Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Colin PCMI > PCMI Final > Flashcards

PCMI Final Flashcards

1
Q

What are the four sinuses?

A

Frontal sinus, ethmoid sinuses, sphenoid sinus, maxillary sinus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is special about the frontal sinus?

A

It does not develop until 8 to 10 years of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the whisper test?

A

Doctor stands behind pt

Pt occludes one ear

Doctor whispers a series of 3 letters/numbers (2,K,4)

Pt repeats the sequence back

A second sequence is whispered and the pt repeats it back

Abnormal: Pt incorrectly identifies 4 of 6 letters/numbers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How should you pulling on the ear of your pt when using an otoscope (adult vs children)?

A

Adult: up, out, and posterior
Children: down, out, and posterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the two types of hearing loss?

A

Conduction Hearing Loss: external/middle ear problem (conductive phase)

Sensorineural hearing loss: Inner ear, cochlear nerve, or central brain connections problem (sensorineural phase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the Weber test?

A

Place a vibrating tuning fork on pt’s forehead

Normal: Sound lateralizes to both ears equally

Abnormal: Sound lateralizes to one ear or laterailzation is louder in one ear more than the other.

  • If sound is louder in affected ear, this indicates a conduction hearing loss
  • If sound is louder in normal ear, this indicates affected ear has a sensorineural hearing loss
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the Rinne Test?

A

Compares air and bone conduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is Normal Breathing rate?

A

14-20 breaths/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is hypopnea?

A

shallow breaths with slow respiration rate (<14/min)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is bradypnea?

A

Regular breathing rhythm with slow respiration rate (<14/min)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is hyperpnea?

A

Deep breaths with fast respiration rate (>20-25/min; normal in exercise)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is tachypnea?

A

rapid respiration rate (>20-25/min)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is dyspnea?

A

When you feel short of breath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is hypoxia?

A

Deficiency in O2 reaching tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is hypoxemia?

A

O2 deficiency in arterial blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is Apnea?

A

No breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is Atelectasis?

A

Collapse of lung tissue that affects alveoli from normal O2 absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the Pleximeter finger?

A

Hyperextended middle finger of non-dominant hand in percussion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the plexor finger?

A

The “tapping” finger used for percussion on the dominant hand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Where would you insert a needle thoracentesis for emergency decompression during a tension pneumothorax?

A

In the 2nd intercostal space (between the second and third rib) at the midclavicular line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Where would you insert a chest tube?

A

4th and 5th intercostal spaces just anterior to mid-axillary line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Where on the rib are the neurovascular bundles located and, knowing this, where in relation to the rib should chest tubes be inserted to avoid damage?

A

Neurovascular bundle found on inferior margins of each rib, therefore chest tubes should be inserted at the superior margin of the rib to avoid damage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How does pulse oximetry work?

A

Light emits red and infrared light through finger. Receptor detects how much of both are transmitted through the finger. Oxygenated hemoglobin absorbs more infrared light than red; deoxygenated blood absorbs more red than infrared light. Comparison of transmission of both frequencies gives the oxygen saturation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is PETCO2 and what is its normal value?

A

Pressure End Tidal CO2. Messurespressure of CO2 in exhaled air at the end of respiration.

PaCO2 and PETCO2 are correlated

Normal PaCO2/PETCO2 = 35-40 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is an incentive spriometer?

A

IS is a a device that has a little ball that rises in a chamber when you inhale through it. Doctor will tell you to inhale at a rate that maintains the ball at a certain height in the chamber.

Helps treat and prevent Atelectasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the two Pulmonary Function Tests?

A

The two PFTs are Plethysmography (pt sits in an enclosed chamber breathing through a tube) and Spriometry (pt inhales to full capacity and exhales through a tube as rapidly and fully as possible.

Both are used to diagnose Obstructive/Restrictive pulmonary disorders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is tracheal deviation a sign of?

A

Pneumothroax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What does accessory muscle use in breathing indicate?

A

Same as Retraction
Sign of respiratory distress
Asthma, COPD, Airway obstruction, viral illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What does retraction (skin retracts in thorax exposing ribs) indicate?

A

Same as use of accessory muscle

Severe asthma, COPD, Airway obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the causes of clubbing fingers?

A 
Congenital Heart disease
interstitial lung disease
bronchiectasis
pulmonary fibrosis
cystic fibrosis
lung abcess
malgnancy (lung cancer)
Inflammatory bowel disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is funnel chest?

