PCM III Final Exam Material Flashcards

1
Q

What do these terms mean:

  1. Anuria
  2. Oliguria
  3. Polyuria
  4. Azotemia
  5. Uremia
A
  1. urine output < 50-100 mL/day
  2. urine output < 400-500 mL/day
  3. urine output > 3000 mL/day
  4. elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) W/O symptoms
  5. elevated BUN WITH symptoms, though they are NON-SPECIFIC (N/V, confusion, pruritis, fatigue)
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2
Q

What is AKI and what does it staging depend on?

A

AKI = inc. serum creatinine or dec. urine output

  • staged based on whichever of the two above issues is worse
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3
Q

What are the two most common causes of Acute Kidney Injury?

What does Pre-renal Azotemia lead to and why?

A
  1. Acute Tubular Necrosis
  2. Pre-renal Azotemia
  • Prerenal Azotemia leads to activation of RAAS and ADH release, causing dec. urine output as a mechanism to help try and restore extracellular volume
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4
Q

What are the two most common forms of Acute Tubular Injury?

A
  1. Ischemia (50% of cases) –> MOST COMMON
  2. Toxins (35% of cases)
    • Abx (vancomycin/aminoglycosides), IV iodine contrast, heme pigments, light chains
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5
Q

What is the difference in FeNa levels in Prerenal Azotemia vs Acute Tubular Necrosis?

A

Prerenal = FeNa < 1% (inc. tubular Na/water reabsorption)

ATN = FeNa > 2%

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6
Q

What are the two major blood supplies of Renal Tubules and why are they important?

A

Efferent arterioles –> Peritubular Capillaries and Vasa Recta

  • kidneys receive 20% of cardiac output with most blood being directed to the renal CORTEX
  • renal MEDULLA is primarily a watershed area that receives blood from the VASA RECTA –> relatively starved of oxygen and is MORE susceptible to ischemia
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7
Q

What are the two most common sites of Acute Tubular Necrosis and why?

What are the two reasons that GFR decreases in Acute Tubular Necrosis?

A
  1. Proximal Tubule segment
  2. medullary Thick Ascending Limb of the loop of Henle
  • these two areas have HIGH METABOLIC ACTIVITY because of sodium reabsorption by basolateral membrane Na/K-ATPase
  • GFR dec. due to tubular obstruction from cast formation and back-leak of urine filtrate due to loss of tight junctions
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8
Q

What is Interstitial Nephritis and what is its major cause (3 examples)?

What is the difference between Acute and Chronic Interstitial Nephritis?

A

IN = inflammatory cells within the renal interstitium and +/- granulomas

  • most common due to DRUGS
  • ex: NSAIDs, Abx, PPIs

AIN: fever, rash, arthralgia, pyuria/WBC casts

CIN: bland urinary sediment, slow decline in renal function, more fibrosis on renal biopsy

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9
Q

What are clinical presentations of Acute Kidney Injury?

A
  • edema, hypertension, dec. urine output, foamy urine (PROTEINURIA), uremia
  • pericardial friction rub, asterixis, uremic frost
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10
Q

What three labs should be obtained for ALL Acute Kidney Injury pts?

What are two ultrasound findings that are more indicative of Chronic Kidney Disease?

A
  1. urinalysis with urine microscopy
  2. urine albumin/Cr or protein/Cr ratios on RANDOM sample
  3. Renal ultrasound

CKD U/S: small kidneys and cortical thinning

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11
Q

What patients are FeNa and FeUrea only valid in?

A
OLIGURIC PATIENTS (<400-500 mL/day)
   - if pt is NON-oliguric, they cannot be prerenal
  • RAAS and ADH would both be increased if a patient was volume depleted

in most cases FeNa and FeUrea are not needed to differentiate etiology of AKI because history and physical exam are sufficient

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12
Q

What etiology do these urinary patterns allude to:

  1. renal tubular and transitional epi cells, granular casts
  2. WBC, WBC casts, urine eosinophils
  3. dysmorphic RBCs, RBC casts
  4. proteinuria (<3.5g/day), hematuria, dysmorphic RBCs
  5. heavy proteinuria (>3.5g/day), lipiduria, minimal hematuria
  6. hyaline casts
  7. WBCs, RBCs, bacteria
A
  1. acute tubular necrosis (ATN)
  2. acute interstitial nephritis (AIN) or pyelonephritis
  3. vasculitis or glomerulonephritis
  4. nephrITIC syndrome
  5. nephrOTIC syndrome
  6. non-specific, prerenal azotemia
  7. urinary tract infections (UTI)
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13
Q

What are the AEIOU indications for dialysis?

A

A - severe ACIDOSIS

E - ELECTROLYTE disturbances (hyperkalemia)

I - INGESTION (ethylene glycol, methanol)

O - volume OVERLOAD

U - UREMIA

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14
Q

What causes these heart sounds:

  1. S1
  2. S2
  3. S3
  4. S4
A

S1 = closure of AB valves (mitral and tricuspid)
- specifically MITRAL valve closure

S2 = aortic valve closure due to left ventricle emptying and drop of LV pressure

S3 = conditions where there is LV overload or failure
- pt w/abnormal myocardial stiffness and high filling pressure (occurs just after S2)

S4 = audible forceful left atrial contraction into a non-compliant left ventricle

  • auscultate in left lateral decubitus position at apex
  • inc. LV end-diastolic pressure
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15
Q

Who is Mitral Valve Prolapse most commonly seen in and what can be heard?

A
  • diagnosed w/maneuvers that rapidly dec. venous return and is MOST COMMON in thin, tall young women
  • hear MID-SYSTOLIC “click”; late-systolic murmur
  • associated with Marfan/Ehler-Danlos
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16
Q

Where is Aortic Stenosis best heard and what is the triad of critical aortic stenosis? (S/A/D)

What is AS associated with in the 6th decade of life vs the 7th decade of life?

A
  • heard at base of heart with crescendo-decrescendo murmur best heard at RUSB and radiates into bilateral carotid areas

Triad: chest pain (angina), syncope, dyspnea

6th decade: due to congenital bicuspid valves
7th decade: due to atherosclerotic calcific AS

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17
Q

Where is Tricuspid Regurgitation best heard and what is it most commonly associated with?

A
  • holosystolic murmur best heard at the LLSB that inc. with deep inspiration due to right heart association
    • seen with PULMONARY HYPERTENSION
  • treat left heart failure (MCC of right heart failure) by relieving CHF and using diuresis
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18
Q

What two complications is Acute Aortic Regurgitation associated with and what kind of murmur is it?

A
  • associated with endocarditis and aortic dissection (typically presents as medical emergency –> cardiogenic shock)
  • AR is a DIASTOLIC murmur
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19
Q

Where is Chronic Aortic Regurgitation best heard and what is Water-Hammer pulse (Corrigan pulse)?

A
  • high-pitched, decrescendo aortic diastolic murmur along the LSB with NO change during respiration
    • exertional dyspnea and fatigue

WHP: rapid rise and fall with an elevated systolic and low diastolic pressure that is best assessed using the brachial or radial pulses (wide pulse pressure with peripheral signs)

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20
Q

What is Atrial Septal Defect and what is a major complication that can develop do to it, especially after age 40?

A
  • loud systolic ejection murmur heard in the 2-3rd intercostal spaces parasternally due to inc. flow through pulmonary valve
    • FIXED SPLIT S2
  • pts. asymptomatic unless complication occurs and often do NOT manifest a specific murmur

Complication: cardiac arrhythmias (ATRIAL FIBRILLATION) and heart failure

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21
Q

What is Ventricular Septal Defect and what is the difference between small and large shunts?

A

Small: loud, harsh holosystolic murmur in 3-4th intercostal spaces along sternum (occasionally with mid-diastolic flow murmur)
- the smaller the defect, the LOUDER the murmur

  • SYSTOLIC THRILL IS COMMON

Large: right ventricular volume and pressure overload my cause pulmonary hypertension and cyanosis

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22
Q

What is Patent Ductus Arteriosus and what does it sound like?

A
  • CONTINUOUS, harsh, MACHINE murmur usually occurring at S2 below the clavicle due to patent connection between high pressure descending thoracic aorta and pulmonary arteries
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23
Q

Where are these Systolic Murmurs best heard:

  1. Aortic Stenosis (3)
  2. Pulmonic Stenosis
  3. ASD
  4. Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy w/obstruction
  5. Mitral Regurgitation
  6. Tricuspid Regurgitation
  7. Ventricular Septal Defect
A

Abnormal Flow over Outflow Tract/Semilunar Valve

  1. R base, LLSB, apex
  2. L base
  3. L base
  4. LLSB

Regurgitation from High Pressure –> Low Pressure

  1. apex
  2. LLSB
  3. LLSB
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24
Q

Where are these Diastolic Murmurs best heard:

  1. Aortic Regurgitation
  2. Pulmonary Regurgitation
  3. Mitral Stenosis
  4. Tricuspid Stenosis

Where is Patent Ductus Arteriosus best heard?

