PCP 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Chemical elements that form most of living biological matter

A

CHON

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2
Q

BIOMOLECULES

What are the monomers of:
- carbohydrate
- protein
- lipid
- nucleic acid

A
  • monosaccharide
  • amino acid
  • glycerol & fatty acids
  • nucleotide
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3
Q

What are the elements comprising
- carbohydrate
- protein
- lipid
- nucleic acid

A
  • CHO
  • CHONPS
  • CHO
  • CHONP
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4
Q

Function of carbohydrate

A

body’s primary source of energy

ex. starch, cellulose, sugars

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5
Q

Function of protein

A

for growth and repair

ex. muscle, hair, nails, enzymes

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6
Q

Function of lipids

A

long-term energy storage, insulation, hormones, cell membrane

ex. oil, wax, fat

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7
Q

Function of nucleic acid

A

genetic information storage, protein synthesis

ex. DNA, RNA

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8
Q

3 Examples of Disaccharides

A
  • saccharose
  • lactose
  • maltose
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9
Q

3 Examples of Assimilable Polysaccharides

A
  • starch
  • amylose
  • amylopectin
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10
Q

Glucose + Fructose

A

Sucrose

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11
Q

Galactose + Glucose

A

Lactose

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12
Q

2 Glucose

A

Maltose

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13
Q

(CH2O)n is a formula for what macromolecule

A

carbohydrates

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14
Q

Which macromolecule does not dissolve in water?

A

lipids

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15
Q

Monosaccharides have yellow appearance and are soluble in water. True or False?

A

False, they are colorless and are soluble in water

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16
Q

C10 to C20 natural fatty acids

A

capric, lauric, myristic, palmitic, stearic and arachidic

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17
Q

Lipids are used by the body to perform all of the following functions EXCEPT:

A. membrane structural material.
B. enzyme action.
C. insulation.
D. a rich energy source.

A

B. enzyme action.

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18
Q

2 Polyunsaturated fats

A

Omega-3s & Omega-6s

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19
Q

2 Types of Trans fats

A

Conjugated linoleic acids (natural)
Partially hydrogenated oils (artificial)

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20
Q

Fats that have fatty acids with only single covalent bonds in their carbon skeletons are

A

saturated

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21
Q

Accounts for 95% of the fat in our diet and formed with the combination of glycerol and 3 fatty acids

A

triglycerides

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22
Q

Contain no C-C double bonds

A

saturated fats

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23
Q

Contain 1 C-C double bond

A

monounsaturated fats

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24
Q

Contain 2 or more C-C double bonds

A

polyunsaturated fats

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25
Q

Contain C-C double bonds in a trans rather than cis configuration

A

trans fats

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26
Q

Which has the higher melting point:(a) a triglyceride containing only lauric acid and glycerol or (b) a triglyceride containing only stearic acid and glycerol?

A

(b) a triglyceride containing only stearic acid and glycerol

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27
Q

which is a polymer?

  • nucleic acid
  • fatty acid
  • amino acid
  • glycerol
A

nucleic acid

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28
Q

Nucleic acids of DNA only

A
  • thymine (N)
  • 2-deoxyribose (S&P)
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29
Q

Nucleic acids of RNA only

A
  • uracil (N)
  • ribose (S&P)
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30
Q

Nucleic acids of DNA & RNA

A
  • adenine, guanine, cytosine (N)
  • phosphate (S&P)
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31
Q

What are described as the “building blocks of Protein”?

A

amino acids

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32
Q

Proteins are _____ made of amino acid______.

A

polymers; monomers

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33
Q

In this type of structure, most of carbonyl groups of peptide bonds forms a hydrogen bond with the amide nitrogen of another peptide bond four amino acids further down the polypeptide chain:

A

alpha-helix

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34
Q

The isoelectric point of an amino acid is defined as the pH

A

where the molecule carries no electric charge

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35
Q

The term “SALTING IN” refers to?

A

Increasing the solubility of a protein in solution by adding ions.

