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General PC-21 Information > PC-21 Standing Orders > Flashcards

PC-21 Standing Orders Flashcards

To memorise everything

1
Q

Order A:1
(Checking of CFS Striker Plate Before Closing Canopy)

The PC-21 is equipped with a _________ in the front cockpit. It has a risk of an inadvertent activation if the striker plate is _________ when canopy is being closed.

A
  1. Canopy Fracturing System (CFS)

2. Obstructed

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2
Q

Order A:1
(Checking of CFS Striker Plate Before Closing Canopy)

The following actions are required before closing the canopy:

  1. _________________________
  2. ________________________
A
  1. Front seat aircrew to be fully strapped-in to avoid harness straps obstructing the striker plate
  2. Front seat aircrew must check that the CFS pin has been removed and stowed and that the striker plate is clear of obstruction

** In dual sorties, the aft seat aircrew must be informed before the canopy is closed.

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3
Q

Order A:2
(Restrictions on Engine Start using Manual Mode)

There is a high possibility of __________ when the engine is started using the Manual start mode.

A
  1. Over-heating
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4
Q

Order A:2
(Restrictions on Engine Start using Manual Mode)

The following restrictions apply when using Manual start mode:

  1. _____________________
  2. ____________________
  3. ____________________
A
  1. Actual aircraft engine starts using the Manual mode will not be permitted on ground, unless required for maintenance issues.

** Manual start in the air is required only in the event of a flameout coupled with a failure of the Auto engine start function.

  1. The aircraft will be rejected on the ground if it fails to start on the Auto mode
  2. All manual start practices will be carried out in the simulator, and all QFIs and trainees must carry out a practiced Manual start prior to their first solo.
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5
Q

Order B:1
(Restrictions on Spinning)

The following conditions must be met prior to entry to intentional erect spin:

  1. ______________
  2. ______________
  3. ______________
  4. ______________
A
  1. Elevator and Aileron Trims set to neutral
  2. Maximum FUEL QTY asymmetry of 55 lb difference.
  3. Discernable Horizon
  4. In sight of ground and clear of populace
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6
Q

Order B:1
(Restrictions on Spinning)

Spinning exercise is __________ for trainee solo sorties

Intentional inverted spinning is _________

A
  1. Not permitted

2. Not permitted

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7
Q

Order B:1
(Restrictions on Spinning)

The recommended minimum entry height for PC-21 spinning exercise is ________. All aircrew will adopt a standard minimum entry height of ________ in the Pearce Training Area (PTA) regardless of area of operations.

A
  1. 11,000 ft AGL
  2. 13,000 ft AMSL

This is due to the different height of the terrain and obstacles in the respective area of operations.

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8
Q

Order B:1
(Restrictions on Spinning)

A __________ has to be conducted prior to the commencement of the spinning exercise.

A
  1. Safety Brief
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9
Q

Order B:2
(Set-up for Unusual Attitudes)

Set-up for Nose High U/A

  1. __________________
A
  1. There are no restrictions for the set-up of Nose High U/A
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10
Q

Order B:2
(Set-up for Unusual Attitudes)

Set-up for Nose Low U/A Recoveries

  1. __________________
A
  1. QFIs will hand-over control to trainees with maximum handover airspeed of 240 KIAS.
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11
Q

Order B:3
(Training “G” Limits and Management)

The Maximum training G limit is ____Gs.

A
  1. 7Gs
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12
Q

Order B:3
(Training “G” Limits and Management)

** Dual Flights

If the training G limit is exceeded (within structural limit) ONCE, the sortie can be continued, provided all occupants attained a _______________.

A
  1. Minimum of 8G certification for HTC
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13
Q

Order B:3
(Training “G” Limits and Management)

** Dual Flights

In the event that the training G limit is exceeded for the 2nd time, the sortie is _____________________. The ______ must be informed.

A
  1. Terminated and Return to Base (RTB)

2. Squadron Executive Officer (SXO) must be informed

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14
Q

Order B:3
(Training “G” Limits and Management)

All ____________ will not continue the sortie if training limit is exceeded. __________ must be informed and the sortie will be ________________

A
  1. Solo Trainees
  2. Squadron Executive Officer (SXO)
  3. Terminated for Return to Base (RTB)
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15
Q

Order B:4
(Management of Flying Operations over Water)

During periods of high wave heights, ____________ and ___________ is reduced in the event of ejection over water.

A
  1. Aircrew Survivability

2. Effectiveness of Search and Rescue Operations

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16
Q

Order B:4
(Management of Flying Operations over Water)

The following restrictions for Flying Operations over Water:

  1. Aircrew are not to operate over water when the __________ is reported to be in excess of _____ metres.
  2. The formula for the computation of _________, is ____________.
A
  1. Total Wave Height
  2. Excess of 4 metres

Total Wave Height = √(Sea State² + Swell Height²)

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17
Q

Order B:5
(Weather Criteria for Flying Training)

The launch criteria (weather chart) gives the following required weather colour states for the launch airfield and associated diversion airfields for routine flying training.

The Following Criteria are:

  1. ______________
  2. ______________
  3. ______________
  4. ______________
A
  1. Blue and Yellow 1
  2. Yellow 2
  3. Amber 1
  4. Amber 2 and Red
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18
Q

Order B:5
(Weather Criteria for Flying Training)

The weather colour state of Blue and Yellow 1 indicates:

  1. _________________
A
  1. No restriction on flying training.
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19
Q

Order B:5
(Weather Criteria for Flying Training)

The weather colour state of Yellow 2 indicates:

  1. _________________
  2. _________________
  3. _________________
  4. _________________
  5. _________________
A
  1. Circuit training is allowed for both Pearce and Gingin if permitted by ATC and SXO.
  2. Aircraft captain must be instrument rated
  3. Airfield must have serviceable airfield approach aid
  4. The designated diversion airfield weather state should be Amber 1 or better.
  5. All recoveries must be Instrument Flight Rules (IFR)
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20
Q

Order B:5
(Weather Criteria for Flying Training)

The weather colour state of Amber 1 indicates:

  1. _________________
  2. _________________
  3. _________________
  4. _________________
  5. _________________
A
  1. Flying training is permitted only if the designated diversion airfield weather state is Amber 1 or better with a serviceable runway approach aid.

** Specifically, when operating out of Pearce, Designated diversion airfield is Gingin or Perth International

  1. Gingin is the primary diversion airfield, provided recovery is Visual Flight Rules (VFR)
  2. Only Green rated aircrew are permitted to fly
  3. Upgrade Bingo Fuel is to be observed
  4. All departures and recoveries must be Instrument Flight Rules (IFR)
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21
Q

Order B:5
(Weather Criteria for Flying Training)

The weather colour state of Amber 2 and Red indicates:

  1. _________________
A
  1. No flying training is permitted
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22
Q

Order B:5
(Weather Criteria for Flying Training)

The Squadron Executive Officer (SXO) can collate and integrate the information from the following sources to aid in his decision making with regards to weather:

  1. ________________
  2. ________________
  3. ________________
A
  1. Pearce weather radar picture
  2. Aircrew report
  3. Weather Forecast
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23
Q

Order B:6
(Hot Weather Operations)

The following restrictions are to be adhered to when the temperature exceeds the following:

  1. _________________
  2. ________________
  3. ________________
A
  1. ≥ 36° C
    • No aircraft change (if aircraft is U/S after start)
    • No first solo flight (GF 16)
  2. ≥ 38° C
    • No trainee solo
  3. ≥ 40° C
    • No takeoff
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24
Q

Order B:7
(Strong Wind Operations)

When considering PC-2 operations in strong winds, authorising officer and aircraft captains should take into account the following factors:

  1. ________________
  2. ________________
  3. ________________
  4. ________________
  5. ________________
A
  1. The probability and degree of injury likely to be sustained from a parachute landing following ejections
  2. The sortie profile to be flown and the likelihood of flying a PFL as an alternative to ejection
  3. The experience level of the crew
  4. Nature of terrain
  5. Operational or training necessity
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25
Q

Order B:7
(Strong Wind Operations)

When the reported surface wind strength is _____________ or wind gust is _____________, flying operations will _________.

A
  1. Surface wind strength is ≥ 30 KTS

2. Wind gust is ≥ 35 KTS

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26
Q

Order B:8
(Circuit Flying Restrictions)

All aircrew are not to carry out _____________ consecutive circuits without a break.

Apart from touch and go, _______ or ________ also constitutes as one circuit. __________ or __________ approaches are not considered as a circuit.

A
  1. More than 3 consecutive circuits
  2. Go-around
  3. Overshoot
  4. Visual Straight-in
  5. Instrument
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27
Q

Order B:8
(Circuit Flying Restrictions)

On dual flights, the QFI may take control of the aircraft after the third circuit to give the trainee a break. The QFI has the option to _________, ____________ or ______________.

A
  1. Fly a circuit
  2. Carry out a practice rejoin
  3. Hand back the controls to the trainee prior to base turn
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28
Q

Order B:8
(Circuit Flying Restrictions)

The benefits of having a break in between circuits is as follows:

  1. _______________
  2. _______________
  3. _______________
  4. _______________
A
  1. Prevents mental fatigue
  2. Break the monotony
  3. Prevents task-saturations
  4. Allows constructive teaching after the pause
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29
Q

Order B:8
(Circuit Flying Restrictions)

Whenever ATC or the ATIS broadcast a bird hazard warning for the airfield, all aircrew are to comply with the following restrictions:

  1. _________________
  2. _________________
A
  1. No low level circuit training

2. Circuit training will be minimized

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30
Q

Order B:8
(Circuit Flying Restrictions)

________________ are conducted before tower becomes active and is usually carried out using a jeep/wagon by the tower controllers. During such time, the tower is not manned and _______________ procedures apply.

A
  1. Runway inspections

2. Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF)

31
Q

Order B:8
(Circuit Flying Restrictions)

During circuit training, the maximum number of practice “Stop and Go” exercise permitted is _____.

The Maximum number of RSAF solo trainees conducting circuit training is _____.

A
  1. Two

2. Two

32
Q

Order B:9
(Restrictions on Low Level Circuit Training)

Low level circuit training will be conducted at _________ for Day and at circling minima height for night as per ___________.

A
  1. 500ft AGL

2. RAAF PEARCE BSI (OPS)

33
Q

Order B:9
(Restrictions on Low Level Circuit Training)

Solo trainees are ___________ to practise Low Level Circuits for _______________.

A
  1. Not permitted

2. Low Level Circuits for both Day and Night.

34
Q

Order B:10
(PFL/Glide in Gusty Wind Conditions)

When making powered approaches in gusty conditions, the approach speed is _________________ to cater for wind shear.

A
  1. Approach Speed is increased by half gust factor to cater for wind shear.

** Any sudden drop in speed can be safely arrested and a go-around initiated if necessary. However, during flare stage in a PFL / GLIDE approach, speed decay may be adversely affected by wind shear.

35
Q

Order B:10
(PFL/Glide in Gusty Wind Conditions)

Aircrew are therefore not to conduct PFL / GLIDE touch-and-go or landings when the gust factors exceeds ________ knots. _________ are, however permitted in such conditions.

A
  1. 10 Knots

2. Overshoots

36
Q

Order B:10
(PFL/Glide in Gusty Wind Conditions)

When the gust factor is ____________, aircrew are to exercise caution and discretion when carrying out PFL / GLIDE touch and go

A
  1. 10 Knots or less
37
Q

Order B:11
(Restrictions on number of aircraft joining the PFL pattern)

Pearce and Gingin Circuit Area (CIRAs) are from _______ to _________. Above this height, there is no regulated pattern to fly.

A
  1. Surface
  2. 3,500 ft AMSL

** The onus is on the aircrew to see and avoid above the Pearce/Gingin CIRA vertical limit of 3,500ft AMSL.

38
Q

Order B:11
(Restrictions on number of aircraft joining the PFL pattern)

In order to reduce risk, PC-21 aircraft shall adhere to the following procedures:

PC-21 aircraft in the circuit area will not climb up and join the PFL pattern when there are already ________ aircraft tracking for or in the PFL pattern.

A
  1. 2 or more

** In addition, PC-21 aircraft leaving the circuit area and tracking for PFL are to track on wide downwind and stay clear of the PFL pattern until ready to commence the PFL.

39
Q

Order B:11
(Restrictions on number of aircraft joining the PFL pattern)

In order to reduce risk, PC-21 aircraft shall adhere to the following procedures:

Aircraft recovering from the area for ________ PFL can continue with their PFL when there are already 2 or more aircraft in the pattern. But they shall proceed with the PFL only after having _____________ and ___________.

A
  1. High level PFL
  2. Identified all the other traffic
  3. When there is no flight path conflict

** If a conflict is envisaged, the aircraft is to hold-off at altitude until it is safe for further descent.

40
Q

Order B:11
(Restrictions on number of aircraft joining the PFL pattern)

In order to reduce risk, PC-21 aircraft shall adhere to the following procedures:

All solo trainees in the circuit area will not climb _________ to join the high level PFL pattern. In addition, at any one time, only ____ solo trainee is permitted to track for High Key.

A
  1. Above 3,500 Ft AMSL
  2. One

** The second solo trainee can only track for High Key after the first solo trainee has successfully departed High Key for Low Key.

41
Q

Order B:11
(Restrictions on number of aircraft joining the PFL pattern)

In order to reduce risk, PC-21 aircraft shall adhere to the following procedures:

Aircrew tracking for high level PFL into Gingin will not descend below __________ when they do not have the Gingin Non-Directional Beacon(NDB) traffic sighted.

A
  1. 5,000 Ft AMSL

** 7,000 Ft AMSL for NDB Hi

** In order to continue descending, the aircrew must maintain sight of the NDB traffic.

42
Q

Order B:11
(Restrictions on number of aircraft joining the PFL pattern)

Aircrew should not hesitate to request for traffic information from _______ if they are unable to positively identify all traffic.

A
  1. Air Traffic Control (ATC)
43
Q

Order B:12
(Landing on the lane runway)

The parallel lane runway at Pearce is ____ and ____.

A
  1. 18R

2. 36L

44
Q

Order B:12
(Landing on the lane runway)

Land runway 18R/36L at Pearce is primarily for __________ operations. For normal routine training, __________ are not to be carried out on the lane runway due to its narrower width (100ft)

A
  1. Touch-and-go Operations

2. Full-stop landings

45
Q

Order B:12
(Landing on the lane runway)

Aircrew may land on the lane runway during day flying when all other runways at Pearce are ________ or _________ for landing.

A
  1. Unavailable

2. Unfavourable

46
Q

Order B:12
(Landing on the lane runway)

Solo Trainees should always land on the ___________. If both the primary runways at Pearce are unfavourable, solo trainees will divert to ________.

A
  1. Primary runway

2. Gingin

47
Q

Order B:13
(Minimum Ejection Altitude)

Uncontrolled Ejection

In the event that the aircraft becomes uncontrollable and is unable to recover e.g. Spin, the minimum height to eject will be __________.

A
  1. 5,000 ft AGL
48
Q

Order B:13
(Minimum Ejection Altitude)

Controlled Ejection

In the event that the aircraft is unable to land but is deemed controllable, the minimum height for ejection is ____________.

A
  1. Ideally at or above 2,000 ft AGL

** An attempt should be made to track to the pre-meditated ejection area, if possible. Refer to the CSUPEA SI-OPS for the pre-meditated ejection area.

49
Q

Order B:13
(Minimum Ejection Altitude)

Engine Flameout/PFL

A decision height of ___________ must be observed to go around or eject if the aircraft cannot be recovered.

A
  1. 600 ft AGL
50
Q

Order B:14
(Parking Brakes not holding)

The following procedures are to be carried out in the event that the aircraft is observed to creep forward with parking brakes applied:

  1. _______________________
  2. _______________________
  3. _______________________
A
  1. Re-apply the brakes to preclude the possibility of improper brake application
  2. If normal operation of brakes is observed, the sortie is permitted to continue
  3. However, if the aircraft continues to creep forward after re-application of the brakes, the sortie will be terminated.
51
Q

Order B:15
(Operations with Runway Barrier Net Raised)

Due to Hawk operations, there will be instances where the barrier nets at Pearce / Gingin will be raised.

PC-21 shall ___________________ on the runway when either the approach end or departure end runway barrier net is raised.

A
  1. Shall not conduct any operations.
52
Q

Order B:16
(Hybrid Mode Error)

Hybrid Mode error can be verified on the _____________ page after start and the illumination of the _____________ caption on the MFD.

A
  1. MFD NAV STS

2. CHECK NAV

53
Q

Order B:16
(Hybrid Mode Error)

On ground, when a Hybrid Mode error occurs:

  1. ___________________________________
  2. ___________________________________
  3. ___________________________________
  4. ___________________________________
A
  1. Due to INS, aircrew are to taxi back (if out of weather shed) and shut down the aircraft.
  2. Due to GPS, aircrew are to continue taxi to ORP/holding point and monitor the status
  3. If Hybrid Mode is successfully recovered, aircrew are to proceed with the mission.
  4. If Hybrid Mode is not recovered after reaching the ORP/holding point aircrew are to taxi back and shut down. Aircrew are required to note the number of acquired satellites on the FMS for ground debrief of the problem.

** Aircrew are to take note of the degraded operations of the Flight Path Marker (FPM) on the HUD when Hybrid mode is not available.

54
Q

Order B:16
(Hybrid Mode Error)

In-flight, when a Hybrid Mode error occurs:

  1. ___________________________________
  2. ___________________________________
A
  1. Due to INS, aircrew are to select GPS source and RTB
  2. Due to GPS, aircrew are to selet INS source and continue the sortie.

** Aircrew are to take note of the degraded operations of the Flight Path Marker (FPM) on the HUD when Hybrid mode is not available.

55
Q

Order B:17
(Transient Generator Alerts on Engine Start)

Transient GEN 1 or GEN 2 cautions and /or GENS warnings triggered during engine start should not prevent continued operation of the aircraft provided that:

  1. ___________________________________
  2. ___________________________________
  3. ___________________________________
A
  1. Any triggered generator alerts self cancels by the time the engine start cycle has completed and the engine has reached a steady state idle condition
  2. All electrical system indications are normal and show the system to be functioning correctly
  3. No generator alerts are triggered at any time during normal operations other than during the start cycle

** No specific aircrew action is required where any transient GEN 1 caution, GEN 2 caution or GENS warning alerts are present under the conditions defined in above.

56
Q

Order B:17
(Transient Generator Alerts on Engine Start)

Aircrew actions resulting from GEN 1 caution, GEN 2 caution, GENS warning alerts seen outside the specific conditions should be carried out in accordance with the _________________________.

A
  1. Relevant AFM entry
57
Q

Order B:18
(Transient Gas Generator (Ng) Alerts During Start)

The engine and aircraft remains serviceable following a transient Ng caption during the start provided the following conditions are met:

  1. __________________________________
  2. __________________________________
  3. __________________________________
  4. __________________________________
  5. __________________________________
A
  1. The alert is presented when the engine Ng is in the range 48% to 51% Ng during a normal start cycle
  2. The Ng alert is transient in nature
  3. The Ng alert appears only once during each start cycle
  4. There are no other engine captions or alerts during or following the engine start cycle.
  5. All engine parameters (including Ng) stabilise within their normal operating limits following completion of the start cycle.

** Pilatus confirms that operation of the aircraft can continue where the above conditions are met.

** Aircrew should report the Ng alert to Pilatus when returning the aircraft on completion of the sortie.

58
Q

Order B:19
(Propeller Erosion Tape - Limits)

The BWC PC-21 fleet uses a layer of _________________ on the de-ice boots to prevent long term wear due to FOD, sand etc.

A
  1. Sacrificial Erosion Tape
59
Q

Order B:19
(Propeller Erosion Tape - Limits)

This erosion tape is _____________ for operations and its __________________ does not affect or limit the operation of the aircraft.

A
  1. Not mandatory for operations
  2. Absence (either partially or fully from one or more propeller blades)

** It will not affect the balance of the propeller and operations can be continued with erosion tape missing (either partially or fully) from one or more blades for the remainder of the day.

60
Q

Order B:19
(Propeller Erosion Tape - Limits)

If the erosion tape is discovered to be damaged, it should be replaced ______________. If the erosion tape cannot be replaced immediately, any damaged or loose sections of the erosion tape will be removed prior to the next flight.

A
  1. When practical
61
Q

B:20
(MDR Map Drop Out and Storage Caption)

In the event of an MDR related malfunction (Map drop out / MDR Storage advisory caption) on the ground, the aircrew can carry out the following actions:

  1. _____________________
  2. _____________________
  3. _____________________
A
  1. Recycle power to the MC (only on ground)
    • Move the MC/HUD switch to OFF position for 2 seconds.
    • Switch the MC/HUD switch to MC or MC/HUD position.
  2. If the map remains unavailable, INT must be available to continue the sortie.
  3. If the “MDR Storage” Caption persists, abort the sortie.
62
Q

B:20
(MDR Map Drop Out and Storage Caption)

In the event of an MDR related malfunction (Map drop out / MDR Storage advisory caption) in the air, the aircrew can carry out the following actions:

  1. _____________________
  2. _____________________
A
  1. If the map drops out, INT must be available to continue the sortie.
  2. If the “MDR Storage” caption apears in-flight, the flight can be continued
63
Q

Order B:21
(Communications System Reset Procedures)

The reset procedures can only be attempted __________. If reset is to no avail, aircrew is to snag the respective aircraft immediately.

A
  1. Once
64
Q

Order B:21
(Communications System Reset Procedures)

The reset guidelines are applicable to the following system symptoms only:

  1. _____________________
  2. _____________________
  3. _____________________
A
  1. FMS Loss of Control indications for V/UHF Comms 1, V/UHF Comms 2 or both
  2. Amber FMS frequency indications for V/UHF Comms 1, V/UHF Comms 2 or both
  3. Loss of side tone on selection of PTT for V/UHF Comms 1, V/UHF Comms 2 or both

** All other abnormal symptoms and indications should continue to be treated in accordance with the established procedures.

65
Q

Order B:21
(Communications System Reset Procedures)

Reset Procedure (Pre-start Reset Procedure):

  1. _____________________
  2. _____________________
  3. _____________________
  4. _____________________
  5. _____________________
A
  1. Select the OSMC Master Switch to OFF (if the OSMC is switched ON when the sympton occurs)
  2. Select Battery 1 and 2 to OFF
  3. Instruct the ground crew to remove Ground Power (If connected)
  4. Carry out the Pre-Engine Start Checks
  5. Confirm that the applicable system syptom is no longer present:
    • If the symptom has cleared > continue aircraft operation as per the AFM
    • If the symptom is still present > lodge an aircraft problem report.
66
Q

Order B:21
(Communications System Reset Procedures)

Reset Procedure (Post Start Reset Procedure):

  1. _____________________
  2. _____________________
  3. _____________________
  4. _____________________
  5. _____________________
A
  1. Shut down the aircraft in accordance with the Shutdown Checks Step 1 to 11 inclusive.
  2. Select Battery 1 and 2 to OFF
  3. Instruct the ground crew to remove Ground Power (if connected)
  4. Carry out the Pre-engine start checks in accordance with Pre-Engine Starting Checks
  5. Confirm that the applicable system symptom is no longer present:
    • If the symptom has cleared > continue aircraft operation as per the AFM
    • If the symptom is still present > lodge an aircraft problem report.
67
Q

Order B:22
(Non-usage of PC-21 Aircraft loaded electronic checklists)

The _______________ is deemed not suitable for operations due to the different grouping from the Aircraft Flight Manual.

A
  1. Electronic Checklists
68
Q

Order B:22
(Non-usage of PC-21 Aircraft loaded electronic checklists)

The purpose of this instruction is to advise all aircrew not to use the _____________ that are not loaded into the aircraft avionic system.

A
  1. Electronic Checklists
69
Q

Order C:1
(Visual Inspection for Exceeding Aircraft Structural Limits)

Any aircraft exceeding the structural limits shall __________________.

A
  1. Immediately terminate the manoeuvres
70
Q

A visual inspection is required prior to recovery to base for the following conditions:

  1. _____________________
  2. _____________________
A
  1. If the structural “G” limit is exceeded

2. Whenever the aircraft or services speed limits are exceeded.

71
Q

Order C:1
(Visual Inspection for Exceeding Aircraft Structural Limits)

A ______________ must be carried out by another RSAF aircraft. If ______________ reveals signs of damage, a/c controllability check must be carried out to ascertain aircraft controllability.

A
  1. Visual Inspection
  2. Visual Inspection

** In the event that no RSAF aircraft is airborne, the visual inspection may be omitted, However, a controllability check must then be carried out.

72
Q

Order C:2
(Engine Failure within ATZ)

Listed below are the actions to be taken for engine failure within the circuit area:

Engine Failure after take-off (Landing Gear Down):

  1. _____________________________
A
  1. If deemed safe, a land back may be attempted (QFI only). Otherwise eject
73
Q

Order C:2
(Engine Failure within ATZ)

Listed below are the actions to be taken for engine failure within the circuit area:

Engine Failure after take-off (Landing Gear Up):

  1. _____________________________
  2. _____________________________
  3. _____________________________
  4. _____________________________
A
  1. Convert excess speed to height
  2. Less than 600 ft AGL, ejection should be considered
  3. More than 600 ft AGL, a relight may be attempted. If assessed that usable thrust is not achieved by 600 ft AGL, ejection should be considered.
  4. If turn back parameters are met, a turn back (QFI only) or a track to a suitable key position may be attempted.
74
Q

Order D:1
(List of Operations Support Publications OSPs)

The list of OSPs are shown below:

  1. _____________________________
  2. _____________________________
  3. _____________________________
  4. _____________________________
  5. _____________________________
  6. _____________________________
A
  1. Air Force Training Command Management Manual (AFTC MM)
  2. Detachment Management Manual (DMM)
  3. Standards Squadron Management Manual (STDS-SMM)
  4. Standard Operating Procedures (SOP)
  5. PC-21 Student Study Guide (SSG)
  6. Instructor Guide (IG)

General PC-21 Information (4 decks)

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