A

Depression of the lower portion of the sternum. Can cause compression of heart and great vessels resulting in murmurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is Pectus Carinatum?

A

AKA pigeon chest

Sternum displaced anteriorly (increasing the A-P diameter)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is barrel chest?

A

Increased diameter of chest resembling a barrel, seen in COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the signs of Chronic Bronchitis?

A

“Blue Bloater” - Chronic Bronchitis is one form of COPD
Daily productive cough for 3 months or more in at least 2 consecutive years
Overweight and cyanotic
Elevated hemoglobin
Peripheral edema
Ronchi and wheezing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the signs of Emphysema?

A

“Pink Puffer” - form of COPD
Permanent enlargement and destruction of air spaces distal to terminal bronchiole
Older and thin
Severe dyspnea
Quiet chest
X-ray shows hyperinflation with flattened diaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is traumatic flail chest?

A

When pt has multiple rib fractures, paradoxical movements of the thorax occur during breathing.

Injured areas cave inward on inspiration, and move outward on expiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is tactile fremitis and what does it tell us?

A

Palpation test where you place ulnar surface of hands to sense vibration when pt says “ninety-nine”.

Decreased/absent vibration:

  • Pt too quiet
  • COPD
  • Pleural changes (effusion, fibrosis, pneumothorax, infiltrating tumor)

Increased vibration:
-Pneumonia (consolidation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How deep do percussion tones penetrate?

A

5-7 cm (can’t detect deep structures)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What does unilateral hyperresonance indicate on percussion test?

A

Pneumothorax

40
Q

What does generalized hyperesonance indicate on percussion test?

A

COPD/asthma

41
Q

What does dullness replacing resonance indicate on a percussion test indicate?

A

Fluid/solid tissue replaces air
Pneumonia
Pleural accumulations

42
Q

What is diaphragmatic excursion?

A

Distance between diaphragms position at full exhalation and full inhalation.

Detected using percussion to find transition point between resonance and dullness

Normal Diaphragmatic Excursion = 3-5.5 cm

Asymmetric diaphragmatic excursion indicates pleural effusion

43
Q

What side of the stethoscope should you use for Auscultation?

A

Diaphragm (larger side; used for detecting higher pitched sounds)

44
Q

What are the 4 lung sounds and where should you hear them?

A

Bronchovesicular - Intermediate intensity and pitch; over the main bronchi, 1st and 2nd intercostal spaces anteriorly AND between the scapulae posteiorly

Vesicular - Soft and low pitch; Over the lesser bronchi, bronchioles, and lobes (most of the lung)

Bronchial - Loud and high pitched; over the trachea (especially manubrium of sternum)

Trachial - Very loud/high pitched; trachea in the neck

45
Q

When would you hear Stridor?

A

Croup (upper airway infection)
Epiglottitis
Upper airway foreign body
Anaphylaxis

46
Q

When would you hear Wheezing?

A

Caused by rapid airflow through narrowed brochial airway

RAD (reactive airway disease)
Asthma
COPD

47
Q

When would you hear crackles?

A 
Pneumonia
CHF
Atelectasis
Pulmonary fibrosis
bronchioextasis
COPD
Asthma
48
Q

What is the vocal resonance test?

A

Auscultation while patient speaks

Normally speech sounds indistinct, but distinctness increases with lung consolidation (fluid in lung)

49
Q

What does it mean when you find Bronchophony during vocal resonance test?

A

Bronchophony is when spoken words get louder than normal

50
Q

What does it mean when you find Whispered pectoriloquy during vocal resonance test?

A

Whispered words are louder and clearer during ausculataion

51
Q

What does it mean when you find Egophony during a vocal resonance test?

A

When you ask the pt to say an “ee” sound, on auscultation it sounds like “A” (which is nasal and localized)

52
Q

What is Otitis Media?

A

Ear infection of middle ear (air filled space behind tympanic membrane

53
Q

What is otitis externa?

A

Ear infection of outer ear canal

54
Q

What is Labyrinthitis?

A

Infection of the inner ear structures

55
Q

What are the criteria that indicate the greatest liklihood of GABHS (Group-A Beta-Hemolytic Streptococcus)

A 
Children 5-15
Winter/Early Spring
Absence of Cough
Tender Anterior Cervical Lymphadenopathy
Tonsiallar exudate
Fever
56
Q

How does the Centor Score Work?

