Ofloxacin drops (NEVER neomycin or gentamycin)

49
Q

which class of medication has a risk of achilles tendon rupture?

A

fluoroquinolones

50
Q

what lab value should you closely monitor in patients with acute pancreatitis and are admitted

A

BUN - check every 8 hours. Rising BUN = inadequate fluid resuscitation and higher risk for in-hospital mortality

51
Q

what is the gold standard for diagnosing kidney stones?

A

CT scan (after UA shows hematuria)

52
Q

what size kidney stones are unable to pass on their own and require surgical excision?

A

> 10 mm

53
Q

what level of Troponin is considered abnormal?

A

> 0.10

54
Q

how often do you check Troponins?

A

0,3,6 hours after arrival at ED

55
Q

how does hyperkalemia affect the EKG?

A

tall T waves

56
Q

Glascow Coma Score of ____ means unresponsive?

A

<3

4-8 comatose
15 is best response

57
Q

what is the most common primary and secondary causes of hyperparathyroidism

A

Primary - benign adenocarcinoma

Secondary - chronic kidney disease

Primary Care (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions