PCOL

Question 1

Mechanism of action of local anesthetics.

A. Block sodium channel thereby stopping
axonal conduction
B. Block alpha and beta receptor
C. Block neuronal firing by decreasing Ach
in the neuromuscular junction
D. Inhibition of acetyl cholinesterase
enzyme
E. Inhibition of enzyme responsible for pain response

Answer 1

A. Block sodium channel thereby stopping
axonal conduction

Question 2

The following are factors that affect the
absorption of drug from the gastrointestinal (GI) track except:

A. Surface area of absorption
B. Blood flow to the site of absorption
C. Physical state of the drug
D. Concentration of the drug at the site of absorption
E. Protein binding

Answer 2

E. Protein binding

Question 3

Continued stimulation of cells with agonists generally results in which of the following?

A. Desensitization
B. Up-regulation
C. Down-regulation

Answer 3

Desensitization
Down-regulation

Question 4

Drug that lacks intrinsic efficacy but retains affinity and competes with the agonist for the binding sites of the receptor.

A. Competitive antagonist
B. Full agonist
C. Non-competitive antagonist
D. Partial antagonist
E. Partial agonist

Answer 4

A. Competitive antagonist

Question 5

This type of drug produce its effect by binding a site on the receptor distinct from that of the primary agonist and thereby changing the affinity of the receptor for the agonist.

A. Competitive antagonist
B. Full agonist
C. Non-competitive antagonist
D. Partial antagonist
E. Partial agonist

Answer 5

C. Non-competitive antagonist

Question 6

In this type of study, participants are blinded to treatment assignment, investigators are not.

A. Double blind study
B. Single blind study
C. Masking
D. Open-label
E. Un-blinded study

Answer 6

B. Single blind study

Question 7

The neurotransmitter of all preganglionic autonomic fibers, and all postganglionic parasympathetic fibers:

A. Norepinephrine
B. Noradrenaline
C. Acetylcholine
D. A and B
E. A and C

Answer 7

C. Acetylcholine

Question 8

The release of ach and other neurotransmitters by exocytosis is inhibited by:

A. Acetylcholinesterase
B. Botulinum toxin
C. Reserpine
D. Metyrosine
E. Guanethidine

Answer 8

B. Botulinum toxin

Question 9

All of the following are enzymes involved in the biosynthesis of epinephrine from tyrosine EXCEPT:

A. Tyrosine hydroxylase
B. Aromatic L amino acid decarboxylase
C. Dopamine Beta-hydroxylase
D. Phenyl ethanolamine-N-Methyl transferase
E. Monoamine oxidase

Answer 9

E. Monoamine oxidase

Question 10

Rate limiting enzyme in the synthesis of catecholamines:

A. Tyrosine hydroxylase
B. Aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase
C. Dopamine beta-hydroxylase
D. Phenyl ethanolamine-N-Methyl transferase
E. COMT

Answer 10

A. Tyrosine hydroxylase

Question 11

All of the following are effects of activating beta 2 receptor, EXCEPT:

A. Bronchoconstriction
B. Uterine Relaxation
C. Glycogenolysis
D. Gluconeogenesis
E. Bronchodilation

Answer 11

A. Bronchoconstriction

Question 12

All of the following are effects of activating alpha 1 receptor EXCEPT:

A. Vascular smooth muscle relaxation
B. Intestinal smooth muscle relaxation
C. Increase contractive force of the heart
D. Glycogenolysis in the liver
E. Vascular smooth muscle constriction

Answer 12

A. Vascular smooth muscle relaxation

Question 13

Which of the following is a pharmacological effect of muscarinic stimulation in the cardiovascular system?

A. Vasoconstriction
B. Decrease in cardiac rate
C. Positive chronotropic effect
D. Positive dromotropic effect
E. Positive inotropic effect

Answer 13

B. Decrease in cardiac rate

Question 14

All of the following are naturally occurring
chromonematic Alkaid, EXCEPT:

A. Pilocarpine
B. Muscarine
C. Acetylcholine
D. Arecoline
E. None of these

Answer 14

C. Acetylcholine

Question 15

Which of the following is/are effects of cholinomimetic drugs?
I. Stimulation of GI smooth muscle
II. Stimulation of secretion of exocrine gland
III. Bronchoconstriction
IV. Tachycardia

A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I, II and III
D. I and IV
E. I, II, III and IV

Answer 15

C. I, II and III

Question 16

Major contraindication to the use of muscarinic agonist are the following EXCEPT:

A. Asthma
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Coronary insufficiency
D. Acid-peptic disease
E. Hypertension

Answer 16

E. Hypertension

Question 17

Used in the treatment of glaucoma where it is instilled into the eye usually as a 0.5-4% solution.

A. Epinephrine
B. Eye-Mo®
C. Pilocarpine
D. Bethanecol
E. Atropine

Answer 17

C. Pilocarpine

Question 18

Most effective prophylactic agent for short (4-6 hours) exposure to severe motion, also available as transdermal patch.

A. Atropine
B. Scopolamine
C. Ipratropium
D. Tiotropium
E. Varenicline

Answer 18

B. Scopolamine

Question 19

Which of the following drugs is/are classified an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor?
I. Pilocarpine
II. Edrophonium
III. Tacrine
IV. Atropine

A. I only
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I, II and III
E. IV only

Answer 19

C. II and III

Question 20

Which of the following is not an effect of anti-cholinesterase agents?

A. Stimulation of muscarinic receptor responses at autonomic effector organs
B. Stimulation, followed by depression or paralysis of all autonomic ganglia and skeletal muscle
C. Stimulation, with occasional subsequent depression of cholinergic receptor sites in the CNS
D. All of these
E. None of these

Answer 20

E. None of these

Question 21

Intoxication with an organophosphorus anticholinesterase agent can be treated with:

A. Atropine
B. Pralidoxime
C. Malathion
D. A and B
E. B and C

Answer 21

D. A and B

Question 22

This agent is used in the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis

A. Edrophonium
B. Atropine
C. Neostigmine
D. Pralidoxime
E. Acetylcholine

Answer 22

A. Edrophonium

Question 23

All are standard anticholinesterase drugs used in the symptomatic treatment of myasthenia gravis, EXCEPT:

A. Pyridostigmine
B. Neostigmine
C. Atropine
D. Ambenonium
E. Edrophonium

Answer 23

C. Atropine

Question 24

Mechanism of action of indirect acting sympathomimetics drugs:

A. Agents act directly on one or more of the adrenergic receptors thereby producing an effect
B. Increase the availability of norepinephrine (NE) or epinephrine (Epi) to stimulate adrenergic receptors
C. Releasing or displacing NE from sympathetic nerve varicosities
D. A and B
E. B and C

Answer 24

E. B and C

Question 25

Metabolic precursor of NE and EPI and is also a neurotransmitter particularly important in the regulation movement.

A. Dopamine
B. Serotonin
C. Oxytocin
D. Norepinephrine
E. Noradrenaline

Answer 25

A. Dopamine

Question 26

These drugs play a major role only in the treatment of bronchoconstriction in patients with asthma (reversible airway obstruction) or chorionic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

A. Beta 1 adrenergic agonist
B. Beta 2 adrenergic agonist
C. Beta 1 adrenergic antagonist
D. Beta 2 adrenergic antagonist
E. Non-selective beta agonist

Answer 26

B. Beta 2 adrenergic agonist

Question 27

Potent, non-selective beta receptor agonist with very low affinity for alpha receptors

A. Ipratropium
B. Terbutaline
C. Isoproterenol
D. Prazosin
E. Phenylephrine

Answer 27

C. Isoproterenol

Question 28

This sympathomimetic drug is indicated for the short-term treatment of cardiac decompensation post cardiac surgery or in patients with congestive heart failure or acute myocardial infarction.

A. Dobutamine
B. Isoproterenol
C. Metaproterenol
D. Albuterol
E. Isoetharine

Answer 28

A. Dobutamine

Question 29

Selective beta 2 agonist originally developed as a uterine relaxant.

A. Terbutaline
B. Ritodrine
C. Oxytocin
D. Prazosin
E. Salmeterol

Answer 29

B. Ritodrine

Question 30

Life-threatening condition characterized by inadequate perfusion of tissues, hypotension and ultimately failure of organ systems.

A. Coma
B. Shock
C. Arrhythmia
D. Heart Failure
E. Kidney Failure

Answer 30

B. Shock

Question 31

Structurally related to amphetamine, this drug is a mild CNS stimulant with more prominent effects on mental than on motor activities. This drug is also effective in the treatment of narcolepsy and ADHD.

A. Methamphetamine
B. Ephedrine
C. Clonidine
D. Methylphenidate
E. Phenobarbital

Answer 31

D. Methylphenidate

Question 32

Classified as alpha 2 selective antagonist.

A. Phenoxybenzamine
B. Prazosin
C. Yohimbine
D. Nadolol
E. Metoprolol

Answer 32

C. Yohimbine

Question 33

Classified as beta 1 selective antagonist.

A. Phenoxybenzamine
B. Prazosin
C. Yohimbine
D. Nadolol
E. Metoprolol

Answer 33

E. Metoprolol

Question 34

Used in the treatment of pheochromocytoma, tumor of the adrenal medulla and sympathetic neurons that secrete enormous quantities of catecholamines.

A. Phenoxybenzamine
B. Epinephrine
C. Metoprolol
D. Dopamine
E. Isoxuprine

Answer 34

A. Phenoxybenzamine

Question 35

Which of the following is NOT correct?

A. Alpha agonist cause miosis
B. Alpha agonist cause vasoconstriction
C. Beta antagonist decrease the formation of aqueous humor
D. Beta 2 agonist cause bronchodilation
E. Beta 3 agonist cause lipolysis

Answer 35

A. Alpha agonist cause miosis

Question 36

Beta 2 receptor stimulation includes all of the following effects EXCEPT:

A. Stimulation of renin secretion
B. Fall of potassium concentration is plasma
C. Relaxation of bladder uterus
D. Uterine muscle contraction
E. Skeletal muscle relaxation

Answer 36

D. Uterine muscle contraction

Question 37

Which of the following effects is associated with beta 3-receptor stimulation?

A. Lipolysis
B. Decrease in platelet aggregation
C. Bronchodilation
D. Tachycardia
E. Pilomotor smooth muscle contraction

Answer 37

A. Lipolysis

Question 38

Which of the following hypnotic drug is benzodiazepine derivative?

A. Zolpidem
B. Flurazepam
C. Secobarbital
D. Ramelteon
E. Buspirone

Answer 38

B. Flurazepam

Question 39

Which of the following hypnotic drug increase the activity of hepatic drug-metabolizing enzyme systems?

A. Phenobarbital
B. Zolpidem
C. Flurazepam
D. Secobarbital
E. Ramelteon

Answer 39

A. Phenobarbital

Question 40

Which of the following is the mechanism of Barbiturates action?

A. Increasing the duration of the GABA gated Cl-channel openings
B. Directly activating the chloride channel
C. Increasing the frequency of Cl-channel openings events
D. Antagonist at benzodiazepine bindings sites on the GABA receptor
E. Partial agonist at 5-HT receptor but also affinity for D2 receptor.

Answer 40

A. Increasing the duration of the GABA gated Cl-channel openings

Question 41

The usual cause of adverse effect/death
due to overdose of hypnotics due to:

A. Depression of the CNS
B. Heart attack
C. Hypothermia
D. Cerebral edema
E. Status epilepticus

Answer 41

A. Depression of the CNS

Question 42

Which of the following antiseizure drugs produces a voltage-dependent inactivation of sodium channels?
I. Phenytoin
II. Carbamazepine
III. Vigabatrin
IV. Gabapentin

A. I only
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. II and IV
E. IV only

Answer 42

B. I and II

Question 43

Mechanism of action of phenytoin:

A. Block high-frequency firing of neurons through action on voltage-gated (VG) Na+ channel
B. It binds to an allosteric regulatory site on the GABA-BZ receptor and prolongs the opening of the Cl-channel
C. It effects on the Ca2+ currents, reducing the low-threshold (T-type) current
D. It inhibits GABA-transaminase, which catalyzes the breakdown of GABA
E. Decreases the excitatory transmission by acting on the VG Ca2+ channels presynaptically

Answer 43

A. Block high-frequency firing of neurons through action on voltage-gated (VG) Na+ channel

Question 44

The pathophysiologic basis for anti-parkinsonism therapy is:

A. The loss of dopaminergic neurons
B. The loss of some cholinergic neurons
C. The loss of the GABAergic cells
D. The loss of glutaminergic neurons
E. Abnormal firing of neurons from the CNS

Answer 44

A. The loss of dopaminergic neurons

Question 45

Which of the following drugs is used in the treatment of parkinsonian disorders?

A. Phenytoin
B. Selegeline
C. Haloperidol
D. Fluoxetine
E. Aspirin

Answer 45

B. Selegeline

Question 46

The mechanism of action of carbidopa is:

A. Stimulating the synthesis release, or reuptake of dopamine
B. Inhibition of DOPA decarboxylase enzyme
C. Stimulating dopamine receptors
D. Inhibition of COMT
E. Monoamine oxidase inhibitor

Answer 46

B. Inhibition of DOPA decarboxylase enzyme

Question 47

Which of the following statements is correct?

A. MAO-A metabolizes dopamine; MAO-B metabolizes serotonin
B. MAO-A metabolizes norepinephrine and dopamine; MAO-B metabolizes serotonin
C. MAO-A metabolizes norepinephrine and serotonin; MAO-B metabolizes dopamine
D. MAO-A metabolizes dopamine; MAO-B metabolizes norepinephrine and serotonin
E. MAO-A metabolizes dopamine; MAO-B metabolizes epinephrine

Answer 47

C. MAO-A metabolizes norepinephrine and serotonin; MAO-B metabolizes dopamine

Question 48

A catechol O-methyl transferase inhibitor, which prolongs the action of levodopa by diminishing its peripheral metabolism:

A. Carbidopa
B. Clozapine
C. Tolcapone
D. Rasagiline
E. Selegiline

Answer 48

C. Tolcapone

Question 49

Mu receptors are associated with:

A. Supraspinal and spinal analgesia, sedation, respiratory depression and slowed GI transit
B. Spinal analgesia, mydriasis sedation physical dependence
C. Dysphoria, hallucinations, respiratory and vasomotor stimulation
D. Analgesia, euphoria, respiratory stimulation, physical dependence
E. CNS stimulation and respiratory stimulation

Answer 49

A. Supraspinal and spinal analgesia, sedation, respiratory depression and slowed GI transit

Question 50

Which of the following opioid analgesics is a strong mu receptor agonist?

A. Morphine
B. Pentazocine
C. Buprenorphine
D. Naloxone
E. Propoxyphene

Answer 50

A. Morphine

Question 51

Which of the following agents is a full antagonist of opioid receptors?

A. Meperidine
B. Buprenorphine
C. Naloxone
D. Butorphanol
E. Morphine

Answer 51

C. Naloxone

Question 52

The diagnostic triad of opioid overdosage is:

A. Mydriasis, coma and hyperventilation
B. Coma, depressed respiration and miosis
C. Mydriasis, chills and abdominal cramps
D. Miosis, tremor and vomiting
E. Mydriasis, diarrhea, increase urination

Answer 52

B. Coma, depressed respiration and miosis

Question 53

Which of the following non-narcotic agents is salicylic acid derivative?

A. Phenylbutazone
B. Ketamine
C. Aspirin
D. Tramadol
E. Diclofenac

Answer 53

C. Aspirin

Question 54

Correct statements concerning aspirin include all of the following except:

A. Irreversibly inhibits platelet COX
B. Main adverse effects at antithrombotic doses are gastric upset (intolerance) and gastric and duodenal ulcers
C. It inhibits platelet aggregation
D. Safe to use in patients with hemophilia
E. Epidemiologic studies suggest that long term use of aspirin at low dosage is associated with a lower incidence of colon cancer

Answer 54

D. Safe to use in patients with hemophilia

Question 55

A drug that inhibit HMG-CoA reductase. It also reduces cholesterol synthesis and up regulate low density lipoprotein (LDL) receptors on hepatocytes.

A. Fenofibrates
B. Colestipol
C. Ezetimibe
D. Atorvastatin
E. Niacin

Answer 55

D. Atorvastatin

Question 56

A vasodilator that also inhibits plates function by inhibiting adenosine uptake and cGMP phosphodiesterase activity.

A. Dipyridamole
B. Abciximab
C. Clostazol
D. Anistreplase
E. Streptokinase

Answer 56

A. Dipyridamole

Question 57

The mathematical product of peripheral vascular resistance (PVR) and cardiac output (CO).

A. Hypertension
B. Blood Pressure
C. Hypotension
D. Vascular pressure
E. Afterload

Answer 57

B. Blood Pressure

Question 58

Recommendation on dietary approaches to stop hypertension (DASH).

A. High intake of fruits
B. Low fats dairy products along with reduced content of dietary cholesterol saturated fat and total fat
C. The diet is rich on potassium and calcium and low in sodium
D. High intake of vegetables
E. All of these

Answer 58

E. All of these

Question 59

Recommend Blood Pressure Targets for patient with heart failure

A. <150 / <90
B. <140 / <90
C. <140 / <80
D. <160 / <90
E. <130 / <80

Answer 59

E. <130 / <80

Question 60

Increase the excretion of Na+, CI+ and H2O by inhibiting Na+ /Cl+ ion exchange in the early part of the distal tubule:

A. Thiazide diuretics
B. Loop diuretic
C. Potassium Sparring diuretics
D. Aldosterone Antagonists
E. Osmotic diuretics

Answer 60

A. Thiazide diuretics

Question 61

Drug that antagonize angiotensin II at the AT1 receptor subtype, which decrease systemic vascular resistance.

A. Furosemide
B. Amiloride
C. Metoprolol
D. Captopril
E. Losartan

Answer 61

E. Losartan

Question 62

Reduce both resting and exercise heart rate, cardiac output and both systolic and diastolic blood pressure

A. Furosemide
B. Amiloride
C. Metoprolol
D. Captopril
E. Losartan

Answer 62

C. Metoprolol

Question 63

Block the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II by interfering with angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) activity

A. Furosemide
B. Amiloride
C. Metoprolol
D. Captopril
E. Losartan

Answer 63

D. Captopril

Question 64

A condition of chronic excess total body iron caused either by an inherited abnormality of iron Absorption or by frequent transfusion to treat certain types of hemolytic disorders:

A. Hemochromatosis
B. Megaloblastic anemia
C. Microcytic anemia
D. Neutropenia
E. Pernicious anemia

Answer 64

A. Hemochromatosis

Question 65

A Deficiency in serum hemoglobin and erythrocytes in which the erythrocytes are abnormally large. Results from either folate or vitamin B12 deficiency

A. Hemochromatosis
B. Megaloblastic anemia
C. Microcytic anemia
D. Neutropenia
E. Pernicious anemia

Answer 65

B. Megaloblastic anemia

Question 66

A deficiency in serum hemoglobin and erythrocytes in which the erythrocytes are abnormally small. Often caused by iron deficiency.

A. Hemochromatosis
B. Megaloblastic anemia
C. Microcytic anemia
D. Neutropenia
E. Pernicious anemia

Answer 66

C. Microcytic anemia

Question 67

An abnormally low number of neutrophils in the blood; patients with this condition are susceptible to serious infection

A. Hemochromatosis
B. Megaloblastic anemia
C. Microcytic anemia
D. Neutropenia
E. Pernicious anemia

Answer 67

D. Neutropenia

Question 68

A form of megaloblastic anemia resulting from deficiency of intrinsic factor, a protein produced by gastric mucosal cell and required for intestinal absorption of vitamin B12

A. Hemochromatosis
B. Megaloblastic anemia
C. Microcytic anemia
D. Neutropenia
E. Pernicious anemia

Answer 68

E. Pernicious anemia

Question 69

Required for biosynthesis of heme and heme-containing proteins, including hemoglobin and myoglobin

A. Deferoxamine
B. Vitamin B12
C. Folic Acid
D. Ferrous sulfate
E. Filgrastim

Answer 69

D. Ferrous sulfate

Question 70

Stimulates G-CSF receptors expressed on mature neutrophils and their progenitors for the treatment of neutropenia:

A. Deferoxamine
B. Vitamin B12
C. Folic acid
D. Ferrous sulfate
E. Filgrastim

Answer 70

E. Filgrastim

Question 71

An endogenous anticlotting protein that irreversibly inactivates thrombin and factor Xa. Its enzymatic action is markedly accelerated by the heparins

A. Antithrombin III
B. Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa
C. Clotting cascade
D. Prothrombin
E. A and B

Answer 71

A. Antithrombin III

Question 72

A protein complex on the surface of platelets. When activated, it aggregates platelets primarily by binding to fibrin.

A. Antithrombin III
B. Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa
C. Clotting cascade
D. Prothrombin
E. A and C

Answer 72

B. Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa

Question 73

Laboratory test used to monitor the anticoagulant effect of unfractionated heparin and direct thrombin inhibitors; prolonged when drug effect is adequate

A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aptt) test
B. Clotting cascade
C. Prothrombin time (PT) test
D. Platelet test
E. Coagulase test

Answer 73

A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aptt) test

Question 74

Laboratory test used to monitor the anticoagulant effect of warfarin; prolonged when drug effect is adequate

A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (apt) test
B. Clotting cascade
C. Prothrombin time (PT) test
D. Platelet test
E. Coagulase test

Answer 74

C. Prothrombin time (PT) test

Question 75

Which of the following are classified as thrombolytic agents?
I. Streptokinase
II. Warfarin
III. T-PA derivatives
IV. Heparins

A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I and III
D. II and IV
E. IV only

Answer 75

C. I and III

Question 76

What is the bactericidal concentration of ethanol and isopropanol by volume in water?

A. 60 – 90%
B. 30 – 50%
C. 70 – 99%
D. 80 – 100%
E. 10 – 20%

Answer 76

A. 60 – 90%

Question 77

It is a destruction of marked reduction in number of activity of microorganisms.

A. Antisepsis
B. Decontamination
C. Disinfection
D. Sterilization
E. Pasteurization

Answer 77

B. Decontamination

Question 78

It contains 2% Iodine and 2.4% NaI in alcohol and is the most active antiseptic for intact skin

A. Iodophors
B. Povidone iodine
C. Tincture of Iodine USP
D. Iodine solution
E. Both A and B

Answer 78

C. Tincture of Iodine USP

Question 79

A phenolic disinfectant that cause cerebral edema and convulsions in premature infants.