A

Backward Flow across leaking Semilunar Valve

  1. LLSB
  2. L base

Abnormal Forward Flow over Atrioventricular Valve

  1. apex
  2. LLSB
  • PDA best heard at L base
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25
Q

What is Erb’s Point and why is it important?

A
  • transition point at the 3rd intercostal space

- S2 > S1 ABOVE this point but S1 > S2 BELOW this point

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26
Q

What is the difference between:

  1. Wide physiologic splitting
  2. Fixed splitting
  3. Paradoxical/reversed splitting
A
  1. inc. splitting of S2 during inspiration persisting through respiratory cycle
    • delayed closing of pulmonic valve or early aortic closure (RBBB)
  2. wide splitting that does NOT vary with inspiration
    • prolonged RV systole, ASD, or RV failure
  3. splitting that appears on expiration and disappears on inspiration
    • LEFT BUNDLE BRANCH BLOCK
    • abnormal delayed aortic valve closure
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27
Q

What is S3 heart sound, where is it best heard, what age group is it pathologic in, and what are its two indications?

A
  • low-pitched murmur heard best at APEX with BELL
  • follows S2 (normal in kids) and is pathological in ADULTS after age 40
  • indicates LV failure and volume overload
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28
Q

What is S4 heart sound, where is it best heard, what does it reflect, and what 4 conditions can it be heard in (AS/HTN/HC/CAD)?

A
  • low-pitched murmur heard best at APEX with BELL
  • precedes S1 and reflects atrial contraction into a non-compliant ventricle (inc. ventricular diastolic stiffness)
  • found in Aortic Stenosis, Hypertension, Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy, and Coronary Artery Disease
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29
Q

Where are these Systolic Murmurs heard and what helps identify them:

  1. Aortic Stenosis
  2. Ventral Septal Defect
  3. Tricuspid Regurgitation
  4. Mitral Valve Prolapse
A
  1. RUSB with reduced CAROTID PULSE
  2. LLSB that does NO get louder (accentuates) with inspiration
    • HOLOSYSTOLIC MURMUR
  3. LLSB that DOES get louder (accentuates) with inspiration
  4. left midclavicular line (cardiac apex) that presents as systolic CLICK w/ or w/o murmur
    • Holosystolic Murmur = Mitral Regurgitation
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30
Q

Where are these Diastolic Murmurs heard:

  1. Aortic Insufficiency
  2. Pulmonic Regurgitation
  3. Mitral Stenosis
  4. Tricuspid Stenosis
A
  1. RUSB or Left Midsternal Border
    • best heard with BELL
  2. LUSB
  3. RLSB in LEFT LATERAL DECUBITUS POSITION
  4. LLSB
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31
Q

How are these grades of murmurs differentiated:

Grade 1
Grade 2
Grade 3
Grade 4
Grade 5
Grade 6
A
  1. very faint; may not be heard in all positions
  2. quiet, heard after placing stethoscope on chest
    • heard in 1-2 beats
  3. moderately loud
  4. loud w/PALPABLE THRILL
  5. very loud w/THRILL; heard w/stethoscope partly off chest
  6. very loud w/THRILL; heard w/stethoscope completely off chest
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32
Q

What are the 2 causes of Aortic Stenosis and what is its classical triad?

What does it sound like and where?

A
  1. calcific valve degeneration (>75 years old)
  2. congenital bicuspid aortic valve (40-70 yo)

Triad: heart failure, angina, syncope

  • carotid pulse with dec. amplitude and upstroke (parvus et tardus) and systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur at RUSB or suprasternal notch that radiates to neck
    • LOUDER WITH SQUATTING
    • systolic thrill over upper precordium
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33
Q

Aortic Stenosis

What are pts at a higher risk of developing, what is the S:ASH mneumonic, and why is treatment with vasodilators cautioned?

A
  • pts. at higher risk of developing CAD (1/3 - 40-60 yo and 2/3 - 60+ yo)

S:ASH =median survival without surgical intervention
A - angina = 5 yr survival
S - syncope = 3 yr survival
H - heart failure = 1 yr survival

  • aortic stenosis has WORST prognosis of all valvular lesions and medical therapy ALONE is not effective
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34
Q

What is the difference between Acute and Chronic Aortic Regurgitation?

