PCA Flashcards

1
Q

What is the RA No. for PCA

A

RA NO 10667

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2
Q

True or False
S1: Rules of PCA apply to any entity engaged in trade, industry or commerce in the Republic of the Philippines or in international trade, industry or commerce having direct, substantial and reasonably foreseeable effects in the Philippines.
S2: Includes also those that result from acts done outside the territory of Philippines

A

S1 and S2 True

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3
Q

T or F
Rules of PCA shall not apply to the combinations or activities of workers or employees nor to agreements or arrangements with their employees when such combinations, activities or arrangements are designed solely to facilitate collective bargaining in respect of conditions of employment

A

TRUE

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4
Q

It refers to the purchase or transfer of securities or assets through contract or other means for the purpose of control

A

Acquisition

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5
Q

Control can be obtained by

s1: 1 entity of the whole or part of another
s2: 2 or more entities over another
s3: 1 or more entities over one or more entities

A

ALL ARE CORRECT

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6
Q

Identify the answer and incorrect phrase.

Refers to any type or form of contract, arrangement, understanding, collective recommendation, or concerted action, whether formal or informal, explicit or tacit, written only.

A

Agreement and Can be oral also

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7
Q

Refers to any type or form of undertaking, collective recommendation, independent or concerted action or practice, whether formal or informal

A

Conduct

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8
Q

Refers to Philippine Competition Commission created under this Act

A

Commission

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9
Q

Refers to information concerns or relates to the operations, production, sales, shipments, purchases, transfers, identification of customers, inventories, or amount or source of any income, profit, losses, expenditures, which are not generally known to the public or to other persons who can obtain economic value from its disclosure or use, or is liable to cause serious harm to the person who provided it, or from whom it originates and is the subject of efforts that are reasonable under the circumstances to maintain secrecy.

A

Confidential Business Information

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10
Q

refers to the ability to substantially influence or direct the actions or decisions of an entity, whether by contract, agency or otherwise;

A

Control

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11
Q

refers to a position of economic strength that an entity or entities hold which makes it capable of controlling the relevant market independently from any or a combination of the following:
competitors, customers, suppliers, or consumers

A

Dominant Position

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12
Q

refers to any person, natural or juridical, sole proprietorship, partnership, combination or association in any form, whether incorporated or not, domestic or foreign, including those owned or controlled by the government, engaged directly or indirectly in any economic activity;

A

ENTITY

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13
Q

refers to a business arrangement whereby an entity or group of entities contribute capital, services, assets, or a combination of any or all of the foregoing, to undertake an investment activity or a specific project, where each entity shall have the right to direct and govern the policies in connection therewith, with the intention to share both profits and risks and losses subject to agreement by the entities

A

Joint Venture

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14
Q

refers to the group of goods or services that are sufficiently interchangeable or substitutable and the object of competition, and the geographic area where said goods or services are offered;

A

Market

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15
Q

refers to the joining of two (2) or more entities into an existing entity or to form a new entity, including joint ventures

A

Merger

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16
Q

refers to the market in which a particular good or service is sold and which is a combination of the relevant product market and the relevant geographic market

A

Relevant Market

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17
Q

comprises all those goods and/or services which are regarded as interchangeable or substitutable by the consumer or the customer, by reason of the goods and/or services’ characteristics, their prices, and their intended use;

A

Relevant Product Market

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18
Q

comprises the area in which the entity concerned is involved in the supply and demand of goods and services, in which the conditions of competition are sufficiently homogenous and which can be distinguished from neighboring areas because the conditions of competition are different in those area

A

Relevant Geographic Market

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19
Q

is the juridical entity that, directly or indirectly, controls a party to the transaction, and is not controlled by any other entity.

A

Ultimate Parent Entity

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20
Q

Identify the missing word

(a) The following agreements, between or among competitors, are ______ prohibited:

(1) ___________ _________as to price, or components thereof, or other terms of trade; AKA PRICE FIXING

(2) ______ the price at an auction or in any form of bidding, including cover bidding, bid suppression, bid rotation and market allocation, and other analogous practices of bid manipulation. Bid Rigging

A

per se
restricting competition
fixing

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21
Q

Supply the missing information

b) The following agreements, between or among competitors, which have the object or effect of substantially ________, __________, or _______ competition shall be prohibited:

(1) Setting, limiting, or controlling production, markets, technical development, or investment; -OUPUT LIMITATIONS

(2) Dividing or sharing the market, whether by volume of sales or purchases, territory, type of goods or services, buyers or sellers, or any other means. -Market Allocation

A

preventing, restricting or lessening

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22
Q

(b) The following agreements, between or among competitors, which have the object or effect of substantially preventing, restricting, or lessening competition shall be prohibited:

(1) ______, ______or _____ production, markets, technical development, or investment;

(2)______ or ____ the market, whether by volume of sales or purchases, territory, type of goods or services, buyers or sellers, or any other means.

A

setting, limiting, controlling

dividing, sharing

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23
Q

Those which contribute to improving the production or distribution of goods and services or to promoting technical or economic progress, while allowing consumers a fair share of the resulting benefits is still deemed violation of this act.

A

False, may not deemed violation.

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24
Q

NOT CONSIDERED COMPETITORS

A

entities that control,
are controlled by,
or are under common control with another entity or entities,
have common economic interests, and
are not otherwise able to decide or act independently of each other

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25
Q

Abuse of Dominant Position

Prohibited
(1) Selling goods or services below ____ with the object of driving competition out of the relevant market. PREDATOR PRICING

A

COST

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26
Q

Abuse of DP
Prohibited Acts

________ to entry or committing acts that prevent competitors from growing within the market in an anti-competitive manner

A

Imposing barriers

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27
Q

Not prohibited in Abuse of DP
Those that develop in the market as a result of or arising from a inferior product or process, business acumen, or legal rights or laws;

Identify the wrong word

A

inferior- SUPERIOR

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28
Q

Abused dominant position
Prohibited

Making a transaction subject to______ by the other parties of other obligations which, by their nature or according to commercial usage, have no connection with the transaction;

A

acceptance

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29
Q

Prohibited in Abuse of DP

Setting prices or other terms or conditions that _________ unreasonably between customers or sellers of the same goods or services, where such customers or sellers are contemporaneously trading on similar terms and conditions, where the effect may be to lessen competition substantially

A

discriminate

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30
Q

Following shall be considered permissible price differentials, except:

i. Socialized pricing for the less fortunate sector of the economy;

ii. Price differentials which unreasonably or approximately reflect differences in the cost of manufacture, sale, or delivery resulting from differing methods, technical conditions, or quantities in which the goods or services are sold or delivered to the buyers or sellers;

iii. Price differential or terms of sale offered in response to the in competition price of payments, services, or changes in the facilities furnished by a competitor; and

iv. Price changes in response to changing market conditions, marketability of goods or services, or volume.

A

II and III
reasonably; competitive

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31
Q

Prohibited Abused DP

Identify if T or F
Imposing restrictions on the lease or contract for sale or trade of goods or services concerning where, to whom, or in what forms goods or services may be sold or traded, such as:

i. fixing prices, or

ii. giving preferential discounts or rebate upon such price, or

iii. imposing conditions not to deal with competing entities,

where the object or effect of the restrictions is to prevent, restrict or lessen competition substantially

A

ALL ARE TRUE

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32
Q

Prohibited or Not?

Permissible franchising, licensing, exclusive merchandising, or exclusive distributorship agreements, such as those which give each party the right to unilaterally terminate the agreement, unless found by the Commission to have substantial anticompetitive effect

A

Not Prohibited unless unlawful

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33
Q

Prohibited or not?

Agreements ​protecting ​intellectual ​property ​rights,
confidential information, or trade secrets;

A

Not Prohibited unless unlawful

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34
Q

Prohibited because of Abused DP or Not? Also known as? Making supply of particular goods or services dependent upon the purchase of other goods or services from the supplier which have no direct connection with the main goods or services to be supplied;

A

Prohibited, Tied Up Product example ay yung xray at xerox machine ni atty nicko

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35
Q

Directly or indirectly imposing unfairly low purchase prices for the goods or services of, among others, marginalized agricultural producers, fisherfolk, micro-, small-, medium-scaled enterprises, and other marginalized service providers and producers;

Prohibited the Abused DP? or not?

A

YES, Abusado ka talaga

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36
Q

Directly or indirectly imposing unfairly low purchase prices for the goods or services of, among others, marginalized agricultural producers, fisherfolk, micro-, small-, medium-scaled enterprises, and other marginalized service providers and producers;

Prohibit Abuse of DP

A

True

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37
Q

S1: Directly or indirectly imposing unfair purchase or selling price on their competitors, customers, suppliers, or consumers,

S2: prices that develop in the market as a result of or due to a superior product or process, business acumen or legal rights or laws shall be considered unfair prices

Determine if it prohibits abused dp?

A

YES No S2 …. legal rights or laws shall not be considered unfair prices.

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38
Q

Limiting production, markets, or technical development to the prejudice of consumers,

A

Abused DP

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39
Q

b) Nothing in the Act or these Rules shall be construed or interpreted as a prohibition on having a dominant position in a relevant market, or on acquiring, maintaining, and increasing market share through legitimate means that do not substantially prevent, restrict, or lessen competition.

(c) Any conduct which contributes to improving production or distribution of goods or services within the relevant market, or promoting technical and economic progress, while allowing consumers a fair share of the resulting benefit may not necessarily be considered an abuse of dominant position.​

(d) The foregoing shall not constrain the Commission or the relevant regulator from pursuing measures that would promote fair competition or more competition as provided in the Act.

A

Rules in Abused DP of RA 10667

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40
Q

concerned entity or entities invoking the exception shall clearly establish to the Commission’s satisfaction, that the barrier to entry or anti-competitive act is an ____ and _____of the superior product or process, business acumen, or legal rights or laws.

A

indispensable; natural result

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41
Q

True or False? Commission, motu proprio or upon notification as provided under these Rules, shall have the power to review mergers and acquisitions having a direct, substantial and reasonably foreseeable effect on trade, industry, government or commerce in the Philippines,

A

False hindi kasali ang government

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42
Q

In conducting this review, the Commission shall:

(1) Assess whether a proposed merger or acquisition is likely to substantially prevent, restrict, or increase competition in the relevant market or in the market for goods and services as may be determined by the Commission; and

(2) Take into account any substantiated efficiencies put forward by the parties to the proposed merger or acquisition, which are likely to arise from the transaction.

A

S1 false increase; lessen

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43
Q

In evaluating the competitive effects of a merger or acquisition, the Commission shall endeavor to compare the competitive conditions that would likely result from the merger or acquisition with the conditions that would likely have prevailed without the merger or acquisition.

A

true

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44
Q

In its evaluation, the Commission may consider, on a case-to-case basis, the broad range of possible factual contexts and the specific competitive effects that may arise in different transactions, such as:

(1) the structure of the relevant markets concerned;

(2) the market position of the entities concerned;

(3) the actual or potential competition from entities within or outside of the relevant market;

(4) the alternatives available to suppliers and users, and their access to supplies or markets;

(5) any legal or other barriers to entry.

A

ALL ARE TRUE

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45
Q

Parties to a merger or acquisition that satisfy the thresholds in Section 3 of this Rule are required to _______ the Commission before the execution of the definitive agreements relating to the transaction.

A

notify

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46
Q

If notice to the Commission is required for a merger or acquisition, then all acquiring and acquired pre-acquisition ultimate parent entities or any entity authorized by the ultimate parent entity to file notification on its behalf must each submit a _________ (the “Form”) and comply with the procedure set forth in Section 5 of this Rule. The parties shall not consummate the transaction before the expiration of the relevant periods provided in this Rule.

A

Notification Form

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47
Q

In formation of a ____ ____ shall be deemed the acquired entity.

A

JV

48
Q

In formation of JV, contributing entities, shall be deemed

A

acquiring entities

49
Q

Parties to a merger or acquisition are required to provide notification when:

(a) The aggregate annual gross revenues in, into or from the Philippines, or value of the assets in the Philippines of the ultimate parent entity of at least one of the acquiring or acquired entities, including that of all entities that the ultimate parent entity controls, directly or indirectly, exceeds One Billion Pesos (1B).

A

True

50
Q

Parties to a merger or acquisition are required to provide notification when:

A

(b) The value of the transaction exceeds One Billion Pesos (PhP1,000,000,000.00), as determined in subsections (1), (2), (3) or (4), as the case may be.

(1) With respect to a proposed merger or acquisition of assets in the
Philippines if either

i. the aggregate value of the assets in the Philippines being acquired in the proposed transaction exceeds One Billion
Pesos (PhP1,000,000,000.00); or

ii. the gross revenues generated in the Philippines by assets acquired in the Philippines exceed One Billion Pesos (PhP1,000,000,000.00).

51
Q

The value of the transaction exceeds One Billion Pesos (PhP1,000,000,000.00), as determined in subsections

A

(2) With respect to a proposed merger or acquisition of assets outside the Philippines, if

i. the aggregate value of the assets in the Philippines of the acquiring entity exceeds One Billion Pesos
(PhP1,000,000,000.00); and

ii. the gross revenues generated in or into the Philippines by those assets acquired outside the Philippines exceed One Billion Pesos (PhP1,000,000,000.00).

52
Q

b) The value of the transaction exceeds One Billion Pesos (PhP1,000,000,000.00), as determined in subsections (1), (2), (3) or (4), as the case may be.