A. O-phenyl phenol
B. P-Amylphenol
C. O-benzyl-P-Chlorophenol
D. Heptachlorophene
E. Hexachlorophene

Answer 79

E. Hexachlorophene

Question 80

The following has an excellent efficacy on infection caused by Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia except:

A. Penicillin
B. Dapsone
C. Atrovaquone
D. Trimetoprim-sulfamethoxazole
E. None of these

Answer 80

A. Penicillin

Question 81

First line drug in treating early stage of infection caused by West African trypanosomiasis

A. Pentamidine
B. Melarsoprol
C. Metronidazole
D. Iodoquinol
E. Tetracycline

Answer 81

A. Pentamidine

Question 82

It inhibits topoisomerase II and has a side effect of alopecia and myelosuppression

A. Irinotecan
B. Etoposide
C. Paclitaxel
D. Vinblastine
E. Vincristine

Answer 82

B. Etoposide

Question 83

The FDA approved a novel, oral and highly selective small molecule inhibitor of BRAFV600E last August 2011 and has a highly promising activity in metastatic melanoma. What drug is this?

A. Lomustine
B. Camustine
C. Cyclophosphamide
D. Vemurafenib
E. Etoposide

Answer 83

D. Vemurafenib

Question 84

It is an immunosuppressant macrolide antibiotic produced by Steptomyces tsukabaensis

A. Cyclosporine
B. Tacrolimus
C. Temsirolimus
D. Cycloserine
E. Sirolimus

Answer 84

B. Tacrolimus

Question 85

What class of Gastrointestinal drugs are most effective agents for the treatment of non-erosive and erosive reflux disease and extra-esophageal manifestation of reflux disease?

A. NSAID
B. H2 receptor antagonist
C. Proton Pump inhibitor
D. Prostaglandin analogs
E. H1 receptor antagonist

Answer 85

C. Proton Pump inhibitor

Question 86

The following are common preparation of natural plant products which are bulk forming laxatives except

A. Psyllium
B. Methylcellulose
C. Polycarbophil
D. A and B
E. None of these

Answer 86

C. Polycarbophil

Question 87

It is the most commonly used osmotic laxative and should not be used for prolonged periods for patient with renal insufficiency due to the risk of hypermagnesemia

A. Magnesium hydroxide
B. Milk of Magnesia
C. Furosemide
D. A and B
E. Mannitol

Answer 87

D. A and B

Question 88

It is effective in reducing nocturnal acid but is less effective against stimulated secretion

A. H2 receptor antagonist
B. PPI
C. Sucralfate
D. Laxative
E. Diuretic

Answer 88

A. H2 receptor antagonist

Question 89

Ondansetron and Granisetron block which receptor site?

A. 5HT3
B. 5HT1A
C. 5HT1B
D. 5HT1C
E. 5HT4

Answer 89

A. 5HT3

Question 90

These are example of amides:
I. Lidocaine
II. Bupivacaine
III. Cocaine
IV. Prilocaine

A. I and II
B. I, II and III
C. I, II and IV
D. II, III and IV
E. I, II, III and IV

Answer 90

C. I, II and IV

Question 91

High Plasma concentration of local anesthetics result from rapid absorption, thus causing:
I. Sedation
II. Light headedness
III. Auditory disturbances
IV. Restlessness

A. I and II
B. I, II and III
C. I, II and IV
D. I and IV
E. I, II, III and IV

Answer 91

E. I, II, III and IV

Question 92

Selective Serotonin-Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitor include:
I. Venlafaxine
II. Sertraline
III. Duloxetine
IV. Citalopram

A. I only
B. I, II and III
C. I, II and IV
D. I and III
E. II and III

Answer 92

D. I and III

Question 93

Which pair is mismatch?
I. Butyrophenone – Haloperidol
II. Atypical antipsychotics – Clozapine
III. Thioxanthene – Thiothixene
IV. Phenothiazine – Chlorpromazine

A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. IV only
E. None of these

Answer 93

E. None of these

Question 94

Which of the following is NOT true about opioids?
I. Opioid analgesics may prolong labor
II. Opioids contract biliary smooth muscle
III. Opioid analgesics stimulates release of ADH, Prolactin and Somatropin
IV. Opioids causes mydriasis

A. I, II, III and IV
B. IV only
C. III only
D. I only
E. II only

Answer 94

B. IV only

Question 95

Which of the following is mismatch?
I. Factor I – Fibrinogen
II. Factor XII – Fibrin-Stabilizing factor
III. Factor XI – Prothrombin
IV. Factor X – Stuart power factor

A. III only
B. IV only
C. I and II
D. II, III and IV
E. I, II, III and IV

Answer 95

A. III only

Question 96

The deficiency of factor IX can cause hemophilia B and Christmas Disease. Hemophilia A is also known as Christmas Disease.

A. Only the 1st statement is correct
B. Only the 2nd statement is correct
C. Both statements are correct
D. Both statements are wrong

Answer 96

A. Only the 1st statement is correct

Question 97

The following are non-selective COX inhibitor EXCEPT:
I. Diclofenac
II. Celecoxib
III. Meloxicam
IV. Ibuprofen

A. I and II
B. II and III
C. III and IV
D. I and IV
E. IV only

Answer 97

B. II and III

Question 98

It is a peptide antibiotic and is considered as a non-biologic DMARD

A. Cycloserine
B. Cyclosporine
C. Chloroquine
D. Abatacept
E. Azathioprine

Answer 98

B. Cyclosporine

Question 99

It is the active metabolite of phenacetin
I. Acetaminophen
II. N-acetyl-p-aminophenol
III. N-acetylcysteine
IV. ASA

A. IV only
B. I only
C. I and II
D. III only
E. I, II, III and IV

Answer 99

C. I and II

Question 100

It is the most common form of hyperthyroidism

A. Myxedema coma
B. Subacute thyroiditis
C. Ophthalmopathy
D. Grave’s disease
E. None of these

Answer 100

D. Grave’s disease

Question 101

This is the sudden acute exacerbation of all of the symptoms of thyrotoxicosis presenting as a life-threatening syndrome
I. Myxedema coma
II. Grave’s disease
III. Thyroid Storm
IV. Thyrotoxic crisis

A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. III and IV

Answer 101

E. III and IV

Question 102

A syndrome of thyroid enlargement without excessive thyroid hormone production

A. Non-toxic goiter
B. Thyroid neoplasms
C. Neonatal Grave’s Disease
D. Myxedema coma
E. Thyroiditis

Answer 102

A. Non-toxic goiter

Question 103

What is the route of administration of methyltestosterone?
I. IM
II. IV
III. Oral
IV. Transdermal

A. I and II
B. III and IV
C. I only
D. III only
E. None of these

Answer 103

D. III only

Question 104

It is a chemotherapeutic drug which is a folic acid analog that binds with high affinity to the active catalytic site of dihydrofolate reductase:

A. Cisplatin
B. Dacarbazine
C. Methotrexate
D. Vincristine
E. Gemcitabine

Answer 104

C. Methotrexate

Question 105

A catechol-o-methyltransferase inhibitor

A. Selegiline
B. Entacapone
C. Pergolide
D. Ropinirole
E. Rotigotine

Answer 105

B. Entacapone

Question 106

The combination of these are the most effective for H. pylori associated ulcers:
I. Antibiotic
II. PPI
III. H2 receptor blocker
IV. Prostaglandin analogs

A. Antibiotic and PPI
B. PPI and H2 receptor blocker
C. H2 receptor blocker and prostaglandin analogs
D. Antibiotic and H2 receptor blocker
E. Antibiotic and prostaglandin analog

Answer 106

A. Antibiotic and PPI

Question 107

It is the most common leukemia in adults.

A. Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia
B. Acute Myelogenous Leukemia
C. Hodgkin’s Leukemia
D. Non-Hodgkin’s Leukemia
E. None of these

Answer 107

A. Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia

Question 108

What type of organ transplant rejection occurs within hours and cannot be stopped with immunosuppressive drug and occurs due to performed antibodies against the donor organs?

A. Acute
B. Accelerated
C. Hyperacute
D. Chronic
E. Superficial

Answer 108

C. Hyperacute

Question 109

The hallmark of this type of diabetes is selective beta cell destruction and severe or absolute insulin deficiency

A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3
D. Type 4
E. All of these

Answer 109

A. Type 1

Question 110

This is the main form of leukemia in childhood, and it is the most common form of cancer in children

A. Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia
B. Acute Myelogenous Leukemia
C. Hodgkin’s Leukemia
D. Non-Hodgkin’s Leukemia
E. None of these

Answer 110

A. Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia

Question 111

Its generic name is Imiquimod and it is used in the treatment of external genital and perianal warts in adults. Available as 5% cream.

A. Protopic
B. Aldara
C. Elidel
D. Zovirax
E. Denavir

Answer 111

B. Aldara

Question 112

Podophyllum resin, an alcoholic extract of mandrake root or May apple is used in the treatment of:

A. Condyloma Acuminatum
B. Psoriasis
C. Photophobia
D. Lichen simplex chronicus
E. Cushing’s syndrome

Answer 112

A. Condyloma Acuminatum

Question 113

A combination of levodopa and MAO-A inhibitors could lead to this condition:

A. Hypertensive Crisis
B. Alopecia
C. Memory Loss
D. Hyperactivity
E. GI bleeding

Answer 113

A. Hypertensive Crisis

Question 114

This is also known as manic-depressive illness

A. Anxiety
B. Bipolar Disorder
C. Obstructive-compulsive disorder
D. ADHD
E. None of these

Answer 114

B. Bipolar Disorder

Question 115

This vitamin enhances the extracerebral metabolism of levodopa

A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B9
C. Vitamin B6
D. Vitamin E
E. Vitamin D

Answer 115

C. Vitamin B6

Question 116

PGE1 analog used to treat erectile dysfunction:

A. Alprostadil
B. Misoprostol
C. Dinoprostone
D. Epoprostenol
E. Prostin E2

Answer 116

A. Alprostadil

Question 117

Which of the following is an example of piperidine type of phenothiazines?

I. Thioridazine
II. Piperacetazine
III. Mesoridazine
IV. Carphenazine

A. I and II
B. III and IV
C. I, II and III
D. II, III and IV
E. I, II, III and IV

Answer 117

C. I, II and III

Question 118

PGE1 analog used as treatment and prophylaxis of NSAID-included gastric ulcer and is also an abortifacient drug.