What does a Chronic Aortic Regurgitation sound like and what kind of pulses does it have?

A

Acute: severe pulmonary edema and low CO

  • pts need immediate Aortic Valve Replacement
  • no bounding arterial pulse, murmur is SHORT

Chronic: due to valve deformity or abnormal aortic root

  • causes LV volume overload (LV dilation)
  • decrescendo, high-pitched blowing murmur at LSB (3rd space) or RSB
  • wide/bounding Corrigan pulse 2nd to elevated systolic/low diastolic BP
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35
Q

How is Aortic Regurgitation diagnosed and how is it treated?

A

Dx: aortic angiography, though echocardiogram is more frequently used (follows LV size and function)

Severe AR: vasodilators
- not recommended for NONSEVERE AR

  • use ACEI/ARB, along with diuretics, to treat symptoms
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36
Q

Tricuspid Regurgitation

Where is it heard and what does it present with?

A
  • holosystolic murmur along the LLSB that INCREASES with inspiration and does NOT radiate to the axilla
  • large, jugular V waves present that reflect the backflow through the tricuspid valve during ventricular contraction
  • often result of RV dilation
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37
Q

Mitral Stenosis

What is it commonly caused by and what is a complication it can lead to?

What does it sound like and where?

A
  • almost always due to Rheumatic Fever and can lead to Atrial Fibrillation
  • diastolic murmur with OPENING SNAP caused by chordae tendineae and stenotic leaflets that is best heard at the APEX
    • time between S2 and OS INVERSELY related to severity (more severe = earlier OS)
38
Q

What Triad is seen on CXR of a patient with Mitral Stenosis?

A
  • prominent pulmonary artery vascularity
  • enlarged left atrium
  • normal-sized LV
39
Q

Atrial Septal Defect

What is it, what are two findings on ECG, and what kind of murmur is it?

What are patients at inc. risk of developing?

A
  • secundum atrial septal defect; is the most common form of congenital heart disease, except for bicuspid aortic valve

ECG: right axis deviation and RBBB

  • systolic ejection murmur at LSB with FIXED SPLIT S2
  • patients often develop ATRIAL FIBRILLATION
40
Q

Ventricular Septal Defect

What is it and what does it sound like?

A
  • most common congenital defect in children

- holosystolic murmur at the LLSB (large VSD cause SOFT murmur while small VSD cause LOUD murmur)

41
Q

Patent Ductus Arteriosus

What does it sound like and where, and what does it present with?

A
  • continuous, MACHINE-like murmur at LUSB (more common in FEMALES)
    • usually asymptomatic, but HF/Infective Endocarditis can occur
  • see differential cyanosis with pulmonary HTN; CXR show calcification of ductus arteriosus
42
Q

What is the correct way to measure Blood Pressure?

A
  • avoid caffeine, tobacco, EtOH for 30 min prior

- rest quietly for 5 min; feet flat/back supported/arm at LEVEL OF HEART

43
Q

What are 3 concerns that garner collecting Orthostatic Vital Signs?

How are Orthostatic Vital Signs obtained?

A
  • dehydration, blood loss, syncope/near syncope
  • lay pt. down for at LEAST 5 minutes and obtain pulse/BP; assist pt. to seated position and after 1-2 minutes recheck pulse/BP
    • if (+) in seated position –> do NOT have them stand
44
Q

What are the two positive findings of Orthostatic Vital Signs?

How long should normal capillary refill take to return to baseline and what three problems would increased time point to?

A
  1. pulse INCREASE of 10 bpm or greater between laying down and sitting up
  2. BP DECREASE of 20 mmHg or greater between laying down and sitting up
  • normal capillary refill should return to baseline in LESS than 2 seconds
    • > 2 seconds = dec. circulating vol, dec. CO, PVD
45
Q

Where are the Dorsalis Pedis, Posterior Tibial, and Carotid Pulses located?

A

DP: anterior medial foot
- use index/middle/ring fingers to help ID pulse

PT: behind medial malleolus

C: anterior to the SCM

46
Q

What is the Pulse Grading Scale?

0
1
2
3
4
A

0 = absent, not palpable

1 = diminished, difficult to palpate, weak

2 = expected, easy to palpate (NORMAL)

3 = full, increased

4 = bounding, strong

47
Q

Who should have their Carotid pulse listened to?

Who should have an Abdominal Aorta ultrasound

A
  • anyone over the age of 50 yo due to increased risk of atherosclerosis (inc. risk of vascular disease)
    • use the BELL of the stethoscope

U/S: anyone 50 yo+ with a HISTORY of smoking needs to be checked for Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm
- smoking associated with 3-5x inc. for prevalence

48
Q

What is the normal value for Jugular Venous Pressure?

A

6-8 cm (measured from R sternal notch to JV); assesses central venous pressure (judges hearts efficiency as a pump)

49
Q

What does the Pitting Edema grading scale reflect:

+1
+2
+3
+4

A

pitting edema graded 1-4 after 5 seconds of pressure

\+1 = 2 mm indention 
\+2 = 4 mm indention
\+3 = 6 mm indention
\+4 = 8 mm indention
50
Q

What is the difference between Acute and Chronic Peripheral Arterial Disease?

A

Acute: severe pallor

Chronic: claudication –> progressive pain/heaviness with walking that eases with rest

51
Q

What are the 6 P’s of arterial occlusion and what can they lead to if no emergent intervention is obtained?

How do areas affected by them feel?

A

6 Ps = paresthesia, perishing cold, pulselessness, pain, paralysis, pallor

  • reflects loss of BLOOD FLOW
  • can lead to AMPUTATION in severe cases
  • extremities affected by arterial occlusion feel WAXY upon palpation
52
Q

What is the difference between Vascular and Neurogenic claudication?

What test is used to evaluate PAD?

A

Vascular

  • unchanged after walking
  • palliative: stopping activity
  • provocative: walking UPHILL, inc. metabolics
  • pulses: ABSENT

Neurogenic

  • inc. weakness after walking
  • palliative: bending over or sitting
  • provocative: walking DOWNHILL, inc. lordosis
  • pulses: PRESENT
  • PAD is evaluated using Ankle Brachial Index
53
Q

How is ABI calculated and what do these ranges indicate:

  1. > 1.4
  2. 1.0-1.4
  3. 0.9-1.0
  4. 0.8-0.9
  5. 0.5-0.8
  6. < 0.5
A

Right ABI = higher pressure in RIGHT foot/highest pressure in BOTH arms (pick the highest one)

  1. calcification/vessel hardening (see specialist)
  2. normal
  3. acceptable
  4. some arterial disease (treat risk factors)
  5. moderate arterial disease (see specialist)
  6. severe arterial disease (see specialist)
54
Q

What are Varicosities?

What is Stasis Dermatitis?

A
  • small, irregular dark blue lines that indicate VENOUS CONGESTION
  • valves in veins don’t close properly, causing backflow and dilation of vessels (can lead to EDEMA)

SD: reddish, purplish, brownish discoloration in skin develops overtime due to HEMOSIDERIN deposits staining the skin (RBC breakdown)

  • occurs with dec. flow or stasis on venous side of circulation
  • “BRAWNY EDEMA” = swollen and super thick skin
  • skin ulcerations over medial malleolus
55
Q

What is Cellulitis?

A
  • skin and SubQ tissue inflammation most commonly due to infections
  • marked erythema, inc. warmth and swelling, with occasional “skin weeping” without apparent open sores (yellow-clear serous fluid)
56
Q

What are Janeway Lesions, Osler Nodes, and Splinter Hemorrhage and what are they signs of?

A

all signs of BACTERIAL ENDOCARDITIS

JL: irregular macules on soles/palms (non-tender)
- occur days-wks after insult

OD: nodules 1 mm-1 cm on fingers, toes, thenar/hypothenar eminence (TENDER)
- occur hours-days after insult

SH: microemboli from valvular pathology at the periphery of nail beds
- more likely from nail trauma if isolated

57
Q

What is Lymphadema?

What is the #1 cause world-wide?

A
  • impaired fluid return in lymphatic system due to hereditary or secondary causes (crushing injuries, tropical infections)
  • most commonly in US due to axillary LN dissection during mastectomy for breast cancer
  • use compression sleeve or support stockings to help control (based on amount of pressure desired in mmHg –> prescribed compression stockings)

worldwide –> FILARIAL INFECTION is most common cause (severe lymphedema)

58
Q

What are the 5 major modifiable risk factors for stroke?

What two conditions can effective control of modifiable risk factors help prevent?

A

HTN, DM, smoking, dyslipidemia, physical inactivity

  • can prevent ATRIAL FIBRILLATION and CAROTID ARTERTY STENOSIS in pts. that effectively manage their modifiable risk factors (dec. risk of stroke significantly)
59
Q

What are 4 major unmodifiable risk factors for stroke?