A 
1 Point for each of the following:
-Absence of Cough
-Swollen/tender anterir cervical nodes
-Temp >100.4
-Tonsillar exudates or swelling
Age 3-14

(-1 point for 45 years or older)

Score <= 0 means no testing or antibiotics needed
Score =1 means throat culture or rapid antigen detecting test (RATD) is optional
Score =2 OR Score = 3 means throat culture or RATD required
Score >=4 means no testing required, likely has GABHS and should be treated with antibiotics

57
Q

What is otosclerosis?

A

Abnormal bone growth around the stapes bone

Can cause either conductive hearing loss or sensorineural hearing loss

58
Q

What is Rhinosinusitis/Sinusitis?

A

Infection of mucosal lining in the nasal cavity

59
Q

What are the 5 causes of Vertigo?

A

Eustachian tube Dysfunction - eustachian tube gets inflammed (caused by flu, sinus infection, allergies)

Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo (BPPV) - sudden brief episodes of sensation of spinning. Triggered by specific changes in position of head.

Vestibular Neuritis - Inflammation of sensory nerves associated with balance. No hearing loss

Labyrinthitis - Inflammation of labyrinth (inner ear); affects bothbranches of vestibulocochlear nerve; hearing changes and dizziness

Meniere’s Disease - chronic condition of the inner ear, causes fluctuating hearing loss (eventually permanent). Feeling of fullness in ear.

60
Q

What are the Two Types of BPPV?

A

Canalithiasis - Freely floating debris in canal portion of SCC (most common)

Cupulolithiasis - Debris adhered to the cupula of the crista ampullaris (not free floating; not common)

61
Q

What tests do you use to diagnose/treat BPPV?

A

DIx-Hallpike (diagnose)

Epley maneuver (diagnosis/treatment)

62
Q

What is Epiglottitis?

A

Inflammation of the epiglottis

Caused by GABHS or Haemophilus Type B influenze virus

Signs/Symptoms: Sore throat, muffled voice, drooling, child sitting forward

First thing to do is maintain the airway (intubate if necessary)

63
Q

What is a common physical finding with patients who have a history of excessive cocaine/meth use?

A

Perforated nasal septum

64
Q

What is the five finger method to the normal cardiovascular exam?

A 
History
Physical
ECG
Imaging
Lab
65
Q

Where do you palpate for the Apex beat?

A

Upright: 5th intercostal space, 1 cm medial to midclavicular line

Supine: 4th-5th intercostal space at midclavicular line

AKA PMI (Point of Maximal Impulse)

66
Q

How can cardiac size be estimated in the physical exam?

A

Percussion. Start at left side where resonant, then move to the right until cardiac dullness

67
Q

Where would you place the stethoscope to listen to each valve, and which part of the stethoscope would you use?

A

Aortic Valve - 2nd intercostal space, right sternal border

Pulmonic Valve - 2nd intercostal space, left sternal border

Tricuspid Valve - 4th intercostal space, left sternal border

Mitral valve - 5th intercostal space, midclavicular line

Use the diaphragm of the stethoscope

68
Q

Describe where and how you would listen for bruits

A

Palpate one side at a time to find the carotid arteries.

Tell patient to hold their breath as you place the bell of the stethoscope against their neck and listen for bruits

69
Q

What is the source of S1, and what point in the cardiac cycle does it represent?

A

S1 is the closing of the mitral/tricuspid valves

Indicates the start of ventricular systole

70
Q

What is the source of S2, and what point in the cardiac cycle does it represent?

A

S2 is the closing of the Pulmonary/Aortic valves

Indicates the end of ventricular systole and the start of ventricular diastole

71
Q

Explain the Physiologic Splitting of S2

A

Inspiration causes a delay in the pulmonic valve closing.

The sound of the Aortic valve closing is heard before the sound of the pulmonic valve closing.

72
Q

What is the source of S3 and describe the significance

A

Occurs right after S2 (closing of Aortic and Pulmonic valves)

Mitral valve opens allowing blood to flow into the Left ventricle

The S3 sound is the result of the blood making contact withe compliant muscular wall of the left ventricle.

Sound is quiet and low pitch (heard using bell of stethoscope)

Normal in children, abnormal in adults

73
Q

What is the source of S4 and describe the significance

A

Occurs before S1 (closing of mitral/tricuspid valves)

S4 sound comes from the Atrial contraction pushing fluid into a low compliant, filled ventricle.