A. Alprostadil
B. Misoprostol
C. Dinoprostone
D. Epoprostenol
E. Prostin E2

Answer 118

B. Misoprostol

Question 119

Drug for the treatment of gout which blocks xanthine oxidase thereby decreasing the production of uric acid:

A. Indomethacin
B. Colchicine
C. Allopurinol
D. Febuxosat
E. C and D

Answer 119

E. C and D

Question 120

Drug for gout which increase urinary excretion of uric acid (inhibits reabsorption of uric acid in the proximal tubule):

A. Indomethacin
B. Colchicine
C. Allopurinol
D. Febuxosat
E. Probenecid

Answer 120

E. Probenecid

Question 121

Drug for the treatment of gout that disrupts the inflammatory cycle, which inhibits leukocyte migration and phagocytosis of uric acid crystals:

A. Indomethacin
B. Colchicine
C. Allopurinol
D. Febuxosat
E. Probenecid

Answer 121

B. Colchicine

Question 122

NSAID that inhibits COX enzyme thereby reducing the production of prostaglandins. May caused cholestatic hepatitis, thrombocytopenia and leukopenia

A. Indomethacin
B. Colchicine
C. Allopurinol
D. Febuxosat
E. Probenecid

Answer 122

A. Indomethacin

Question 123

Which of the following drugs listed below are classified as immunostimulants?
I. Filgastrim
II. Cyclosporine
III. Aldesleukin
IV. Interferon Alfacon-1
V. Prednisone

A. I, II and III
B. I, III and IV
C. II, III and IV
D. II and V
E. II and III

Answer 123

B. I, III and IV

Question 124

Medium to large vessel vasculitis seen in children; symptoms include conjunctivitis, rash, erythema of the palms and soles, coronary aneurysms, and strawberry tongue:

A. Aplastic anemia
B. Erythema Nodosum Leprosum
C. Kawasaki disease
D. Hirsutism
E. Malignant Osteoporosis

Answer 124

C. Kawasaki disease

Question 125

A syndrome characterized by polyuria, polydipsia and hypernatremia and is caused by inadequate production of vasopressin:

A. Acromegaly
B. Central diabetes insipidus
C. Gigantism
D. Prolactinoma
E. Aplastic anemia

Answer 125

B. Central diabetes insipidus

Question 126

Painful erythematous subcutaneous nodules seen in patient with a high level of mycobacterial antigens.

A. Aplastic anemia
B. Erythema Nodosum Leprosum
C. Kawasaki disease
D. Hirsutism
E. Malignant Osteoporosis

Answer 126

B. Erythema Nodosum Leprosum

Question 127

Chemotherapeutic drug that inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, blocking synthesis of nucleoside phosphates inhibiting DNA synthesis:

A. Tacrolimus
B. Methotrexate
C. Thalidomide
D. Azathioprine
E. Cyclophosphamide

Answer 127

B. Methotrexate

Question 128

Which of the following drugs listed below are classified as immunosuppressants?
I. Filgastrim
II. Cyclosporine
III. Aldesleukin
IV. Interferon alfacon-1
V. Prednisone

A. I, II and III
B. I, III and IV
C. II, III and IV
D. II and V
E. II and III

Answer 128

D. II and V

Question 129

Immunosuppressant drug that binds to FK binding protein and form a complex that inhibits calcineurin

A. Tacrolimus
B. Methotrexate
C. Thalidomide
D. Azathioprine
E. Cyclophosphamide

Answer 129

A. Tacrolimus

Question 130

Drug that inhibits DNA and RNA synthesis via cross-linking of these molecule. Used as chemotherapy for solid tumor malignancies

A. Tacrolimus
B. Methotrexate
C. Thalidomide
D. Azathioprine
E. Cyclophosphamide

Answer 130

E. Cyclophosphamide

Question 131

A rare syndrome of growth hormone (GH) excess in adults characterized by abnormal growth of tissues (particularly connective tissue) metabolic, and cardiac dysfunction

A. Acromegaly
B. Central diabetes insipidus
C. Gigantism
D. Prolactinoma
E. Aplastic anemia

Answer 131

A. Acromegaly

Question 132

Pituitary tumor that secretes excessive amounts of prolactin and is associated with a syndrome of infertility and galactorrhea

A. Acromegaly
B. Central diabetes insipidus
C. Gigantism
D. Prolactinoma
E. Aplastic anemia

Answer 132

D. Prolactinoma

Question 133

A syndrome of GH excess in children and adolescents with open long bone epiphyses that results in excessive height

A. Acromegaly
B. Central diabetes insipidus
C. Gigantism
D. Prolactinoma
E. Aplastic anemia

Answer 133

C. Gigantism

Question 134

Somatostatin receptor agonist used in the treatment of acromegaly and several other hormone-secreting tumors

A. Ocreotide
B. Pegvisomant
C. Somatropin
D. Leuprolide
E. Bromocriptine

Answer 134

A. Ocreotide

Question 135

Dopamine D2 receptor agonist used in the treatment of hyperprolactinemia and Parkinson’s disease

A. Ocreotide
B. Pegvisomant
C. Somatropin
D. Leuprolide
E. Bromocriptine

Answer 135

E. Bromocriptine

Question 136

Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) analogs for ovarian suppression

A. Ocreotide
B. Pegvisomant
C. Somatropin
D. Leuprolide
E. Bromocriptine

Answer 136

D. Leuprolide

Question 137

Antagonist of vasopressin V1a and V2 receptors used as a treatment of hyponatremia in hospitalized patients:

A. Desmopressin
B. Conivaptan
C. Atosiban
D. Oxytocin
E. Ganirelix

Answer 137

B. Conivaptan

Question 138

Agonist of vasopressin V2 receptors for the treatment of pituitary diabetes insipidus:

A. Desmopressin
B. Conivaptan
C. Atosiban
D. Oxytocin
E. Ganirelix

Answer 138

A. Desmopressin

Question 139

Antagonist of oxytocin receptor:

A. Desmopressin
B. Conivaptan
C. Atosiban
D. Oxcytocin
E. Genirelix

Answer 139

C. Atosiban

Question 140

Protein synthesized in the liver that transport thyroid hormone in the blood

A. Thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG)
B. Thyroglobulin
C. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
D. Thyroid hormone
E. Thyroxine

Answer 140

A. Thyroxine-binding globulin (TB

Question 141

A protein synthesized in the thyroid gland; its tyrosine residues are used to synthesize thyroid hormones:

A. Thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG)
B. Thyroglobulin
C. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
D. Thyroid hormone
E. Thyroxine

Answer 141

B. Thyroglobulin

Question 142

The anterior pituitary hormone that regulates thyroid gland growth, uptake of iodine and synthesis of thyroid hormone:

A. Thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG)
B. Thyroglobulin
C. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
D. Thyroid hormone
E. Thyroxine

Answer 142

C. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

Question 143

Which of the following listed below are key feature of hypothyroidism?
I. Sensation of being cold
II. Reduced appetite
III. Weight loss
IV. Tachycardia
V. Drooping of eyelids

A. I, II and III
B. I, II and IV
C. I, II and V
D. II and III
E. III and IV

Answer 143

C. I, II and V

Question 144

Which of the following listed below are key features of thyrotoxicosis?
I. Sensation of being cold
II. Reduced appetite
III. Weight loss
IV. Tachycardia
V. Drooping of eyelids

A. I, II and III
B. I, II and IV
C. I, II and V
D. II and III
E. III and IV

Answer 144

E. III and IV

Question 145

Drug that inhibits thyroid peroxidase reactions, iodine organification, and peripheral conversion of T4 to T3

A. Methimazole
B. Propranolol
C. Lugol’s Solution
D. Potassium iodide
E. Levothyroxine

Answer 145

A. Methimazole

Question 146

Inhibition of B receptors and inhibition of conversion of T4 to T3 used in the management of thyroid storm

A. Methimazole
B. Propranolol
C. Lugol’s Solution
D. Potassium iodide
E. Levothyroxine

Answer 146

B. Propranolol

Question 147

Partial or complete loss of adrenocortical function, including loss of glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid function:

A. Addison disease
B. Adrenal suppression
C. Cushing’s Syndrome
D. Pheochromocytoma
E. Adrenocorticoids

Answer 147

A. Addison disease

Question 148

A metabolic disorder caused by excess secretion of adrenocorticoid steroids, which is most commonly due to increased amount of ACTH

A. Addison disease
B. Adrenal suppression
C. Cushing’s Syndrome
D. Pheochromocytoma
E. Adrenocorticoids

Answer 148

C. Cushing’s Syndrome

Question 149

Strong agonist at mineralocorticoid receptors and moderate activation of glucocorticoid receptors. Used to manage adrenal insufficiency in Addison’s Disease

A. Prednisone
B. Fludrocortisone
C. Mifepristone
D. Spironolactone
E. Ketoconazole

Answer 149

B. Fludrocortisone

Question 150

Pharmacologic antagonist of mineralocorticoid receptor and weak antagonist of androgen receptors, may cause gynecomastia

A. Prednisone
B. Fludrocortisone
C. Mifepristone
D. Spironolactone
E. Ketoconazole

Answer 150

D. Spironolactone

Question 151

All of the following are true about CNS drugs, EXCEPT:
I. Water solubility is an important characteristic of most CNS drug
II. CNS drugs readily cross the placental barrier and enter the fetal circulation
III. Almost all CNS drugs require metabolism to more water soluble form for their elimination

A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. II and III

Answer 151

A. I only

Question 152

Which of the following drugs are classified as benzodiazepine?
I. Alprazolam
II. Clonazepam
III. Diazepam
IV. Thiopental
V. Phenobarbital

A. I, II and III
B. II, III and IV
C. IV and V
D. I and II
E. II and V

Answer 152

A. I, II and III

Question 153

Which of the following drugs are classified as barbiturates?
I. Alprazolam
II. Clonazepam
III. Diazepam
IV. Thiopental
V. Phenobarbital

A. I, II and III
B. II, III and IV
C. IV and V
D. I and II
E. II and V

Answer 153

C. IV and V

Question 154

Binds of GABAA receptor subunits to facilitate chloride channel opening and increase frequency

A. Benzodiazepines
B. Barbiturates
C. Tricyclic antidepressants
D. Antipsychotics
E. Antiseizure

Answer 154

A. Benzodiazepines

Question 155

Bind to GABAA receptor sites (distinct from benzodiazepines), facilitate channel opening and increased duration

A. Benzodiazepines
B. Barbiturates
C. Tricyclic antidepressants
D. Antipsychotics
E. Antiseizure

Answer 155

B. Barbiturates

Question 156

Antagonist at benzodiazepine sites on GABAA receptor

A. Ramelteon
B. Buspirone
C. Secobarbital
D. Flumazenil
E. Phenytoin

Answer 156

D. Flumazenil

Question 157

Activates MT1 and MT2 receptors in suprachiasmatic nucleus used for the treatment of sleep disorder

A. Ramelteon
B. Buspirone
C. Secobarbital
D. Flumazenil
E. Phenytoin

Answer 157

A. Ramelteon

Question 158

Partial agonist at 5-HT receptors and possibly D2 receptors used for generalized anxiety states:

A. Ramelteon
B. Buspirone
C. Secobarbital
D. Flumazenil
E. Phenytoin

Answer 158

B. Buspirone

Question 159

NAD+ -dependent enzymes, found mainly in the liver and gut which accounts for the metabolism of low to moderate doses of ethanol.

A. Alcohol dehydrogenase
B. Microsomal ethanol-oxidizing system
C. Monoamine oxidase
D. Aldehyde dehydrogenase
E. Catechol-o-methyl transferase

Answer 159

A. Alcohol dehydrogenase

Question 160

Severe form of alcohol withdrawal whose main symptoms are sweating, tremor, confusion, and hallucinations:

A. Alcohol withdrawal syndrome
B. Delirium tremens (dts)
C. Fetal alcohol syndrome
D. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
E. Acute alcohol toxicity

Answer 160

B. Delirium tremens (dts)

Question 161

A syndrome of craniofacial dysmorphia, heart defects and mental retardation caused by the teratogenic effects of ethanol consumption during pregnancy:

A. Alcohol withdrawal syndrome
B. Delirium tremens (dts)
C. Fetal alcohol syndrome
D. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
E. Acute alcohol toxicity

Answer 161

C. Fetal alcohol syndrome

Question 162

The characteristic syndrome of insomnia, tremor, agitation, seizures, and autonomic instability engendered by deprivation in an individual who is physically dependent on ethanol

A. Alcohol withdrawal syndrome
B. Delirium tremens (dts)
C. Fetal alcohol syndrome
D. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
E. Acute alcohol toxicity

Answer 162

A. Alcohol withdrawal syndrome

Question 163

A syndrome of ataxia, confusion, and paralysis of the extraocular muscles that is associated with chronic alcoholism and thiamine deficiency

A. Alcohol withdrawal syndrome
B. Delirium tremens (dts)
C. Fetal alcohol syndrome
D. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
E. Acute alcohol toxicity

Answer 163

E. Acute alcohol toxicity

Question 164

The most common medical complication of chronic alcohol abuse

A. Hypertension
B. Diabetes
C. Lung Disease
D. Liver Disease
E. Cancer

Answer 164

D. Liver Disease

Question 165

NMDA glutamate receptor antagonist that is also US-FDA approved for treatment of alcoholism:

A. Naltrexone
B. Acamprosate
C. Disulfiram
D. Methanol
E. Ethylene glycol

Answer 165

B. Acamprosate

Question 166

Aldehyde dehydrogenase inhibitor used adjunctively in some treatment program for alcoholics. If ethanol is consumed by a patient who has taken this drug, acetaldehyde accumulation leads to nausea, headache, flushing and hypotension:

A. Naltrexone
B. Acamprosate
C. Disulfiram
D. Methanol
E. Ethylene glycol

Answer 166

C. Disulfiram

Question 167

Poisoning of this substance result in toxic levels of formate, which causes characteristics visual disturbance plus coma, seizures, acidosis and death due to respiratory failure

A. Ethanol
B. Methanol
C. Ethylene Glycol
D. Diazepam
E. Thiamine

Answer 167

B. Methanol

Question 168

BDZ receptor agonist that facilitates GABA mediated activation of GABAA receptors used in the prevention and treatment of acute ethanol withdrawal syndrome

A. Ethanol
B. Methanol
C. Ethylene Glycol
D. Diazepam

Answer 168

D. Diazepam

Question 169

Vitamin administered to patients suspected of alcohol dependence to prevent the Wernicke Korsakoff syndrome

A. Ascorbic acid
B. Riboflavin
C. Thiamine
D. Folic acid
E. Niacin

Answer 169

C. Thiamine

Question 170

Nonselective competitive antagonist of opioid receptors used to reduce risk of relapse in individuals with alcohol-used disorder:

A. Acamprosate
B. Disulfiram
C. Fomepizole
D. Ethanol
E. Naltrexone

Answer 170

E. Naltrexone

Question 171

Inhibit alcohol dehydrogenase and prevents conversion of methanol and ethylene glycol to toxic metabolites. Used as an antidote for methanol and ethylene glycol poisoning:

A. Acamprosate
B. Disulfiram
C. Fomepizole
D. Ethanol
E. Naltrexone

Answer 171

C. Fomepizole

Question 172

Tonic phase (less than 1min) involves abrupt loss of consciousness, muscle rigidity, and respiration arrest; clonic phase (2-3 min) involves jerking of body muscles, with lip or tongue biting, fecal and urinary incontinence; formerly called grand mal:

A. Partial seizures, simple
B. Tonic-clonic seizures, generalized
C. Absence seizures, generalized
D. Myoclonic seizures
E. Status epilepticus

Answer 172

B. Tonic-clonic seizures, generalized

Question 173

Impaired consciousness (often abrupt onset and brief), sometimes with automatisms, loss of postural tone, or enuresis; begin in childhood (formerly, petit mal) and usually cease by age 20 yrs:

A. Partial seizures, simple
B. Tonic-clonic seizures, generalized
C. Absence seizures, generalized
D. Myoclonic seizures
E. Status epilepticus

Answer 173

C. Absence seizures, generalized

Question 174

A series of seizures (usually tonic-clonic) without recovery of consciousness between attacks; it is a life-threatening emergency:

A. Partial seizures, simple
B. Tonic-clonic seizures, generalized
C. Absence seizures, generalized
D. Myoclonic seizures
E. Status epilepticus

Answer 174

E. Status epilepticus

Question 175

Which of the following is not a mechanism of action of an antiseizure drug?
I. Sodium channel blockade
II. GABA-related mechanism
III. Calcium channel blockade
IV. Alpha receptor blockade

A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. IV only
E. III and IV

Answer 175

D. IV only

Question 176

Which of the following is a preferred drug for the treatment of absence seizures?

A. Phenytoin
B. Carbamazepine
C. Ethosuximide
D. Diazepam
E. Clonazepam

Answer 176

C. Ethosuximide

Question 177

Stage of anesthesia where the patient has decreased awareness of pain, sometimes with amnesia. Consciousness may be impaired but is not lost.

A. Stage1: Analgesia
B. Stage2: Disinhibition
C. Stage3: Surgical anesthesia
D. Stage4: Medullary depression
E. Stage5: Delirium

Answer 177

A. Stage1: Analgesia

Question 178

Stage of anesthesia where the patient develops severe respiratory and cardiovascular depression that requires mechanical and pharmacologic support

A. Stage1: Analgesia
B. Stage2: Disinhibition
C. Stage3: Surgical anesthesia
D. Stage4: Medullary depression
E. Stage5: Delirium

Answer 178

D. Stage4: Medullary depression

Question 179

Stage of anesthesia where the patient appears to be delirious and excited. Amnesia occurs, reflexes are enhanced, and respiration is typically irregular, retching and incontinence may occur.

A. Stage1: Analgesia
B. Stage2: Disinhibition
C. Stage3: Surgical anesthesia
D. Stage4: Medullary

Answer 179

B. Stage2: Disinhibition

Question 180

Anesthesia produced by a mixture of drugs, often including both inhaled and intravenous agents

A. Maximum anesthesia
B. Balanced anesthesia
C. General anesthesia
D. Inhalation anesthesia
E. Optimal anesthesia

Answer 180

B. Balanced anesthesia

Question 181

The alveolar concentration of an inhaled anesthetic that is required to prevent a response to a standardized painful stimulus in 50% of patients

A. Maximum alveolar concentration
B. Optimal anesthetic dose
C. Minimum alveolar concentration
D. Standard alveolar concentration
E. Anesthetic alveolar concentration

Answer 181

C. Minimum alveolar concentration

Question 182

Which of the following drugs listed below is classified as inhaled anesthetics?
I. Halothane
II. Thiopental
III. Ketamine
IV. Enflurane

A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I and IV
D. III and IV
E. I and V

Answer 182

C. I and IV

Question 183

Which of the following drug listed below is classified as intravenous anesthetic?
I. Halothane
II. Thiopental
III. Ketamine
IV. Enflurane

A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I and IV
D. III and IV
E. I and V

Answer 183

B. II and III

Question 184

This drug produces a state of “dissociative anesthesia” in which the patient remains conscious but has marked catatonia, analgesia, and amnesia.

A. Midazolam
B. Thiopental
C. Ketamine
D. Morphine
E. Etomidate

Answer 184

C. Ketamine

Question 185

Centrally acting a2 -adrenergic agonist that has analgesic and hypnotic actions when used intravenously:

A. Phenylephrine
B. Dexmedetomidine
C. Prazosin
D. Clonidine
E. Minoxidil

Answer 185

B. Dexmedetomidine

Question 186

Barbiturate that is used for induction of anesthesia and for short surgical procedure:

A. Nitrous oxide
B. Thiopental
C. Halothane
D. Midazolam
E. Ketamine

Answer 186

B. Thiopental

Question 187

Long-acting ester local anesthetic:

A. Tetracaine
B. Procaine
C. Benzocaine
D. Bupivacaine
E. Lidocaine

Answer 187

A. Tetracaine

Question 188

All of the following are clinical use of local anesthetic EXCEPT:

A. Used for minor surgical procedures often in combination with vasoconstrictors such as epinephrine
B. Used in spinal anesthesia and to produce autonomic blockade in ischemic conditions.
C. Slow epidural infusion at low concentrations has been used successfully for postoperative analgesia
D. Oral and parenteral form of local anesthetic are sometimes used adjunctively in neuropathic pain states
E. Used as a component of balance anesthesia

Answer 188

E. Used as a component of balance
anesthesia

Question 189

Neuromuscular paralysis that results from pharmacologic antagonism at the acetylcholine receptor of the end plate:

A. Depolarizing blockade
B. Nondepolarizing blockade
C. Stabilizing blockade
D. A or C
E. B or C

Answer 189

E. B or C

Question 190

Neuromuscular paralysis that results from persistent depolarization of the end plate:

A. Depolarizing blockade
B. Nondepolarizing blockade
C. Stabilizing blockade
D. A or C
E. B or C

Answer 190

A. Depolarizing blockade

Question 191

Which of the following drug can reverse the blockade brought about by non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers

A. Neostigmine
B. Succinylcholine
C. Tubocurarine
D. Atropine
E. Acetylcholine

Answer 191

A. Neostigmine

Question 192

Which of the following drugs can be used in the treatment of malignant hyperthermia?

A. Tubocurarine
B. Baclofen
C. Cyclobenzaprine
D. Dantrolene
E. Diazepam

Answer 192

D. Dantrolene

Question 193

Which of the following listed bellows are signs of Parkinsonism?
I. Rigidity of skeletal muscle
II. Akinesia
III. Flat facies
IV. Tremor at rest

A. I and II
B. II and III
C. III and IV
D. I, II and III
E. All of these

Answer 193

E. All of these

Question 194

A progressive neurologic disease characterized by shuffling gait, stooped posture, resting tremor, speech impediments, movement difficulties and an eventual slowing of mental processes and dementia

A. Parkinsonism
B. Huntington Disease
C. Tourette’s syndrome
D. Wilson’s disease
E. Athetosis

Answer 194

A. Parkinsonism

Question 195

An inherited adult-onset neurologic disease characterized by dementia and bizarre involuntary movements:

A. Parkinsonism
B. Huntington Disease
C. Tourette’s syndrome
D. Wilson’s disease
E. Athetosis

Answer 195

B. Huntington Disease

Question 196

A neurologic disease of unknown cause that presents with multiple tics associated with snorting, sniffing and involuntary vocalization (often obscene):

A. Parkinsonism
B. Huntington Disease
C. Tourette’s syndrome
D. Wilson’s disease
E. Athetosis

Answer 196

C. Tourette’s syndrome

Question 197

An inherited (autosomal recessive) disorder of copper accumulation in liver, brain, kidneys, and eyes; symptoms include jaundice, vomiting, tremors, muscle weakness, stiff movements, liver failure and dementia

A. Parkinsonism
B. Huntington Disease
C. Tourette’s syndrome
D. Wilson’s disease
E. Athetosis

Answer 197

D. Wilson’s disease

Question 198

Strategies of drug treatment of parkinsonism involve which of the following?
I. Increasing dopamine activity in the brain
II. Decreasing muscarinic cholinergic activity
III. Neuromuscular blockade
IV. Increasing acetylcholine activity

A. I only
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. III only
E. III and IV

Answer 198

B. I and II

Question 199

Drug that does not cross the blood-brain barrier but inhibits dopa decarboxylase in peripheral tissues used in combination with levodopa for the treatment of parkinsonism

A. Reserpine
B. Selegeline
C. Carbidopa
D. Pramipexole
E. Ropinirole

Answer 199

C. Carbidopa

Question 200

Non-ergot which has high affinity for dopamine D3 receptor which is effective as monotherapy in mild parkinsonism and can be used together with levodopa in more advanced disease:

A. Reserpine
B. Selegeline
C. Carbidopa
D. Pramipexole
E. Ropinirole

Answer 200

D. Pramipexole

Question 201

Dummy medicine containing no active ingredient (or alternatively, a dummy surgical procedure, diet or other kind of therapeutic intervention), which the patient believes is (or could be, in the context of a controlled trial) the real thing.