A
  1. age (older, usually > 80 yo)
  2. race (African Americans > Caucasians)
  3. sex (inc. risk for men)
  4. family history (also genetic disorders)
60
Q

What are the 4 goals of the Initial Phase of Stroke Examination?

A
  1. ensure medical stability –> ABCs!
  2. quickly reverse conditions contributing to problems
  3. determine if IV thrombolytic therapy is needed
  4. move forward to uncover pathophysiological basis of pts. neurologic symptoms
61
Q

Neurological Exam for Stroke

What are the 3 most predictive examination findings for the diagnosis of ACUTE STROKE?

A
  1. facial paresis
  2. arm drift/weakness
  3. abnormal speech (combo of dysarthria and language items from the NIHSS)

National Institutes of Health Stroke Scale (NIHSS) is a very frequently used neurological examination scale

62
Q

What is Asymptomatic Carotid Artery Stenosis?

A
  • presence of atherosclerotic narrowing of the extracranial internal carotid artery in individuals WITHOUT history of ipsilateral carotid ischemic stroke or TIA
  • considered asymptomatic if pt has NOT had ipsilateral carotid ischemic stroke or TIA within the PRIOR 6 months
63
Q

What is Symptomatic Carotid Artery Stenosis?

What are NOT indicative of carotid stenosis?

A
  • focal neurological symptoms in the distribution of a carotid artery with significant stenosis
  • nonspecific neurologic symptoms (dizziness, light-headedness) are NOT indicative of carotid stenosis
    • pts with above Sx in isolation should be considered ASYMPTOMATIC even if they have carotid artery stenosis
64
Q

Should asymptomatic individuals be screened for Carotid Artery Stenosis?

A

NO –> annual risk for ipsilateral stroke is LOW

  • routine duplex U/S would result in many more FALSE-POSITIVES than TRUE-POSITIVE results
65
Q

What 3 populations should be screened for Carotid Artery Stenosis?

A
  1. asymptomatic pts. with carotid BRUITS
  2. considered in pts who have symptomatic sclerotic disease in ANOTHER VASCULAR BED
  3. pts. with two+ RISK FACTORS for atherosclerotic disease
66
Q

What is the Toe-Brachial Index used for?

What would the next step be in a patient suspected of claudication but has an initial NEGATIVE ABI test?

A
  • more reliable indicator of limb perfusion in pts. with diabetes because small vessels of toes are frequently spared from medial calcification
    • can impose false ABI readings if done in mid extremities
  • next step would be to perform EXERCISE TESTING with post-exercise ABI
67
Q

What are the 3 cause of VTE (Virchow’s Triad)?

A
  1. alterations in blood flow
  2. vascular endothelial injury
  3. alterations in the constituents of the blood
68
Q

What are 5 physical exam findings that could indicate DVT in patients?

A
  1. dilated superficial veins (varicose veins)
  2. unilateral edema/swelling
  3. unilateral warmth, tenderness, erythema
  4. pain and tenderness along involved veins
  5. local or general signs of malignancy
69
Q

What test is used to help assist risk of DVT in patients?

A

Well’s Criteria

70
Q

What would be physical exam findings in patients suffering from PVD?

What does an ABI of < 0.9 and < 0.5 indicate in patients with PVD?

A

PE: claudication and coldness –> continuous/night pain

  • measure ABI symptoms/risk factors associated
  • skin pigmentation, pallor, coldness, warm areas (collateral circulation), malnutrition of toenails, ulceration/gangrene

ABI < 0.9 = inc. risk of CV morbidity/mortality
ABI < 0.5 = dec. physical activity than w/claudication

71
Q

Peripheral Venous Insufficiency

What are the 3 most common symptoms and when is pain worse/better?

A

Sx: limb discomfort, pain, limb swelling

Better: limb elevation and walking
Worse: standing or seated for prolonged periods of time

pts with PAD experience WORSE pain with elevation of limb and walking, while sitting RELIEVES pain

72
Q

What are 3 cardinal manifestations of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction?

What are 3 common symptoms that signal congestion?

A
  1. Dyspnea (on exertion or at rest)
    • air hunger; severity dec. after RV failure develops
  2. Fatigue
    • synergistic with inactivity
  3. Fluid Retention/Volume Overload

Congestion: cardiomegaly, hepatomegaly, pulmonary HTN

73
Q

Paroxysmal Nocturnal Dyspnea and HFrEF

Orthopnea and HFrEF

A

PND: occurs after pt. has been in supine position for some time, waking up with sensation of choking that is relieved in the upright position
- usually precedes orthopnea

O: dyspnea occurring within minutes of patient assuming supine position

  • represents more SEVERE cardiac dysfunction
  • usually sleep sitting upright
74
Q

What are 4 physical exam findings of patients with HFrEF? (PR/PE/H/PL)

A
  1. pulmonary RALES (crackles) = fluid overload
  2. symmetric pitting edema
  3. hepatomegaly (JVP elevation, JVD)
  4. pulsatile liver (during systole)
75
Q

What is required for diagnosis of Heart Failure using the Clinical Framingham Heart Study Criteria of Heart Failure?

What are two Major Criteria that typically point towards heart failure?

A

Dx: requires two major criteria or one major and 2 minor criteria in order to get heart failure diagnosis

  • two Major Criteria typically indicative of HF include elevated JVP and S3 murmur
    • inc. risk of death and hospitalization for HF
76
Q

BNP/NT-proBNP/Cardiac Troponins and Heart Failure

A
  • BNP/NT-proBNP are of diagnostic utility in ACUTE HF
    • highly sensitive/specific when diagnosis in doubt
    • BNP lvls > 100 and NT lvls > 450-900 (younger/50)

may be INACCURATE in AKI, CKD, liver disease

  • CT: detected in over half of systolic HF patients (sign of volume overload and elevated LV filling pressure)
77
Q

What are CXR findings of a patient with Heart Failure?

A
  • cardiac silhouette and cardiomegaly (cardiothoracic ratio > 50%)
  • Kerly B-lines (spindle-shaped linear opacities at the periphery of the lung bases)
  • pleural effusions
78
Q

What is an essential diagnostic tool for assessing cardiac structure and function in a patient with heart failure?

Why should a cardiac catheter be obtained in a patient with HF?

A

ECHOCARDIOGRAPHY
- should be used early to help define the syndrome (systolic vs diastolic)

  • get cardiac catheter if suspicious of CAD as etiologic/aggravating factor for HF
    • also helps guide therapy rather than make diagnosis
79
Q

What is the difference between Cardiogenic and Non-Cardiogenic Pulmonary Edema?

A

C: associated with cardiac dysfunction

  • inc. pulmonary venous pressure - interstitial edema
  • exertional dyspnea and orthopnea
  • prominent vascular markings in upper lung zones

NC: damage to the pulmonary capillary lining

  • hypoxemia; normal intracardiac pressures
  • normal heart size and diffuse alveolar infiltrates
80
Q

What are Pleural Effusions, how are they detected, and what do symptomatic transudates/exudates require?

A

PE: accumulation of fluid within the pleural space
- either transudate or exudate

  • detected via physical exam or CXR
  • symptomatic transudates and all exudates require thoracentesis, chest tube drainage, pleurectomy
    • asymptomatic transudates require no treatment
81
Q

What is Light’s Critera?

A
  • exudative pleural effusions fulfill at least 1 of the following:
  1. protein PF/serum protein ratio > 0.5
  2. pleural LDH > 2/3 ULN for serum LDH
  3. pleural/serum LDH ratio > 0.6
  • transudative PE do not meet any of these criteria
82
Q

What are the Anterior and Posterior Chapman’s Points for:

  1. Esophagus, bronchus
  2. Upper lung
  3. Lower lung
A
  1. Locations
    • A: parasternally, between 2-3 ICS
    • P: T2
  2. Locations
    • A: parasternally, between 3-4 ICS
    • P: T3
  3. Locations
    • A: parasternal, between 4-5 ICS
    • P: T4
83
Q

What is the difference between Bronchitis and Pneumonia?

How is Pneumonia treated in an outpatient setting vs inpatient?

A

Bronchitis: cough lasting 1-3 weeks

  • constitutional symptoms
  • mainly caused by VIRUSES
  • rhonchi with or without wheezing (clear w/cough)

Pneumonia: cough and dyspnea

  • FEVER (>100.4) and TACHYPNEA (> 20 BPM)
  • fine/coarse RALES (+ infiltrates later)
  • dullness to percussion, egophony, tact. fremitus

Outpatient: macrolides
Inpatient: fluoroquinolone OR macrolide + B-lactam

84
Q

COPD

Who is at inc. risk of developing it, how is it diagnosed, and what is seen on physical exam?

When should PFT/Spirometry be done?

A

RF: smoking, occupational exposure

Dx: productive cough with SPUTUM production for > 3 months for 2 consecutive years

PE: inc. AP diameter of chest, prolonged expiration on auscultation, hyper-resonance with percussion

do PFT/spirometry ANNUALLY

85
Q

Pertussis

What is the difference between Catarrhal, Paroxysmal, and Convalescent phases?

What is the best predictor of pertussis as the cause of prolonged cough in adults?

A
  1. Catarrhal - 1-2 wks; nonspecific symptoms
    • excessive lacrimation and conjunctival injection
  2. Paroxysmal - starts during 2nd week
    • severe, vigorous coughs w/single expiration
    • distinctive “whooping” sound (worse at night)
    • vomiting w/cough (post-tussive emesis) is BEST predictor of pertussis as the cause of prolonged cough in adults
  3. Convalescent - reduction in frequency/severity of cough
    • may last up to 3 months
86
Q

What is CURB/CRB and what are its 4 criteria?

A
  • used to predict mortality in patients with community-acquired pneumonia

Criteria:

  1. new onset confusion with illness
  2. severe tachypnea (RR > 30 BPM)
  3. hypotension (< 90 mmHg S or < 60 mmHg D)
  4. age > 65 years old
87
Q

Pertussis

What testing should be done in weeks 1-2, 2-4, and after week 4 in these patients?

How is Pertussis treated and how does immunization help with disease?

A

Wk 1-2: get culture and PCR
Wk 2-4: get PCR
Wk 4+: only check serology

Tx: antibiotics must be initiated within the 1st 3 weeks (unless underlying chronic disease –> can treat after 3 weeks) as well as treating all household and close contacts

  • MACROLIDES are FIRST LINE ANTIBIOTICS
  • avoid OPIOD-based cough suppressants

Immunization: immunity wanes after 5-10 yrs, so get Tdap booster for adults and healthcare workers

88
Q

Asthma

How is it diagnosed, what is seen/heard on physical exam, and what is used to confirm diagnosis?

A

Dx: episodic/chronic symptoms of wheezing, cough that is worse at night and early morning

PE: prolonged expiration and diffuse wheezing; allergies present with pale swollen nasal mucosa and clear rhinorrhea/allergic shiners (eyes)

  • pts need spirometry to confirm diagnosis
    • inc/dec. FEV1 of 12% and 200 mL from baseline
    • change in peak expiratory flow of 20%
89
Q

Asthma

How are patients treated, what is the cornerstone of pt. treatment, and when can treatment be dialed down?

A

Short Term: SABA
Management: ICS + LABA (formoterol)

  • patient education and monitoring is the cornerstone of asthma treatment
    • teach/review with patient at each visit
  • can scale back treatment after pt. has been stable for 3 months
    • should check inhaler adherence and treat any modifiable RFs before considering step up in treatment
90
Q

Asthma Action Plan

What is the difference between Green, Yellow, and Red Zones?

A

G: > 80% of personal best

  • continue current medications
  • where you WANT TO/SHOULD BE

Y: 50-79% of personal best

  • step up medications
  • retest in 20-30 minutes (regain green zone status!)

R: < 50% of personal best
- GET HELP IMMEDIATELY

91
Q

Acute Respiratory Failure

What is the difference between Types 1 and 2, how do they commonly present, and what do ABG lvls show?

A

Type 1: hypoxic - patient cannot maintain oxygenation even with supplemental O2

Type 2: hypercarbic - ventilation is impaired such that CO2 is retained

C: confusion/delirium/somnolence, pt in tripod position with pursed-lip breathing

ABG: Type 1: PaO2 < 60 mmHg, SaO2 < 90% or Type 2: PaCO2 > 45 mmHg with respiratory acidosis (< 7.35)

92
Q

Acute Respiratory Failure

How is it commonly treated, what are NIPPV’s two forms, and what should be done if patient does NOT respond or their condition worsens?

A

Tx: NIPPV is FIRST LINE (non-invasive positive-pressure ventilation): full face mask or nasal mask delivering oxygen under pressure (first line in patients with COPD)

  • either C-PAP (continuous positive airway pressure) or Bi-PAP (bi-level positive airway pressure)
    • both inc. oxygenation as well as ventilation
  • need tracheal intubation with mechanical ventilation in patients that worsen or fail to improve