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36
Q

Salting Out

A

proteins become less soluble at high salt concentrations

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37
Q

The local spatial arrangement of a polypeptide’s backbone atoms without regard to the conformation of its side chains can be called as

A

secondary structure

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38
Q

The primary stabilizing force of protein secondary structure is

A

hydrogen bonds

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39
Q

Two types of -pleated sheets can be called:

A

parallel and antiparallel

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40
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a globular protein?

A

Polypeptide chain in extended, long
sheets

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41
Q

Some parts of a protein that have a specific chemical structure and function are called protein

A

domains

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42
Q

One of the following is NOT usually a force that helps to hold the monomer units of a quaternary protein together?

A. Peptide bonds
B. Disulfide bonds
C. Salt bonds
D. Hydrophobic interactions

A

A. Peptide bonds

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43
Q

Which of the following is a secondary structure breaker/alpha helix terminator?

A

Pro (Proline)

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44
Q

The quaternary structure of a protein is

A

the intertwining of two or more polypeptides

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45
Q

The action of disrupting the three- dimensional shape of a protein is termed

A

denaturation

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46
Q

The amino acid found in protein structure

A

Arginine

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47
Q

The bonds in protein structure that are not broken on denaturation

A

Peptide bonds

48
Q

What is the product of the oxidation of dopamine

Reverse reaction occurs via methylation

A

R-Epinephrine

49
Q

A heterocyclic aromatic compound consisting of pyrimidine ring fused to an imidazole ring

A

Purine (Adenine, Guanine)

50
Q

A heterocyclic aromatic compound similar to benzene and pyridine, containing 2 N atoms at positions 1,3.

A

Pyrimidine (Cytosine, Uracil, Thymine)

51
Q

What is the role of hydrogen bonds in the structure if DNA?

A

to connect the base pairs

52
Q

Nucleoside is a pyrimidine or purine base

A

covalently bonded to a
sugar

53
Q

In gel electrophoresis, what fragments will move most quickly through a gel?

A

small fragments

54
Q

Nucleotide bases and aromatic amino acids absorb light respectively at

A

260 & 280 nm

55
Q

Which is true about the pairing of bases in the DNA molecule?

A

purines always pair with
pyrimidines

56
Q

Enzymes have names that

A

can end either in -in or -ase

57
Q

The protein portion of a conjugated enzyme is called a(n)

protein portion of the enzyme without the cofactors

A

apoenzyme

58
Q

Enzyme cofactors that bind covalently at the active site of an enzyme are referred to as

A

prosthetic groups

59
Q

An enzyme active site is the location in an enzyme where substrate
molecules

A

undergo change

60
Q

What is the optimal temperature range for the majority of enzymes?

A

35-40 C

61
Q

An allosteric activator

A
  • increases the binding affinity
  • stabilizes the R state of the protein
62
Q

The location on an enzyme where binding occurs is known as the

A

active site

63
Q

NAD+, FAD, and FMN are all cofactors for

A

Oxidoreductases

64
Q

Allosteric activator

A
  • speeds up reaction
  • maintain Vmax
65
Q

Which of the following kinetic parameters best describes how well suited a specific compound functions as a substrate for a particular enzyme?

A

kcat/Km => catalytic efficiency

66
Q

The rate-determining step of Michaelis Menten kinetics is

A

the complex dissociation step to produce product

67
Q

Competitive vs Non-competitive inhibitor

A

C: Vmax same, Km increases
NC: Km same, Vmax decreases

68
Q

Which of the following binds to an enzyme at its active site?

A

reversible competitive inhibitor

69
Q

An uncompetitive inhibitor binds to ____.

A

ES

70
Q

A reversible inhibitor that can bind to either E alone or the ES complex
is referred to as a ______

A

non-competitive inhibitor

71
Q

A competitive inhibitor of an enzyme is usually

A

structurally similar to the substrate

72
Q

In a Lineweaver-Burk Plot, competitive inhibitor shows which of the following effect?

A

It changes the x-intercept

73
Q

Glycolytic pathway regulation involves

A

feedback, or product, inhibition by ATP

74
Q

The released energy obtained by oxidation of glucose is stored as

A

ATP

75
Q

The enzymes of glycolysis in a eukaryotic cell are located in the

A

cytosol

76
Q

ATP is from which general category of molecules?

A

Nucleotides

77
Q

Where does glycolysis occur?

A

cytoplasm

78
Q

Sports physiologists wanted to monitor athletes to determine at what point their muscles were functioning anaerobically. They could do this by checking for a buildup of which of the following compounds?

A

lactate

79
Q

Coenzyme Q is involved in electron transport as

A

a lipid-soluble electron carrier

80
Q

During glycolysis, electrons removed from glucose are passed to

A

NAD+

81
Q

FAD is reduced to FADH2 during

A

Krebs cycle

82
Q

Almost all of the oxygen (O2) one consumes in breathing is converted to:

A

water

83
Q

The carbon dioxide is primary a product of

A

krebs cycle

84
Q

Cellular respiration takes place mostly in:

A

mitochondria

85
Q

Which of the following is not present during the TCA cycle?

A

O2

86
Q

Which of the following is an aerobic product of pyruvate catabolic metabolism?

A

ethanol

87
Q

The Krebs Cycle begins when pyruvic acid produced by glycolsis enters the

A

mitochondrion

88
Q

The main purpose of the electron transport chain is to:

A

Use high energy electrons from other cycles to convert ADP into ATP

89
Q

Where are the proteins of the electron transport chain located?

A

mitochondrial inner membrane

90
Q

The ATP synthase responsible for most of the ATP synthesis in the body is located:

A

On the inner side of the inner mitochondria membrane

91
Q

Hydrolysis of a triglyceride produces

A

fatty acids and glycerol

92
Q

The site of amino acid catabolism is the:

A

liver

93
Q

The first step in the catabolism of most amino acids is

A

Removal of the amino group

94
Q

A glucogenic amino acid is one which is degraded to

A

pyruvate or citric acid cycle intermediates

95
Q

Transamination is the process where

A

α-amino group is removed from the amino acid to a keto acid

96
Q

Both strands of DNA serve as templates concurrently in

A

replication

97
Q

Which of the following repairs nicked DNA by forming a phosphodiester bond between adjacent nucleotides?

A

DNA ligase

98
Q

During which of the following process a new copy of a DNA molecule is precisely synthesized?

A

replication

99
Q

Which of the following enzyme adds complementary bases during replication?

A

polymerase

100
Q

Which of the following enzymes unwind short stretches of DNA helix immediately ahead of a replication fork?

A

helicases

101
Q

Which DNA polymerase removes RNA primers in DNA synthesis?

A

Polymerase I

102
Q

Enzyme, responsible for proofreading base pairing is

A

DNA Polymerase

103
Q

The synthesis of DNA by DNA polymerase occurs in the

A

5’ to 3’ direction

104
Q

The 5’ and 3’ numbers are related to the

A

carbon number in sugar

105
Q

Which of the following enzyme is used for synthesis of RNA under the direction of DNA?

A

RNA polymerase

106
Q

Recognition/binding site of RNA polymerase is called

A

promoter

107
Q

The site of protein synthesis is

A

ribosome

108
Q

The structure in a bacterium that indicates an active site for protein synthesis is

A

a polysome.

109
Q

During the process of translation

A

the peptide is ‘passed’ from the tRNA in the P-site to the tRNA in the A-site

110
Q

The nucleolus of the nucleus is the site where:

A

rRNA is transcribed and ribosomal subunits are assembled

111
Q

The ribosomes are composed of

A

proteins and RNA

112
Q

In the genetic code there are:

A

more codons than amino acids

113
Q

the anticodon of tRNA

A

binds to an mRNA codon

114
Q

On the ribosome, mRNA binds

A

to the small subunit

115
Q

Ribosomes select the correct tRNAs

A

solely on the basis of their anticodons

116
Q

Which of the following amino acid starts all proteins synthesis?

A

Methionine