A. Prodrug
B. Orphan drug
C. Lead drug
D. Placebo
E. Experimental drug

Answer 201

D. Placebo

Question 202

To avoid bias, clinical trials are performed using the following study design, EXCEPT:

A. Un-blinded study
B. Controlled
C. Randomized
D. Double Blind
E. B and C

Answer 202

A. Un-blinded study

Question 203

Lethal dose for 50% of the population divided by effective dose for 50% of population is called:

A. Meta-analysis
B. Therapeutic range
C. Therapeutic index
D. Potency
E. Efficacy

Answer 203

C. Therapeutic index

Question 204

All of the following are true regarding drug therapeutic index EXCEPT:

A. Unsatisfactory as a measure of drug safety
B. Based on animal toxicity data, which may not reflect forms of toxicity or adverse reactions that are important clinically
C. It takes no account of idiosyncratic toxic reactions
D. Provided a measure of the margin of safety of a drug, by drawing attention to the relationship between the effective and toxic dose
E. None of these

Answer 204

E. None of these

Question 205

Refers to an eclectic group of drugs that are used for non-medical purposes. It includes drug of abuse to enhance athletic or other performance, as well as those taken for cosmetic purposes or for purely social reasons:

A. Recreational drugs
B. Non-medical drugs
C. Prescription drugs
D. Lifestyle drugs
E. Performance drugs

Answer 205

D. Lifestyle drugs

Question 206

Which of the following belongs to medicines approved for specific indications but also be used for other ‘lifestyle’ purposes:

A. Orlistat
B. Minoxidil
C. Alcohol
D. Caffeine
E. Cannabis

Answer 206

A. Orlistat

Question 207

Which of the following belongs to medicines approved for specific indication that can also be used to satisfy ‘lifestyle choices’ or to treat ‘lifestyle disease’

A. Orlistat
B. Minoxidil
C. Alcohol
D. Caffeine
E. Cannabis

Answer 207

B. Minoxidil

Question 208

Used mainly to achieve rapid weight loss before weighing in and also to mask presence of other agents in urine by dilution:

A. Anabolic agents
B. Hormones and related agents
C. Diuretics
D. Stimulants
E. Narcotic analgesic

Answer 208

C. Diuretics

Question 209

Anthelminthic drug that acts by inhibiting the polymerization of helminth B-tubulin, thus interfering with microtubule-dependent functions such as glucose uptake:

A. Diethylcarbamazine
B. Ivermectin
C. Niclosamide
D. Praziquantel
E. Benzimidazoles

Answer 209

E. Benzimidazoles

Question 210

Anthelmintic drug act by changing the parasite such that it becomes susceptible to the host’s normal immune responses. It may also interfere with helminth arachidonate metabolism.

A. Diethylcarbamazine
B. Ivermectin
C. Niclosamide
D. Praziquantel
E. Benzimidazoles

Answer 210

A. Diethylcarbamazine

Question 211

These class of antifungal agents inhibit the fungal cytochrome P450 3A enzyme, lanosine 14a-demethylase, which is responsible for converting lanosterol to ergosterol, the main sterol in the fungal cell membrane:

A. Echinocandins
B. Amphotericin
C. Flucytosine
D. Azoles
E. Griseofulvin

Answer 211

D. Azoles

Question 212

These class of antifungal agents inhibit the synthesis of 1,3-B-glucan, a glucose polymer that is necessary for maintaining the structures of fungal cell walls. In the absence of this polymer, fungal cells lose integrity and lyse.

A. Echinocandins
B. Amphotericin
C. Flucytosine
D. Azoles
E. Griseofulvin

Answer 212

A. Echinocandins

Question 213

Potential and actual clinical uses/indications of cannabinoids antagonists include which of following?

I. Obesity
II. Tobacco Independence
III. Drug addiction
IV. Alcoholism
V. Parkinson’s disease

A. I and II
B. I, II and III
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV
E. IV and V

Answer 213

D. I, II, III and IV

Question 214

Potential and actual clinical uses/indications of cannabinoids agonists include which of the following?
I. Neuropathic pain
II. Glaucoma
III. Drug addiction
IV. Alcoholism
V. Head injury

A. I, II and IV
B. I, II and V
C. II, III and IV
D. II, IV and V
E. V only

Answer 214

B. I, II and V

Question 215

Primary autonomic mechanism for blood pressure homeostasis involves sensory input from carotid sinus and aorta to the vasomotor center and output via the parasympathetic and sympathetic motor nerves

A. Stepped care
B. Baroreceptor reflex
C. Positive feedback
D. Negative feedback
E. RAAS

Answer 215

B. Baroreceptor reflex

Question 216

Hypertension caused by a diagnosable abnormality, eg aortic coarctation, renal artery stenosis adrenal tumor, etc.

A. Primary hypertension
B. Essential hypertension
C. Secondary hypertension
D. A or B
E. A or C

Answer 216

C. Secondary hypertension

Question 217

An accelerated form of severe hypertension associated with rising blood pressure and rapidly progressing damage to vessels and end organs. Often signaled by renal damage, encephalopathy, and retinal hemorrhages or by angina, stroke, or myocardial infarction. Also called malignant hypertension.

A. Hypertensive emergency
B. Essential hypertension
C. Orthostatic hypertension
D. Rebound hypertension
E. Secondary hypertension

Answer 217

E. Secondary hypertension

Question 218

Elevated blood pressure (usually above pretreatment levels) resulting from loss of antihypertensive drug effect

A. Hypertensive emergency
B. Essential hypertension
C. Orthostatic hypertension
D. Rebound hypertension
E. Secondary hypertension

Answer 218

D. Rebound hypertension

Question 219

Important diuretic usually used in severe hypertension and hypertensive emergencies:

A. Loop diuretics
B. Thiazide diuretics
C. Osmotic diuretics
D. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
E. ACE inhibitors

Answer 219

A. Loop diuretics

Question 220

Blockade of calcium channels, release of nitric oxide, opening of potassium channels (which leads to hyperpolarization) and activation of D1 dopamine receptors are the major mechanisms of action of what class of antihypertensive drugs?

A. Diuretics
B. Angiotensin antagonists
C. Vasodilators
D. Sympathoplegics
E. ACE inhibitors

Answer 220

C. Vasodilators

Question 221

Newer drug in the antihypertensive group and inhibits renin’s action on its substrate, angiotensinogen. It reduces the formation of angiotensin I and, in consequence angiotensin

A. Captopril
B. Losartan
C. Aliskiren
D. Enalapril
E. Minoxidil

Answer 221

C. Aliskiren

Question 222

Industrial disease caused by chronic exposure to vasodilating concentrations of organic nitrates in the workplace; characterized by headache dizziness, and tachycardia on return to work after 2 days absence:

A. Sunday disease
B. Monday disease
C. Angina
D. Nitrate disease
E. Worker’s disease

Answer 222

B. Monday disease

Question 223

Rapidly progressing increase in frequency and severity of anginal attacks; an acute coronary syndrome that often heralds imminent myocardial infarction.

A. Classic angina
B. Prinzmetal’s angina
C. Angina of effort
D. Atherosclerotic angina
E. Unstable angina

Answer 223

E. Unstable angina

Question 224

Angina precipitated by reversible spasm of coronary vessels, often at rest:

A. Classic angina
B. Prinzmetal’s angina
C. Angina of effort
D. Atherosclerotic angina
E. Unstable angina

Answer 224

B. Prinzmetal’s angina

Question 225

Filling pressure of the heart, dependent on venous tone and blood volume; determines end-diastolic fiber length and tension:

A. Preload
B. Afterload
C. Intramyocardial fiber tension
D. Myocardial revascularization
E. Coronary pressure

Answer 225

A. Preload

Question 226

Force exerted by myocardial fibers especially ventricular fibers at any given time which also serves as a primary determinant of myocardial O2 requirement:

A. Preload
B. Afterload
C. Intramyocardial fiber tension
D. Myocardial revascularization
E. Coronary pressure

Answer 226

C. Intramyocardial fiber tension

Question 227

Which of the following is the fundamental physiologic defect seen on patients with heart failure?

A. Irregular heartbeat
B. Increase in cardiac output
C. Decrease in cardiac output
D. Tachycardia
E. Bradycardia

Answer 227

C. Decrease in cardiac output

Question 228

Cardiac glycosides were formerly considered as 1st line drug in the treatment of heart failure. What is the mechanism of action of cardiac glycosides?

A. Inhibition of angiotensin converting enzyme
B. Inhibition of phosphodiesterase
C. Inhibition of renal sodium transporter
D. Inhibition of Na+/K- ATPase
E. Proton pump inhibition

Answer 228

D. Inhibition of Na+/K- ATPase

Question 229

Which of the following class of drug is not use in the treatment of heart failure?

A. ACE inhibitors
B. Phosphodiesterase inhibitors
C. Beta blockers
D. Vasodilators
E. Calcium channel blocker

Answer 229

E. Calcium channel blocker

Question 230

Which of the following drug belongs to phosphodiesterase inhibitors?

A. Nitroglycerin
B. Milrinone
C. Furosemide
D. Losartan
E. Captopril

Answer 230

B. Milrinone

Question 231

Hormone that stimulates insulin secretion and inhibit gastric secretion and motility:

A. Gastrin
B. Secretin
C. Cholecystokinin
D. GIP
E. Motilin

Answer 231

D. GIP

Question 232

Hormone that stimulates pancreatic ductal cell H₂O and HCO3 secretion

A. Gastrin
B. Secretin
C. Cholecystokinin
D. GIP
E. Motilin

Answer 232

B. Secretin

Question 233

This drug block mast cell degranulation by suppressing release of mediators of immediate bronchoconstriction (early response) and reducing eosinophil recruitment causing airway inflammation:

A. Albuterol
B. IgE antibody
C. Theobromine
D. Cromolyn
E. Theophylline

Answer 233

D. Cromolyn

Question 234

An acute or chronic inflammatory skin condition characterized by the presence of 1 or more areas of pruritus (severe itching), erythema (redness) scaling (dry exfoliative shedding), macules (discoloration) papules (pimples), or vesicles (blister-like sacs):

A. Alopecia
B. Eczema
C. Psoriasis
D. Scabies
E. Urticaria

Answer 234

B. Eczema

Question 235

This drug/s can worsen psoriasis and should be avoided by the patients
I. Beta blockers
II. Topical steroids
III. Systemic steroids
IV. Vitamin analogs

A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and IV
D. III and IV
E. I and IV

Answer 235

B. I and III

Question 236

Deficiency of water-soluble niacin (nicotinic acid) or its amide (nicotinamide) will result in which of the following?

A. Ophthalmoplegia
B. Cyanosis
C. Swollen, congested and bleeding gums
D. Dietary deficiency or impaired Absorption
E. Multiple perifollicular Hemorrhages

Answer 236

D. Dietary deficiency or impaired Absorption

Question 237

The mainstay of pharmacologic therapy for scabies is the use of topical scabicides. Example of topical scabicides includes which of the following?

A. Ivermectin
B. Tacrolimus
C. Dapsone
D. Permethrin
E. Sulfasalazine

Answer 237

D. Permethrin

Question 238

Absorption of this vitamin is impaired by mineral oil, neomycin and cholestyramine:

A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D
E. Vitamin E

Answer 238

A. Vitamin A

Question 239

Carbenicillin, piperacillin, and ticarcillin display improved activity against gram negative organisms and are usually used in combination with aminoglycosides in patients with febrile neutropenia and in those with hard to treat nosocomial infections caused by strains of Enterobacter, Klebsiella, Citrobacter, Serratia Bacteroides fragilis, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa. These drugs belong to which class of antibiotics?

A. Aminopenicillins
B. Antipseudomonal penicillins
C. Beta lactamase inhibitors
D. Beta lactamase resistant penicillins
E. Cephalosporins

Answer 239

B. Antipseudomonal penicillins

Question 240

Clavulanate, sulbactam and tazobactam are B lactamase inhibitors and are used only in combination with B-lactam antibiotics, which creates a product that has extended activity against B lactamase-producing strains. Which of these B-lactamase inhibitors is usually used in combination with the antibacterial drug Piperacillin?

A. Sulbactam
B. Clavulanate
C. Tazobactam
D. A or B
E. B or C

Answer 240

C. Tazobactam

Question 241

Common adverse effect experienced in taking B-lactamase resistant penicillins

A. Hepatotoxicity
B. Maculopapular rash
C. Acute interstitial nephritis
D. Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction
E. Bleeding, hyperkalemia, hypernatremia

Answer 241

A. Hepatotoxicity

Question 242

Common adverse effect experienced in taking extended-spectrum penicillins (high doses):

A. Hepatotoxicity
B. Maculopapular rash
C. Acute interstitial nephritis
D. Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction
E. Bleeding, hyperkalemia, hypernatremia

Answer 242

E. Bleeding, hyperkalemia, hypernatremia

Question 243

Which of the following are the broadest spectrum B-lactam antibiotics?

A. Penicillins
B. Cephalosporins
C. Carbapenems
D. Aminoglycosides
E. Monobactam

Answer 243

C. Carbapenems

Question 244

A monobactam antibiotic that inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis and is resistant to most B-lactamases

A. Gentamicin
B. Tetracycline
C. Clindamycin
D. Aztreonam
E. Vancomycin

Answer 244

D. Aztreonam

Question 245

A glycopeptide antibiotic that inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding to cell wall phospholipids and inhibiting polymerase and transpeptidation, which leads to cell wall lysis:

A. Gentamicin
B. Tetracycline
C. Clindamycin
D. Aztreonam
E. Vancomycin

Answer 245

E. Vancomycin

Question 246

An oxazolidinone derivative that binds to ribosomal subunits and interferes with bacterial protein synthesis. The drug is intended for treatment of multidrug-resistant gram-positive cocci, particularly as an alternative in infections caused by vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus, multidrug resistant S Pneumonia (including vancomycin ceftriaxone resistant) and MRSA or methicillin resistant S. Epidemidis.

A. Doxycycline
B. Linezolid
C. Dalfopristin
D. Ciprofloxacin
E. Sulfasalazine

Answer 246

B. Linezolid

Question 247

Broad-spectrum bactericidal antibiotics that inhibit DNA gyrase or topoisomerase IV (essential for Duplication, transcription, and repair of bacterial DNA), target various aerobic gram-positive (eg. methicillin-resistant and B lactamase-producing Staphylococcus species, S Pneumoniae) and gram-negative (eg, H. Influenzae, M. Catarhalis, P. Aeruginosa, Legionella, Chlamydia) organisms:

A. Tetracyclines
B. Quinolones
C. Aminoglycosides
D. Sulfonamides
E. Cephalosporins

Answer 247

B. Quinolones

Question 248

A polyene antifungal agent that binds to ergosterols in fungal plasma membranes, interferes with membrane function, and causes cell death:

A. Amphotericin B
B. Flucytosine
C. Griseofulvin
D. Caspofungin
E. Ketoconazole

Answer 248

A. Amphotericin B

Question 249

All of the following are true regarding combination chemotherapy, EXCEPT:

A. Provides higher and more durable response rates
B. Only agents with demonstrated activity as monotherapy against the specific type of tumor should be selected
C. All agents within the regimen should have same mechanisms of action (which often has additive or synergistic effects)
D. To minimize unacceptable toxicity, agents should not have overlapping adverse effects.
E. To optimize efficacy and minimize resistance, the optimal dose and schedule of the drugs should be used.

Answer 249

C. All agents within the regimen should have same mechanisms of action (which often has additive or synergistic effects)

Question 250

One of the oldest and most studied antineoplastic drug related to folic acid that acts by inhibiting dihydrofolate reductase

A. Mercaptopurine
B. 5-Fluorouracil
C. Methotrexate
D. Cytarabine
E. Gemcitabine

Answer 250

C. Methotrexate

Question 251

Combination oral contraceptives contain both estrogen and progestin and prevent pregnancy through the following mechanisms, EXCEPT:

A. They inhibit ovulation via a negative feedback mechanism on the hypothalamus, which alters the normal pattern of FSH and LH secretion by the anterior pituitary
B. Alteration of the tubal transport of the sperm, egg, and fertilized ovum through the fallopian tubes
C. Inducing an environment in the endometrium that is unfavorable for Implantation
D. Changing the cervical mucus and rendering it unfavourable for sperm penetration even if ovulation occurs
E. Inhibition of binding to estrogen receptor that leads to a disruption in the negative feedback of estrogens on the hypothalamus and pituitary, a subsequent increase in secretion of GnRH and gonadotropins

Answer 251

E. Inhibition of binding to estrogen receptor that leads to a disruption in the negative feedback of estrogens on the hypothalamus and pituitary, a subsequent increase in secretion of GnRH and gonadotropins

Question 252

Drug for parkinsonism that acts by binding to dopamine receptors and mimic the action of dopamine:

A. Amantadine
B. Selegiline
C. Biperiden
D. Bromocriptine
E. Levodopa

Answer 252

D. Bromocriptine

Question 253

Drug for parkinsonism that acts by increasing the dopamine release and reduces dopamine reuptake into dopaminergic nerve terminals of substantia nigra neurons

A. Amantadine
B. Selegiline
C. Biperiden
D. Bromocriptine
E. Levodopa

Answer 253

A. Amantadine

Question 254

A neurodegenerative disorder characterized by progressive impairment of short-term memory and other memory, language, and thought processes:

A. Parkinsonism
B. Huntington disease
C. Tourette syndrome
D. Alzheimer’s disease
E. Stroke

Answer 254

D. Alzheimer’s disease

Question 255

Which of the following class of drugs listed below is/are included in pharmacologic management options in Alzheimer disease?
I. Cholinesterase inhibitors
II. Muscarinic agonists
III. Beta blockers
IV. Dopamine agonist

A. I only
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I and III
E. II and IV

Answer 255

B. I and II

Question 256

Primary treatment options for patients with hyperthyroidism include which of the following?
I. Thioamides
II. Radioactive iodine
III. Surgery
IV. Adrenergic antagonists
V. Iodides

A. I only
B. I and II
C. I, II and III
D. II, III and IV
E. IV and V

Answer 256

C. I, II and III

Question 257

Adjunct to primary treatment options for patients with hyperthyroidism include which of the following?
I. Thioamides
II. Radioactive iodine
III. Surgery
IV. Adrenergic antagonists
V. Iodides

A. I only
B. I and II
C. I, II and III
D. II, III and IV
E. IV and V

Answer 257

E. IV and V

Question 258

Preferred treatment option for children, pregnant women, and young adults with uncomplicated Graves’ disease

A. Thioamides
B. Radioactive lodine
C. Surgery
D. Adrenergic antagonists
E. Iodides

Answer 258

A. Thioamides

Question 259

This drug is used to treat Cushing syndrome when dose limiting side effects occur with ketoconazole, and it can be used in combination with other agents. It reduces cortisol production by inhibiting 11-B hydroxylation, the final step in glucocorticoid synthesis

A. Metyrapone
B. Aminoglutethimide
C. Progesterone
D. Aldosterone
E. Estradiol

Answer 259

A. Metyrapone

Question 260

Oral antihyperlipidemic agents which is contraindicated with Type 1 DM, pregnancy or breast feeding, severe hepatic or renal dysfunctions, and severe acute comorbidities or surgery

A. 1st gen sulfonylureas
B. 2nd gen sulfonylureas
C. Alpha glucosidase inhibitors
D. Biguanide
E. Meglitinides

Answer 260

A. 1st gen sulfonylureas

Question 261

Which of the following drugs is a meglitinide?
I. Glimepiride
II. Repaglinide
III. Acarbose
IV. Nateglinide

A. I only
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I and III
E. II and IV

Answer 261

D. I and III

Question 262

The historical mainstay of therapy in type 2 DM, used as monotherapy or with insulin or other oral agents, act mainly by stimulating insulin secretion from pancreatic B cells, enhancing B-cell sensitivity to glucose, and reducing glucagon release. They work only if B cells are functioning

A. Thiazolidinediones
B. Meglitinides
C. Alpha glucosidase inhibitors
D. Sulfonylureas
E. Biguanide

Answer 262

D. Sulfonylureas

Question 263

2nd gen sulfonylureas have greater potency, fewer drug interactions and have better pharmacokinetic profiles compared to older class 1 gen sulfonylureas. Which of the following drugs listed below belongs to 2nd gen sulfonylureas?
I. Glimepiride
II. Tolbutamide
III. Glipizide
IV. Acetohexamide

A. I only
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I and III
E. II and IV

Answer 263

D. I and III

Question 264

This drug binds to Ach receptors and block Ach from binding to open cation channels, thus preventing depolarization:

A. Physostigmine
B. Curare
C. Succinylcholine
D. Hemicholinium
E. Nifedipine

Answer 264

B. Curare

Question 265

This drug blocks acetyl cholinesterase from degrading acetylcholine to choline and acetate, prolonging action of acetylcholine:

A. Physostigmine
B. Curare
C. Succinylcholine
D. Hemicholinium
E. Nifedipine

Answer 265

A. Physostigmine

Question 266

This group of drug elicit vasoconstriction and mydriasis and is also used as nasal decongestants and in eye examinations:

A. B1-Adrenoceptor antagonists
B. B2-Adrenoceptor agonists
C. A1-Adrenoceptor antagonists
D. A1-Adrenoceptor agonists
E. Mixed a and B agonist

Answer 266

D. A1-Adrenoceptor agonists

Question 267

These drugs stimulate bronchodilation and are used to treat asthma:

A. B1-Adrenoceptor antagonists
B. B2-Adrenoceptor agonists
C. A1-Adrenoceptor antagonists
D. A1-Adrenoceptor agonists
E. Mixed a and B agonist

Answer 267

B. B2-Adrenoceptor agonists

Question 268

Alpha-antagonist (non-selective, Irreversible) drug used in the treatment of pheochromocytoma:

A. Prazosin
B. Propranolol
C. Labetalol
D. Phenoxybenzamine
E. Yohimbine

Answer 268

D. Phenoxybenzamine

Question 269

Mixed a/B antagonists drug used in hypertension during pregnancy:

A. Prazosin
B. Propranolol
C. Labetalol
D. Phenoxybenzamine
E. Yohimbine

Answer 269

C. Labetalol

Question 270

B-non selective antagonist drug indicated in the treatment of angina, hypertension, cardiac dysrhythmias, anxiety, tremor and glaucoma

A. Prazosin
B. Propranolol
C. Labetalol
D. Phenoxybenzamine
E. Yohimbine

Answer 270

B. Propranolol

Question 271

Which adrenoreceptor mediates relaxation of smooth muscle increase glycogenolysis and increase heart rate and force?

