PCI AND CORONARY INTERVENTIONS Flashcards
Which arteries are commonly used for arterial access in percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI)?
A) Brachial and carotid
B) Radial and femoral
C) Popliteal and iliac
D) Subclavian and ulnar
Answer: B) Radial and femoral
Rationale: The radial and femoral arteries are the preferred access sites for PCI due to their size and accessibility.
Which of the following is given as a loading dose before PCI to prevent platelet aggregation?
A) Warfarin
B) Heparin
C) Clopidogrel
D) Aspirin alone
Answer: C) Clopidogrel
Rationale: A P2Y12 inhibitor, such as clopidogrel (600 mg), is often given before PCI to reduce the risk of thrombosis.
Which of the following describes the mechanism of drug-eluting stents?
A) They release an antiproliferative agent to reduce restenosis.
B) They create a mechanical barrier to block plaque growth.
C) They release thrombolytics to dissolve clots.
D) They stimulate endothelial growth to cover the stent faster.
Answer: A) They release an antiproliferative agent to reduce restenosis.
Rationale: Drug-eluting stents reduce restenosis by eluting drugs like sirolimus or paclitaxel.
What is the angiographic success criterion for PCI?
A) Stenosis reduced to <50%
B) Stenosis reduced to <30%
C) Stenosis reduced to <20%
D) Stenosis completely eliminated
Answer: C) Stenosis reduced to <20%
Rationale: Angiographic success is defined as reducing the stenosis diameter to <20%.
What is the recommended minimum duration of dual antiplatelet therapy (DAPT) for second-generation drug-eluting stents?
A) 3 months
B) 6 months
C) 12 months
D) Lifetime
Answer: B) 6 months
Rationale: Second-generation drug-eluting stents require at least 6 months of DAPT.
What is the most common complication of angioplasty?
A) Stroke
B) Stent thrombosis
C) Restenosis
D) Myocardial rupture
Answer: C) Restenosis
Rationale: Restenosis, or re-narrowing of the artery, is the most frequent complication.
Answer: C) Restenosis
Rationale: Restenosis, or re-narrowing of the artery, is the most frequent complication.
Very late stent thrombosis after one year is typically due to what process?
A) Intimal hyperplasia
B) Neoatherosclerosis
C) Thrombocytopenia
D) Coronary vasospasm
Answer: B) Neoatherosclerosis
Rationale: Neoatherosclerosis, rather than intimal hyperplasia, is the primary cause of very late thrombosis.
Which trial showed that optimal medical therapy was comparable to PCI for stable patients?
A) SYNTAX
B) FREEDOM
C) ISCHEMIA
D) COMPLETE
Answer: C) ISCHEMIA
Rationale: The ISCHEMIA trial found no difference in outcomes between PCI and medical therapy.
What is the most common congenital lesion treated percutaneously?
A) Ventricular septal defect
B) Atrial septal defect
C) Patent ductus arteriosus
D) Coarctation of the aorta
Answer: B) Atrial septal defect
Rationale: Atrial septal defects are commonly treated with closure devices.