A

3) With respect to a proposed merger or acquisition of assets inside and outside the Philippines, if

i. the aggregate value of the assets in the Philippines of the acquiring entity exceeds One Billion Pesos
(PhP1,000,000,000.00); and

ii. the aggregate gross revenues generated in or into the Philippines by assets acquired in the Philippines and any assets acquired outside the Philippines collectively exceed One Billion Pesos (PhP1,000,000,000.00).

53
Q

With respect to a proposed acquisition of (i) voting shares of a corporation or of (ii) an interest in a non-corporate entity

i. If the aggregate value of the assets in the Philippines that are owned by the corporation or non-corporate entity or by entities it controls, other than assets that are shares of any of those corporations, exceed One Billion Pesos
(PhP1,000,000,000.00); or

ii. The gross revenues from sales in, into, or from the Philippines of the corporation or non-corporate entity or by entities it controls, other than assets that are shares of any of

A

those ​corporations, ​exceed ​One ​Billion ​Pesos
(PhP1,000,000,000.00);

54
Q

Parties to a merger or acquisition are required to provide notification when:

A

as a result of the proposed acquisition of the voting shares of a corporation, the entity or entities acquiring the shares, together with their affiliates, would own voting shares of the corporation that, in the aggregate, carry more than the following percentages of the votes attached to all the corporation’s outstanding voting shares:

55
Q

Thirty-five percent (35%), or

II. Fifty percent (50%), if the entity or entities already own more than the percentage set out in subsection I above, as the case may be, before the proposed acquisition;

or

B. as a result of the proposed acquisition of an interest in a non-corporate entity, the entity or entities acquiring the interest, together with their affiliates, would hold an aggregate interest in the non-corporate entity that entitles the entity or entities to receive more than the following percentages of the profits of the noncorporate entity or assets of that non-corporate entity on its dissolution:

Thirty-five percent (35%), or

II. Fifty percent (50%), if the entity or entities acquiring the interest are already entitled to receive more than the percentage set out in subsection I immediately above before the proposed acquisition.

A

ALL ARE TRUE

56
Q

Where an entity has already exceeded the 35% threshold for an acquisition of voting shares, or the 35% threshold for an acquisition of an interest in a non-corporate entity, ______ _____
will be required if the same entity will exceed 50% threshold after making a further acquisition of either voting shares or an interest in a non-corporate entity.

A

another notification

57
Q

In a notifiable joint venture transaction, an acquiring entity shall be subject to the notification requirements if either

i) the aggregate value of the assets that will be combined in the Philippines or contributed into the proposed joint venture exceeds One Billion Pesos (PhP1,000,000,000.00) or

(ii) the gross revenues generated in the Philippines by assets to be combined in the Philippines or contributed into the proposed joint venture exceed One Billion Pesos (PhP1,000,000,000.00)

A

TRUE TRUE

58
Q

determining the assets of the joint venture, the following shall be included:

A

1) All assets which any entity contributing to the formation of the joint venture has agreed to transfer, or for which agreements have been secured for the joint venture to obtain at any time, whether or not such entity is subject to the requirements of the act; and

2) Any amount of credit or any obligations of the joint venture which any entity contributing to the formation has agreed to extend or guarantee, at any time.

59
Q

A ____or ____consisting of successive transactions, or acquisition of parts of one or more entities, which shall take place within a one-year period between the same parties, or any entity they control or are controlled by or are under common control with another entity or entities, shall be treated as _________.

A

merger, acquisition, one transaction

60
Q

S1: If a binding preliminary agreement provides for such successive transactions or acquisition of parts, the entities shall not provide notification on the basis of such preliminary agreement.

S2: If there is no binding preliminary agreement, notification shall be made when the parties execute the agreement relating to the last transaction which, when taken together with the preceding transactions, satisfies the thresholds under this Section.

A

S1 false- shall not provide/ shall provide

61
Q

(f) For purposes of calculating notification thresholds:

1) The aggregate value of assets in the Philippines shall be as stated on the first regularly prepared balance sheet or the most recent audited financial statements in which those assets are accounted for.

2) The gross revenues from sales of an entity shall be the amount stated on the first regularly prepared annual statement of income and expense of that entity.

TRUE OR FALSE

A

Both are false- FIRST/LAST

62
Q

A transaction that meets the thresholds and does not comply with the notification requirements and waiting periods set out in Section 5 shall be considered _____ and will subject the parties to an administrative fine of one percent ___ to five percent ____of the value of the transaction.

A

VOID, 1-5%

63
Q

In the case of a merger or acquisition of banks, banking institutions, building and loan associations, trust companies, insurance companies, public utilities, educational institutions, and other special corporations governed by special laws, a favorable or no-objection ruling by the Commission shall not be construed as dispensing with the requirement for a favorable recommendation by the appropriate government agency under Section 79 of the Corporation Code of the Philippines.​

A

TRUE

64
Q

(i) A favorable recommendation by a governmental agency with a competition mandate shall give rise to a disputable presumption that the proposed merger or acquisition is not violative of the Act or these Rules

A

TRUE

65
Q

Prior to filing a notification pursuant to this Rule, parties to a proposed merger or acquisition that are required to notify may inform the Commission of their proposed merger or acquisition and request a prenotification consultation with the staff of the Commission.

A

TRUE

66
Q

To request a meeting, the parties must provide the following information in writing:

(1) the names and business contact information of the entities concerned;

(2) the type of transaction; and

(3) the markets covered or lines of businesses by the proposed merger or acquisition.

A

ALL ARE TRUE

67
Q

During such pre-notification consultations, the parties may seek nonbinding advice on the specific information that is not required to be in the notification.

A

FALSE NOT REQUIRED/ required

68
Q

a) Each party to a merger or acquisition required to give notification to the Commission shall submit the Notification Form and pay such applicable fees as may be determined by the Commission. An electronic copy of the Form and a scanned copy of the certification referred to in subparagraph (b) of this Section, contained in a secure electronic storage device, shall likewise be submitted to the Commission, simultaneous with the filing of the aforementioned hard and soft copy.

A

FALSE- Hardcopy only

69
Q

b) The Form must be signed by a general partner of a partnership, an officer or director of a corporation, or in the case of a natural person, the natural person or his/her legal representative, and certified that the contents of the Form are true and accurate of their own personal knowledge and/or based on authentic records. In all cases, the certifying individual must possess actual authority to make the certification on behalf of the entity filing the notification.

(c) The parties may notify, on the basis of a binding preliminary agreement in any form, such as a memorandum of agreement, term sheet, or letter of intent. Each of the acquired and acquiring entities must submit an affidavit with their Forms, attesting to the fact that a binding preliminary agreement has been executed and that each party has an intention of completing the proposed transaction in good faith.

(d) Both the certification and the affidavit must be notarized or otherwise void.

A

TRUE
TRUE
FALSE- void/ authenticated

70
Q

Except as described below, the waiting period begins after all notifying entities have filed their respective Forms, together with the corresponding certifications and affidavits, and have been notified by the Commission that the Forms are complete.

(1) In voting securities acquisitions, such as tender offers, third party and open market transactions, in which the acquiring entity proposes to buy voting securities from shareholders of the acquired entity, rather than from the entity itself:

i. the acquiring entity is required to serve notice on the issuer of those shares to ensure the acquired entity is aware of its reporting obligation;

ii. only the acquiring entity must submit an affidavit. The acquiring entity must state in the affidavit that it has an intention of completing the proposed transaction in good faith, and that it has served notice on the acquired entity as
to its potential reporting obligations (and in tender offers, the acquiring entity also must affirm that the intention to make the tender offer has been publicly announced); and

iii. the waiting period begins after the acquiring entity files a complete Form.

A

all true

71
Q

i. the acquiring entity is required to serve notice on the issuer of those shares to ensure the acquired entity is aware of its reporting obligation;

ii. only the acquiring entity must submit an affidavit.

A

TRUE
TRUE

72
Q

Upon submission of the Form, the Commission shall determine within ____ days whether the Form and other relevant requirements have been completed in accordance with applicable rules or guidelines, and shall inform the parties of other information and/or documents it may have failed to supply, or issue a notice to the parties that the notification is sufficient for purposes of commencing Phase I review of the merger or acquisition.

A

15

73
Q

The waiting period under this Section shall commence only upon the Commission’s determination that the notification has been completed in accordance with applicable rules and guidelines.

A

true

74
Q

Within _______ days from commencing Phase I review, the Commission shall, if necessary, inform the parties of the need for a more comprehensive and detailed analysis of the merger or acquisition under a Phase II review, and request other information and/or documents that are relevant to its review.

A

30

75
Q

Within thirty (30) days from commencing Phase __ review, the Commission shall, if necessary, inform the parties of the need for a more comprehensive and detailed analysis of the merger or acquisition under a Phase ___ review, and request other information and/or documents that are relevant to its review.

A

I, II

76
Q

The issuance of such request has the effect of extending the period within which the agreement may not be consummated for an additional ___ days, beginning on the day after the request for information is received by the parties.

A

60

77
Q

in no case shall the total period for review by the Commission of the subject agreement exceed _____ days from the time the initial notification by the parties is deemed complete

A

90

78
Q

EXPIRATION OF THE PERIOD OF REVIEW FOR MERGER AND ACQUISITION

that should the parties fail to provide the requested information within fifteen (15) days from receipt of the said request, the notification shall be deemed expired and the parties must refile their notification. Alternatively, should the parties wish to submit the requested information beyond the fifteen (15) day period, the parties may request for an extension of time within which to comply with the request for additional information, in which case, the period for review shall be correspondingly extended.

A

TRUE

79
Q

Parties to a proposed transaction under review shall inform the Commission of any substantial modifications to the transaction. On the basis of the information provided, the Commission shall determine if a new notification is required.

A

TRUE

80
Q

(k) Where notification of a transaction is not required, then the periods provided above for the Commission to conclude its review shall not apply.

(l) The Commission, in its discretion, may terminate a waiting period prior to its expiration.

(m) When either waiting period set out ends on a Saturday, Sunday or holiday, the waiting period is extended until the next business day.

(n) When the above periods have expired and no decision has been promulgated for whatever reason, the merger or acquisition shall be deemed approved and the parties may proceed to implement or consummate it.

A

ALL ARE TRUE

81
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

All notices, documents, and information provided to or emanating from the Commission under Sections 4 and 5 of this Rule shall be subject to the confidentiality rule under Section 34 of the Act and Section 13 of this Rule, except for the purpose of enforcing the Act or these Rules, or when the release of information contained therein is with the consent of the notifying entity or is mandatorily required to be disclosed by law or by a valid order of a court of competent jurisdiction, or of a government or regulatory agency, excluding an exchange.

A

False- Including an exchange

82
Q

Effect of notification.

If within the relevant periods stipulated in the preceding section, the Commission determines that the merger or acquisition agreement is prohibited under Section 20 of the Act and Section 9 of this Rule, and does not qualify for exemption under Section 21 of the Act and Section 10 of this Rule, the Commission may:

(a) Prohibit the implementation of the agreement;

(b) Prohibit the implementation of the agreement unless and until it is modified by changes specified by the Commission; or

(c) Prohibit the implementation of the agreement unless and until the pertinent party or parties enter into legally enforceable agreements specified by the Commission.

A

ALL ARE TRUE

83
Q

When additional information or documents requested by the Commission for the purpose of a Phase II review of a notified merger or acquisition has been submitted by the parties, the Commission shall publish on its website the following information related to the notification on the basis of the Form submitted by the parties:

(1) the name of the involved entities;

(2) the type of the transaction;

(3) the markets covered or lines of businesses by the proposed merger or acquisition; and

(4) the date when the complete notification was received.

A. ALL OF THE GIVEN
B. 1 and 2
C. 3 and 4
D. 1,2,3

A

A

84
Q

When publishing this information, the Commission shall take into account the legitimate interest of the entities regarding the protection of their trade secrets and other confidential information

A

TRUE

85
Q

The Commission shall publish, from time to time, regulations adopting, modifying, rescinding or otherwise changing:

A

a) The transaction value threshold and such other criteria subject to compulsory notification;

(b) The information that must be supplied for notified mergers or acquisitions;

(c) Exceptions or exemptions from the notification requirement; and

(d) Other rules relating to the notification procedures.

86
Q

______ or ______ agreements that substantially prevent, restrict, or lessen competition in the Philippines in the relevant market or in the market for goods or services, as may be determined by the Commission, shall be prohibited.

A

Merger or acquisition

87
Q

MERGERS AND ACQUISITIONS EXEMPT FORM PROHIBITION BY COMMISSION

a) The concentration has brought about or is likely to bring about gains in efficiencies that are greater than the effects of any limitation on competition that result or are likely to result from the merger or acquisition agreement; or

(b) A party to the merger or acquisition agreement is faced with actual or imminent financial failure, and the agreement represents the least anticompetitive arrangement among the known alternative uses for the failing entity’s assets.

A

BOTH A AND B

88
Q

S1: Provided, that an entity shall not be prohibited from continuing to own and hold the stock or other share capital or assets of another corporation, which it acquired prior to the approval of the Act, or from acquiring or maintaining its market share in a relevant market through such means without violating the provisions of the Act and these Rules;

S2: Provided, further, that the acquisition of the stock or other share capital of one or more corporations not for investment only and not used for voting or exercising control and not to otherwise bring about, or attempt to bring about the prevention, restriction or lessening of competition in the relevant market shall not be prohibited.

A

S1 True
S2 Falase solely for investment

89
Q

The burden of proof under Section 10 of this Rule lies with the parties seeking the exemption. A party seeking to rely on the exemption specified in Section 21(a) of the Act or Section 10(a) of this Rule must demonstrate that if the agreement were not implemented, significant efficiency gains would not be realized.

A

TRUE

90
Q

Merger or acquisition agreements that have received a favorable ruling from the Commission, except when such ruling was obtained on the basis of fraud or false material information, may not be challenged under the Act or these Rules.

A

TRUE

91
Q

Information, including documents, shall be communicated or made accessible by the Commission, insofar as it contains trade secrets or other confidential information, the disclosure of which is considered necessary by the Commission for the purpose of the review.

A

FALSE- shall be not communicated; considered not necessary

92
Q

Any entity or party that supplies information, including documents, to the Commission, shall clearly identify any material that it considers to be confidential, provide a justification for the request of confidential treatment of the information supplied and the time period within which confidentiality is requested, and provide a separate non-confidential version by the date set by the Commission.

(c) The Commission may require the parties to the merger or acquisition and other interested parties to identify any part of a decision or case summary adopted by the Commission, if any, which in their view contains trade secrets or other confidential information. Where trade secrets or other confidential information are identified, the parties to the merger or acquisition and other interested parties shall provide a justification for the request of confidential treatment and provide a separate non-confidential version by the date set by the Commission.

A

TRUE TRUE

93
Q

(d) Whenever the Commission, pursuant to Section 13(c) of this Rule, deems that the justification for confidential treatment provided by the party is insufficient or not grounded, it shall inform the interested party of its decision to make the information accessible.

(e) If a merger or acquisition is under review in multiple jurisdictions, parties to the transaction may waive the confidentiality protections contained in this Rule, so as to allow the Commission to exchange otherwise protected information with competition authorities in other countries.

A

TRUE TRUE

94
Q

DETERMINATION OF THE RELEVANT MARKET

the following factors, among others, affecting the substitutability among goods or services constituting such market, and the geographic area delineating the boundaries of the market shall be considered:

A

a) The possibilities of substituting the goods or services in question with others of domestic or foreign origin, considering the technological possibilities, the extent to which substitutes are available to consumers and the time required for such substitution;

(b) The cost of distribution of the good or service, its raw materials, its supplements and substitutes from other areas and abroad, considering freight, insurance, import duties, and non-tariff restrictions; the restrictions imposed by economic agents or by their associations; and the time required to supply the market from those areas;

(c) The cost and probability of users or consumers seeking other markets; and

(d) National, local or international restrictions which limit the access by users or consumers to alternate sources of supply or the access of suppliers to alternate consumers.

95
Q

DETERMINATION OF CONTROL

In determining the control of an entity, the Commission may consider the following:

a) Control is presumed to exist when the parent owns directly or indirectly, through subsidiaries, more than ______ of the voting power of an entity, unless in exceptional circumstances, it can clearly be demonstrated that such ownership does not constitute control.

A

1/2

96
Q

(b) Control also exists even when an entity owns one half (1/2) or less of the voting power of another entity when:

(1) There is _____ over more than one half (1/2) of the voting rights by virtue of an _____ with investors;

A

power; agreement

97
Q

Control also exists even when an entity owns one half (1/2) or less of the voting power of another entity when:

2) There is power to ____ or ____ the financial and operating policies of the entity under a statute or agreement

A

direct; govern

98
Q

(b) Control also exists even when an entity owns one half (1/2) or less of the voting power of another entity when:

(3) There is power to ____ or ____ the majority of the members of the board of directors or equivalent governing body;

A

appoint; remove

99
Q

b) Control also exists even when an entity owns one half (1/2) or less of the voting power of another entity when:

4) There is power to ___ the majority votes at meetings of the board of directors or equivalent governing body;

A

cast

100
Q

(b) Control also exists even when an entity owns one half (1/2) or less of the voting power of another entity when:

5) There exists ______ over or the right to use all or a significant part of the assets of the entity; or

A

ownership

101
Q

b) Control also exists even when an entity owns one half (1/2) or less of the voting power of another entity when:

There exist ___ or ____ which confer decisive influence on the decisions of the entity

A

rights; contracts

102
Q

In determining whether an anti-competitive agreement or conduct substantially prevents, restricts, or lessens competition, the Commission, in appropriate cases, shall, inter alia:

A

a) Define the relevant market allegedly affected by the anti-competitive agreement or conduct, following the principles laid out in Section 24 of the Act and Rule 5 of these Rules;

(b) Determine if there is actual or potential adverse impact on competition in the relevant market caused by the alleged agreement or conduct, and if such impact is substantial and outweighs the actual or potential efficiency gains that result from the agreement or conduct;

(c) Adopt a broad and forward-looking perspective, recognizing future market developments, any overriding need to make the goods or services available to consumers, the requirements of large investments in infrastructure, the requirements of law, and the need of our economy to respond to international competition, but also taking account of past behavior of the parties involved and prevailing market conditions;

(d) Balance the need to ensure that competition is not prevented or substantially restricted and the risk that competition efficiency, productivity, innovation, or development of priority areas or industries in the general interest of the country may be deterred by overzealous or undue intervention; and

(e) Assess the totality of evidence on whether it is more likely than not that the entity has engaged in anti-competitive agreement or conduct, including whether the entity’s conduct was done with a reasonable commercial purpose, such as but not limited to, phasing out of a product or closure of a business, or as a reasonable commercial response to the market entry or conduct of a competitor.

103
Q

Dominance can exist on the part of one entity (________ dominance) or of two or more entities (______ dominance).

A

single; collective

104
Q

In determining whether an entity has a market dominant position for purposes of this Act and these Rules, the Commission shall consider the following illustrative and non-exhaustive criteria, as may be appropriate:

(a) The share of the entity in the relevant market and the ability of the entity to fix prices unilaterally or to restrict supply in the relevant market;

(b) The share of other market participants in the relevant market;

(c) The existence of barriers to entry and the elements which could foreseeably alter both the said barriers and the supply from competitors;

(d) The existence and power of its competitors;

A

ALL ARE TRUE

105
Q

e) The credible threat of future expansion by its actual competitors or entry by potential competitors (expansion and entry);

(f) Market exit of actual competitors;

(g) The bargaining strength of its customers (countervailing power);

(h) The possibility of access by its competitors or other entities to its sources of inputs;

(i) The power of its customers to switch to other goods or services;

(j) Its recent conduct;

A

In determining whether an entity has a market dominant position for purposes of this Act and these Rules, the Commission shall consider the following illustrative and non-exhaustive criteria, as may be appropriate:

106
Q

k) Its ownership, possession or control of infrastructure which are not easily duplicated;

(l) Its technological advantages or superiority, compared to other competitors;

(m) Its easy or privileged access to capital markets or financial resources;

(n) Its economies of scale and of scope;

(o) Its vertical integration; and

(p) The existence of a highly developed distribution and sales network.

A

In determining whether an entity has a market dominant position for purposes of this Act and these Rules, the Commission shall consider the following illustrative and non-exhaustive criteria, as may be appropriate:

107
Q

Presumption of dominance.

There shall be a rebuttable presumption of market dominant position if the market share of an entity in the relevant market is at least ______ unless a new market share threshold is determined by the Commission for that particular sector.

A

50%

108
Q

The Commission shall, from time to time, determine and publish the threshold for dominant position or the minimum level of share in the relevant market that could give rise to a presumption of dominant position. In such a determination, the Commission would consider:

(a) The structure of the relevant market;

(b) The degree of integration;

(c) Access to end-users;

(d) Technology and financial resources; and

(e) Other factors affecting the control of a market, as provided in Section 2 of this Rule.

A

ALL ARE CORRECT

109
Q

How much should an entity pay if incase fails or refuses to comply with a ruling, order or decision issued by the Commission?

A

50k-2M for each violation and a similar amount of penalty for each day thereafter until the said entity fully complies. These fines shall only accrue daily beginning 45 days from the time the said decision or order was received by the party.

110
Q

Supply of incorrect or misleading information
How much fine may the Commission impose upon any entity where intentionally? or negligently supply incorrect or misleading information in any document?

A

up to 1M

111
Q

Any other violations not specifically penalized under the relevant provisions of this Act shall be penalized by a fine of ____?

A

50k-2M

112
Q

Schedule of fines indicated in the section of RA 10667 shall be increased by the Commission every ____ to maintain their real value from the time it was set.

A

5 years.

113
Q

An entity that enters into any anti-competitive agreement shall for each and every violation, be penalized by imprisonment from ___ to _____ and a fine of not less than _____ but not more than 250 million pesos.

A

2;7;50M

114
Q

Who imposes the penalty of imprisonment?

A

Imposed upon responsible officers and directors of the entity

115
Q

What if the entities involved in criminal penalties are juridical persons, who will imposed the imprisonment?

A

It shall be imposed on its officers, directors or employees holding managerial positions who are knowingly and willfully responsible for such violation.