A. Alpha1 (a1)
B. Alpha2 (a2)
C. Beta1 (B1)
D. Beta2 (B2)
E. Dopamine1 (D1)

Answer 271

D. Beta2 (B2)

Question 272

Which of the following steps/processes in autonomic transmission is affected by the drug tranylcypromine?

A. Action potential propagation
B. Transmitter synthesis
C. Enzymatic inactivation of transmitter
D. Transmitter storage
E. Receptor activation or blockade

Answer 272

E. Receptor activation or blockade

Question 273

Which of the following steps/processes in autonomic transmission is affected by the drug Vesamicol and Reserpine?

A. Action potential propagation
B. Transmitter synthesis
C. Enzymatic inactivation of transmitter
D. Transmitter storage
E. Receptor activation or blockade

Answer 273

D. Transmitter storage

Question 274

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the effects of cholinomimetic drug on major organ systems?
I. Sphincter muscle of iris – constriction (mydriasis)
II. Sinoatrial node – Decrease in rate (negative chronotropy)
III. Blood vessels – Dilation via release of EDRF from endothelium
IV. Skeletal muscle – Activation of neuromuscular end plates, contraction

A. I only
B. I, II and III
C. II, III and IV
D. I, III and IV
E. IV only

Answer 274

C. II, III and IV

Question 275

A partial agonist at N receptors which is used for smoking cessation

A. Bethanecol
B. Muscarine
C. Varenicline
D. Neostigmine
E. Physostigmine

Answer 275

C. Varenicline

Question 276

Inhibitors of the gastric H+ K+ -ATPase and considered as the most potent suppressors of gastric acid secretion:

A. H2- receptor antagonists
B. Proton pump inhibitors
C. Antacids
D. Cytoprotectants
E. Bismuth compounds

Answer 276

B. Proton pump inhibitors

Question 277

Long-term use of this H2-receptor antagonist at high doses decreases testosterone binding to the androgen receptor and inhibits a CYP that hydroxylates estradiol. These effects can cause galactorrhea in women and gynecomastia, reduced sperm count, and impotence in men:

A. Famotidine
B. Nizatidine
C. Histamine
D. Ranitidine
E. Cimetidine

Answer 277

E. Cimetidine

Question 278

This drug inhibits the pepsin-mediated hydrolysis of mucosal proteins that contributes to mucosal erosion and ulcerations:

A. Misoprostol
B. Sucralfate
C. Rebamipide
D. Carbenaxolone
E. Lansoprazole

Answer 278

B. Sucralfate

Question 279

An octapeptide analog of somatostatin that is effective in inhibiting the severe secretory diarrhea brought about by hormone-secreting tumors of the pancreas and the GI tract. Its mechanism of action appears to involve inhibition of hormone secretion, including serotonin and various other GI peptides

A. Ondansetron
B. Dronabinol
C. Hyoscine
D. Ocreotide
E. Promethazine

Answer 279

D. Ocreotide

Question 280

Prototypical 5HT3-receptor antagonist used for chemotherapy induced emesis

A. Metoclopramide
B. Ondasentron
C. Tropisetron
D. Dronabinol
E. Granisteron

Answer 280

B. Ondasentron

Question 281

A naturally occurring cannabinoid that can be synthesized chemically or extracted from the marijuana plant, Cannabis sativa. It is a useful prophylactic agent in patients receiving cancer chemotherapy when other antiemetic medications are not effective:

A. Dexamethasone
B. Ondasentron
C. Scoploemine
D. Dronabinol
E. Granisteron

Answer 281

D. Dronabinol

Question 282

The drug of choice for drug-resistant P falciparum malaria. This drug is associated with toxicities including cinchonism, hypoglycaemia, and hypotension when it is given at full therapeutic or excessive doses

A. Primaquine
B. Choloroquine
C. Quinine
D. Proguanil
E. Pyrimethamine

Answer 282

A. Primaquine

Question 283

It is used primarily for the terminal prophylaxis and radical cure of P. vivax and P. ovale (relapsing) malarias because of its high activity against their latent tissue forms. In contrast with other antimalarials, it acts on tissue stages (exoerythrocytic) of plasmodia in the liver to prevent and cure relapsing malaria.

A. Primaquine
B. Choloroquine
C. Quinine
D. Proguanil
E. Pyrimethamine

Answer 283

A. Primaquine

Question 284

Mechanism of resistance in cancer chemotherapy include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. Decreased DNA repair
B. Formation of trapping agents
C. Change in enzyme targets
D. Decreased activation of prodrugs
E. Decreased drug accumulation

Answer 284

A. Decreased DNA repair

Question 285

5-Fluorouracil, methotrexate. gemcitabine and 6-mercaptopurine belong to which group of anticancer drugs?

A. Alkylating agents
B. Antimetabolites
C. Natural products
D. Antitumor antibiotics
E. Hormonal

Answer 285

B. Antimetabolites

Question 286

A highly basic positively charged peptide that antagonize the effect of warfarin

A. Argatroban
B. Hirudin
C. Vitamin K
D. Protamine sulfate
E. Dabigatran etexilate mesylate

Answer 286

D. Protamine sulfate

Question 287

Advantages of oral direct thrombin inhibitors include predictable pharmacokinetics and bioavailability, which allow for fixed dosing and predictable anticoagulant response, and make routine coagulation monitoring unnecessary. Which of the following is the first oral direct thrombin inhibitor approved by the US FDA?

A. Dabigatran
B. Streptokinase
C. Aminocaproic acid
D. Heparin
E. Hirudin

Answer 287

A. Dabigatran

Question 288

A specific irreversible thrombin inhibitor from leech saliva that is now available in recombinant form as lepirudin:

A. Argatroban
B. Bivalirudin
C. Hirudin
D. Rivaroxaban
E. Warfarin

Answer 288

C. Hirudin

Question 289

A diuretic agent which is also used as a treatment for glaucoma:

A. Furosemide
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Amiloride
D. Acetazolamide
E. Tolvaptan

Answer 289

D. Acetazolamide

Question 290

Natrixam, a drug used in the treatment of hypertension is marketed with a generic name of:

A. Amlodipine and HCTZ
B. Amlodipine and Indapamide
C. Amlodipine and Rosuvastatin
D. Amlodipine and Erythromycin
E. Amlodipine and Erythromycin

Answer 290

B. Amlodipine and Indapamide

Question 291

A newly developed drug in the management of diabetes which is used as adjunct to diet and exercise to improve glycemic control in adults with type 2 DM. It is marketed under the brand name, Invokana:

A. Canaglifozin
B. Atorvastatin
C. Perampanel
D. Agmatine sulfate
E. Anastrozole

Answer 291

A. Canaglifozin

Question 292

The generic name of Rapamune, a drug which serves as a prophylaxis of organ rejection in patients receiving renal transplant:

A. Tacrolimus
B. Sirolimus
C. Tamsulosin
D. Ramipril
E. Renapril

Answer 292

B. Sirolimus

Question 293

This drug inhibits the Na/Cl transporter in the distal convoluted tubule resulting to modest increase in NaCl excretion, some K wasting, hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis, and decreased urine Ca:

A. Mannitol
B. Conivaptan
C. Acetazolamide
D. Hydrochlorothiazide
E. Furosemide

Answer 293

D. Hydrochlorothiazide

Question 294

Trump plus a newly developed drug which is indicated to treat moderate to severe pain is a combination of

A. Paracetamol and Caffeine
B. Paracetamol and Tramadol
C. Paracetamol and Mefenamic acid
D. Paracetamol and Chlorphenamine maleate
E. Paracetamol and Codeine

Answer 294

B. Paracetamol and Tramadol

Question 295

Which of the following describes 2nd generation H1 -antihistamines?

A. Example of 2 generation antihistamines include Chlorpheniramine and Cyclizine
B. Common effect of first-generation H1 antagonists is sedation.
C. Some 2nd generation H1 antihistamines possess serotonin-blocking and adranoreceptor blocking action
D. Second-generation H1 antihistamines are used mainly for the treatment of allergic rhinitis and chronic urticaria
E. 2nd generation H1 antihistamines are less expensive compared to 1st gen H,1antihistamines

Answer 295

D. Second-generation H1 antihistamines are used mainly for the treatment of allergic rhinitis and chronic urticaria

Question 296

It is the newly marketed Live attenuated Dengue tetravalent vaccine developed by Sanofi-pasteur:

A. Pneumovax 23
B. Biothrax
C. Dengvaxia
D. Denguevaxx
E. Tetravax

Answer 296

C. Dengvaxia

Question 297

H1-antagonist that possess an alpha-receptor blocking action:

A. Diphenydramine
B. Promethazine
C. Chlorpheniramine
D. Fexofenadine
E. Cyproheptadine

Answer 297

E. Cyproheptadine

Question 298

A gaseous signaling molecule that readily diffuses across cell membranes and regulates a wide range of physiologic and pathophysiologic processes including cardiovascular, inflammatory, and neuronal functions:

A. NO
B. N2O
C. NO2
D. NO3
E. N2O3

Answer 298

A. NO

Question 299

Leukotriene-receptor inhibitor used in the treatment of asthma:

A. Albuterol
B. Zileuton
C. Cromolyn
D. Alprostadil
E. Montelukast

Answer 299

E. Montelukast

Question 300

All of the following are correct statements
regarding COX-1 and COX2 enzyme, EXCEPT:

A. COX-2 is an immediate early-response gene product that is markedly up-regulated by shear stress, growth factors, tumour promoters, and cytokines
B. COX2 is the major source of prostanoids in inflammation and cancer
C. Traditional NSAIDs are selective for COX-2
D. COX-1 generates prostanoids for “housekeeping” such as gastric epithelial cytoprotection
E. Indomethacin and sulindac are slightly selective for COX-1

Answer 300

C. Traditional NSAIDs are selective for COX-2