Sound is quiet and low pitch

S4 can be heard trained athletes

Otherwise is abnormal

74
Q

How do you grade a murmur?

A

I - Barely audible
II - soft but easily heard
III - loud without a thrill
IV - Loud with a thrill
V - Loud with minimal contact between stethoscope and chest - Thrill
VI - Loud enough to be heard without stethoscope - Thrill

75
Q

What is JVD?

A

Jugular Venous Distention

Reflects the activity of Right side of heart

Level of visibility indicates Central venous pressure CVP and Right Atrial Pressure RAP

76
Q

How is JVD measured?

A

Pt is put in supine position to allow veins to gorge, then they are raised to a seated at a 45 degree angle.

A rule is placed at the sternal angle point directly upward.

The height of the gorged vein is measured and 5 cm are added. The total height equals the pressure in cmH2O

77
Q

What does the A wave on the JVP curve represent?

A

Atrial contraction

78
Q

What does the C wave on the JVP curve represent?

A

Represents bulging of the tricuspid valve during right ventricular contraction

79
Q

What does the X depression on the JVP curve represent?

A

Relief of pressure on tricuspid valve as ventricular ejection occurs

80
Q

What does the V wave represent on the JVP curve?

A

Atrial filling on the closed tricuspid valve

81
Q

What does the Y depression on the JVP curve represent?

A

Tricuspid valve opens and ventricular filling begins

82
Q

What can cause an increase in JVD?

A
  • Sever Heart failure
  • Superior Vena Cava obstruction
  • Cardiac Tampanade (fluid in pericardium restricts contraction of heart
  • Constrictive pericarditis (chronic inflammation of the pericardium)
  • Right ventricle infarction
  • Restrictive cardiomyopathy
83
Q

How do you grade pulses?

A 
0 - Absent
1 - weak, barely palpable
2 - normal
3 - stronger than average
4 -bounding

Documented as +X/4

84
Q

What is normal capillary refill time?

A

<2 seconds

85
Q

How is edema scaled and where is it observed?

A

0 - absent
+1 - Barely detecable; non-pitting (2mm)
+2 - Slight indentation, pitting lasts for 10-15 seconds (4mm)
+3 - Deeper indentation, pitting lasts >1min (6mm)
+4 - Very deep indentation, pitting lasts 2-5 min (8mm)

Dorsum of foot
Anterior tibia (shin)
Behind medial malleolus

86
Q

What is regurgitation?

A

Turbulent flow when blood is travelling in the opposite direction it normally should.

87
Q

What is stenosis?

A

When blood flows through a stiff valve

88
Q

When is a murmur normal vs pathologic?

A

Grade 2 or below can be normal

Grade 3 or above can be pathological

89
Q

What are the general rules for what makes a murmur louder?

A

Insiration makes right sided murmurs (T and P valves) louder (RINspiration)

Expiration makes left sided murmurs (A and M valves) louder (LEXspiration)

Increased pre-load generally makes murmur louder

Increased afterload generally makes murmur louder

90
Q

Exceptions to general rules of what makes murmurs louder:

A

MVP (Mitral Valve Prolapse) - increased pre-load improves murmur (quiter); increased afterload makes murmur quieter

HOCM (Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy) - Increased pre-load improves murmur (makes it quieter); increased afterload makes murmur quieter

91
Q

What is a Crescendo-Decrescendo Murmur?

A

Midsystolic (between S1 and S2) murmur caused by aortic stenosis

92
Q

What is a Rheu-Mitral Murmur?

A

Occurs the entire time between S1 and S2 (holosystolic murmur)

Due to mitral regurgitation

Best heard at apex, radiates to axilla

93
Q

How do you describe a Tricuspid Regurgitation?

A

Holosystolic murmur (occurs throughout time between S1 and S2)

Associated with Intravenous Drug Abuse

“Want to TRI some drugs??”

94
Q

How do you describe an Aortic Regurgitation Murmur?

A

Early Blowing diastolic murmur

“AR thar she BLOWS”

Presents with connective tissue disorders such as Marfan’s syndrome

95
Q

How do you describe a Mitral Stenosis murmur?

A

Produces an extra sound after S1, before S2 (opening snap) with murmur continuing from to S2 after snap

History of Rheumatic fever

The OS is MS - Operating System is MicroSoft

Opening Snap; Mitral Stenosis

96
Q

Normal JVP

A

0-9 mmH2O

Colin PCMI (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions