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PC Flashcards

1
Q

What is the form number for the PC Designation?

A

4790/158

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2
Q

What is the A-Sheet form number?

A

4790/141

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3
Q

What is the Daily/Turnaround form number?

A

4790/38

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4
Q

What is annotated on the A-Sheet?

A

Crew and Passenger Oxygen
Fuel Quantity
Fuel Grade
PCMCIA Card Serial Number
Oils Added

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5
Q

How do you annotate a discrepancy on the Daily/Turnaround?

A

Write MCN for the MAF on the appropriate task card

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6
Q

What is the ADB?

A

Aircraft Discrepancy Binder
It’s a running, physical record for maintenance on a specific aircraft

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7
Q

How do you annotate oils of they were serviced the day before competing a DTA?

A

A-Sheet: Previously Serviced: ENG 1: X FL OZ, ENG 2: X FL OZ

Turnaround: Previously Serviced: X FL OZ

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8
Q

What does signing the A-Sheet imply?

A

That the PC has personally inspected the aircraft in accordance with applicable technical publications and had correctly documented all discrepancies and needed information.

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9
Q

What publication governs refueling and fuel samples?

A

00-80T-109

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10
Q

What publication governs ground towing procedures?

A

00-80T-96

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11
Q

What can be found in the ADB ?

A

Oil Service History
Fuel Sample History
A-Sheet
Daily/Turnaround Completion Time
Status of Aircraft Systems
Last 10 Flights
Aircraft Safe For Flight Status
PCMCIA Cards

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12
Q

Where can the procedures for the Daily/Turnaround inspections be found?

A

IETMS Ch 5
4790.2D Ch 10

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13
Q

How long does a Daily Inspection last for?

A

72 hours
24 Hours if the aircraft experiences weight off wheels or maintenance other than servicing has been performed

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14
Q

How long does a Turnaround Inspection last for?

A

24 hours unless the Daily would expire before the 24 hour period ends

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15
Q

How often is an aircraft washed?

A

Every 90 days

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16
Q

What is your primary job as a Plane Captain?

A

Safe handling of aircraft

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17
Q

What are the dimensions of the P-8A?

A

Height: 42’ 6”
Length: 129’ 6”
Wingspan: 123’ 6”

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18
Q

What does SPDS CDU stand for?

A

Secondary Power Distribution System Control Display Unit

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19
Q

What does BRU stand for?

A

Bomb Rack Unit

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20
Q

How many BRU stations and where are they located?

A

11
1 & 2 on Port Wing
3 & 4 on Belly
5-9 in the Weapons Bay
10 & 11 on Stbd Wing

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21
Q

How many static wicks are there on the P-8A? AAS configured?

A

19
23

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22
Q

How many portable fire extinguishers are there?

A

6

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23
Q

How many oxygen bottles are there?

A

6
5 full & 1 small in lav

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24
Q

How many life rafts are there?

A

2

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25
Q

What is the minimum number of LPUs required for flight?

A

12

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26
Q

How many first aid kits are there?

A

2

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27
Q

What are the limitations for Crew and Passenger oxygen?

A

Limitations are based on a chart that tracks the acceptable O2 pressures based on current outside air temperature.

1450-1800 are generally acceptable pressures.

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28
Q

Where can you find the OAT/TAT?

A

MCDU in the flight station

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29
Q

List the Pins on the P-8A

A

Nose Landing Gear Lockout
Nose Wheel Steering
ALE-47
Main Landing Gear Lockouts
Thrust Reversers
Weapons Bay Lockout
Aft Egress Door
Fwd/Aft Uplock Pins (AAS)

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30
Q

What does PCMCIA stand for?

A

Personal Computer Memory Card International Association

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31
Q

How long does it take for the PCMCIA take to initialize?

A

3-5 mins

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32
Q

Where is the PCMCIA installed?

A

MFDAU (Multi-Functional Data Acquisition Unit)

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33
Q

What are the three lights of the MFDAU?

A

FDAU Fail
FDAU Caution
DFDR Fail

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34
Q

Where is the MFDAU located?

A

Aft side of the E/E Bay

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35
Q

When do you change the PCMCIA Card?

A

After each flight

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36
Q

What six conditions do you check on the internal recorder status page?

A

Media Installed - YES
RCDR Ready - YES
Write Enable - YES
Media Low - NO
Media Full - NO
Write Fail - NO

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37
Q

What is located on the P19 panel? Where is it located?

A

External Power Receptacle
Internal Communication System (ICS) ports and nose landing gear light switch
Below the Stbd flight deck window

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38
Q

What lights are required for flight?

A

Emergency
Position
Anti-Collision
Strobe

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39
Q

Do all aircraft have nose taxi lights or retractable landing lights?

A

No, only 168 models

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40
Q

What lights are on when radar is operating?

A

Anti-Collision

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41
Q

What is the frequency to Base? Ground?

A

Base: 313.800
Ground: 275.800

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42
Q

Can you use radios without media?

A

Yes

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43
Q

How many Bose/Telex headsets are on the P-8A?

A

Bose: 12
Telex: 2

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44
Q

What is the procedure for an APU fire during refueling?

A

Stop fuel flow, disconnect fuel line, deploy the Apu fire bottle from the main wheel well, evacuate all personnel aboard the aircraft, and notified maintenance control to call for emergency services

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45
Q

What is the procedure for an APU fire while aboard the aircraft?

A

Enter the flight station and pull the APU fire handle upward and twist in either direction until it stops or hold until the “FIRE BOTTLE DISCHARGED” light illuminates. Move the APU master switch to the OFF position then move the battery switch to the OFF position. Ensure all personnel are evacuated from the aircraft and notify maintenance control to call for emergency services.

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46
Q

Where are the deployment mechanisms for the APU fire bottle?

A
  1. Center console in the flight station
  2. Starboard aft bulkhead of the main landing gear wheel well
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47
Q

What is the procedure for hot brakes during aircraft recovery?

A

Indicate hot breaks to the pilot using the appropriate hand signal and taxi the aircraft back to the taxiway, then notify maintenance control

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48
Q

What is the procedure for tow bar separation during a plane move?

A

Pushing: move director will blow their horn two times, the driver will come to a complete stop and the brake Rider will apply brakes when given the signal to do so from the move director.

Pulling: move director will blow their horn two times, and the driver will pull off at a 45° angle until they are clear of the aircraft’s path, and the brake rider will apply brakes when given the signal to do so from the move director

Wing/Chock Walkers: will attempt to position chocks in the path of the wheels in an attempt to stop a runaway aircraft. While doing so they must be cautious and avoid the path of any part of the aircraft that poses a danger to ground personnel

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49
Q

What is the appropriate procedure for the APU INOP light failing to illuminate during APU startup

A

Cease to start up procedure and notify maintenance control

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50
Q

Where is the AED?

A
  1. Maintenance Control
  2. Duty Office
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51
Q

Where is the fuel spill kit?

A

In the hangar

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52
Q

Where is the battery spill kit?

A

In the hanger in front of the AE shop

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53
Q

Where is the emergency tire deflator kit?

A

In the hangar between the frame/mech shop

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54
Q

What is the procedure for entering T1 during a plane move?

A

Stop the evolution in a safe area and have all ground personnel board the aircraft until the condition is lifted

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55
Q

What is the procedure when you were directing an aircraft in the pilot is not following your instructions?

A

Signal to the pilot to stop and notify maintenance control to make contact with the aircraft to establish communications

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56
Q

What do you do in the case of an engine fire during startup?

A

Signal for the pilot to shut down the affected engine and notify the pilot of a fire using the proper hand signals. Then notify maintenance control to contact emergency services

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57
Q

What are the procedures for a fuel spill or active fuel leak on an aircraft?

A

Secure engines, if applicable, and notify maintenance control and follow proper fuels field procedures

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58
Q

What is the proper procedure when encountering a taxiing aircraft during a move?

A

Halt the evolution where the towed aircraft is not obstructing the taxiway and allow the taxiing aircraft to pass, then resume towing as normal

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59
Q

If you are launching the aircraft and see lightning in your vicinity what do you do?

A

Pass the command to the PPC, and go inside and notify maintenance control of the situation

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60
Q

What publication governs hand signals?

A

00-80T-113

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61
Q

What is the major difference when giving hand signals to pilots versus ground crew?

A

Pilot: hand signals are given above the shoulders and head

Ground: hand signals are given at or below the waist

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62
Q

Demonstrate the following hand signals:

A

Fire (Engine 1, Engine 2, APU)
Smoke
Fluid Leak
Brakes on/off
Chocks in/out
Ladder up/down
Emergency Stop
Speed Up/Slow Down
Hot Brakes
Ground Power Connect/Disconnect
Huffer Connect/Disconnect
Cut Engine
I Have Control
Pass Command
Apply/Secure Hydraulic Power
Raise Lower Flaps
Moving Flight Controls

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63
Q

Where can you find information about Wing Walker/Brake Rider?

A

00-80T-96

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64
Q

What is the minimum number of qualified individuals required to perform an aircraft move according to publication 00-80-T96?

A

6

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65
Q

How many qualified individuals are required to perform an aircraft move in accordance with the VP-4 standard operating procedures?

A

With brakes - 9
Without brakes - 11

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66
Q

What is required to move an aircraft without brakes?

A

Chock Walkers

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67
Q

Name all the positions required for a move

A

Director, senior observer, QA representative, driver, brake rider, two wing walkers, and two tail walkers

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68
Q

What must be performed before and after every move?

A

Brief/Debrief

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69
Q

What is the brake pre-charge?

A

1000 psi

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70
Q

What is the minimum brake pressure required to move an aircraft without chock walkers?

A

3000 (±150) psi

71
Q

How many brake applications are expected from a charge of 3,000 PSI?

A

6-8

72
Q

What must be installed prior to a move?

A

Landing gear lockout pins, nose wheel steering lockout pin

73
Q

What is locked out by installing the nose wheel steering lockout pin?

A

Nose wheel hydraulics

74
Q

Why is it necessary to lock out the nose wheel steering?

A

It prevents damage to the nose Landing gear, towing equipment and ground personnel by removing movement of the nose landing gear under its own power

75
Q

What is the maximum turning radius of the P-8A aircraft?

A

78°

76
Q

What is required to turn up to 90°?

A

Disconnect the torsion link

77
Q

What is required to turn past 90°?

A

Disconnect the nose taxi light wire

78
Q

How is the nose wheel turning radius indicated?

A

Red lines on the nose landing gear door

79
Q

How fast can an aircraft be towed?

A

5 mph or as fast as the slowest wing or tailwalker

80
Q

Why do we tow the aircraft 10 ft in a straight line after turning?

A

To align and relieve tension on the torsion links

81
Q

What happens if one horn blows?

A

All horns blow

82
Q

What happens in the event of a tow bar separation?

A

The move director will give two short horn blasts

83
Q

What is the responsibility of move personnel?

A

Director: takes full responsibility for the aircraft and personnel during the evolution.

Wing/Tail Walkers: ensure a clear route of movement and remains ready to use signaling devices to stop the evolution when necessary

Driver: pre-operational inspection of the tow tractor and tow bar as well as following instructions from the move director as closely as possible while operating the tow tractor

Brake Rider: pre-movement inspection of the aircraft and its systems for functionality. Possible use of APU or ground power to charge brakes

Chock Walkers: removal and installment of chocks and safe placement of chocks in the event of a runaway aircraft

84
Q

Why should you not apply brakes in cold weather?

A

Application of the brakes may cause o-rings to shrink and leak brake fluid

85
Q

What type of hydraulic fluid is used on the p-8a aircraft?

A

Skydrol

86
Q

Who must be present for hydraulic systems to be operated?

A

The operator and a safety observer

87
Q

What are these individuals looking for before hydraulic systems can be powered on or operated?

A

Operator: flap positions/weapons bay door switches are in agreement with their current positions and good hydraulic pressure

Safety Observer: flight services and equipment are clear of ground personnel and obstructions

88
Q

What are the three hydraulic systems?

A

A, B, and standby

89
Q

Where is the break accumulator located?

A

Starboard aft bulkhead of the main landing gear wheel well

90
Q

What systems are operated by hydraulic power?

A

Flight controls, autopilot, nose wheel steering, brakes, landing gear extension and retraction, weapons Bay doors, thrust reversers, power transfer unit (PTU)

91
Q

What are the hydraulic limits on the flight station CDU?

A

76-101%

92
Q

What are the hydraulic limits on the flight station CDU for AAS configured aircraft?

A

90-96%

93
Q

What are the servicing limits for hydraulic system?

A

Must be over 76% (refill level)

94
Q

Can you drop flaps with a thousand pounds of fuel in each main tank? Why or why not?

A

No, the minimum amount of fuel required in each main tank is 1,675 lb to properly cool the hydraulic systems

95
Q

How do you properly open the weapons Bay doors?

A

Use a safety Observer

96
Q

How many degrees do the flaps extend to?

A

40°

97
Q

What type of Apu is found on the P-8A aircraft?

A

Allied Signal 131-9(B) gas turbine engine

98
Q

Where is the APU located?

A

A fireproof compartment in the tail

99
Q

What two types of power does the APU provide?

A

Electrical and Pneumatic

100
Q

How many fire bottles does the APU have?

A

One

101
Q

Where is the APU fire bottle located?

A

The horizontal stabilizer accessory compartment

102
Q

What is the purpose of the DC boost pump?

A

Supplies fuel to the APU using standby power during startup

103
Q

What is required before startup of the APU?

A

The operator must check the ADB for power status, operator must do a walk around to inspect the current conditions of aircraft tie-downs, APU intake and exhaust and ram air intakes

104
Q

During the Apu start cycle the APU EGT indication May fluctuate between what temperature prior to normal EGT rise?

A

0-1100°C

105
Q

What conditions cause the APU to shut itself down?

A

Overspeed (106%), APU compartment fire, low oil

106
Q

How can you check APU oil levels?

A

CDU, sightglass on the APU

107
Q

What are the APU oil readings?

A

Full - 5.7qts
Add - 4.3qts
Low - 3.8qts

108
Q

What type of oil is used for the APU?

A

MIL-PRF-23699 (Mobil Jet II)

109
Q

What controls and monitors the APU?

A

Electronic control unit (ECU)

110
Q

What information about the APU can be found in the ADB?

A

Type of APU, maintenance done to the unit

111
Q

What occurs when the batteries which is moved to the OFF position during APU operation?

A

The APU will immediately shut down and the APU fault light will illuminate

112
Q

What type of engines?

A

CFM56-7B turbofan engines

113
Q

What are the inlet hazard areas for the engines?

A

10 ft forward and 4 ft aft of the inlet

114
Q

What type of oil is used to service the engines?

A

MIL-PRF-23699 (Mobil Jet II)

115
Q

What time frame can you get an accurate oil service reading?

A

5 to 30 minutes after engine shut down

116
Q

When do you stop servicing engine oil?

A

When the lower fill mark on the servicing gauge is reached

117
Q

When do we not service oils?

A

Outside of the 5 to 30 minute time frame after engine shutdown, and during Hot seat events

118
Q

What is required to be locked out prior to opening engine cowling doors during a daily inspection?

A

Leading edge flaps, and stand by hydraulics

119
Q

What does IDG stand for? And what is its purpose?

A

Integrated Drive Generator, provides electrical power during flight

120
Q

What type of landing gear?

A

Tricycle type with air/oil shock struts

121
Q

When do tires need to be replaced?

A

White cord, bulging, gouging, flat spots, tread worn beyond limits, soft spots, large chunks missing, damage to sidewall

122
Q

What are the brakes made of?

A

Carbon fiber

123
Q

How do you identify worn breaks?

A

The breakwear indicators are flush with their housing when brakes are set

124
Q

What is the purpose of a brake retention cable?

A

Holds the brakes on the mains together

125
Q

How many shimmy dampers are located on the aircraft?

A

Two, one on each main. The nose wheel steering system acts as a shimmy damper for the nose landing gear

126
Q

What is the purpose of the thermal fuse plug?

A

Releases pressure to prevent a tire from exploding due to overpressure

127
Q

What is the purpose of the frangible fitting?

A

It breaks off when struck by damaged Wheels in order to prevent the landing gear from retracting and causing damage to components within the main landing gear wheel well

128
Q

What are the servicing limits for the tires?

A

Nose: 208 (±5)
Mains: 224 (±5)

129
Q

How long should you wait to check the tire pressure after an aircraft lands?

A

2 hours

130
Q

When is it recommended to wipe struts?

A

During a Daily inspection

131
Q

What is the MSDS?

A

Material safety data sheet.

132
Q

What PPE is required when handling fuel?

A

Splash proof goggles, chemical resistant gloves, chemical resistant apron, long sleeves, cranial, steel toe boots

133
Q

When are fuel samples required?

A

24 hours before an aircraft’s initial launch

134
Q

How long do fuel samples last for?

A

24 hours

135
Q

What is required prior to taking fuel samples or handling any hazmat?

A

Read the SDS

136
Q

How long should you wait to take fuel samples after the aircraft has moved or fueled? Why?

A

2 hours to allow contaminants to settle to the bottom so an accurate sample can be taken

137
Q

What contaminants may be present in fuel?

A

Discoloration, microbial growth, water, particulate matter, dye, emulsions

138
Q

What procedure should you follow upon finding a fuel sample containing contaminants?

A

If contaminants are present, retain the sample, drain 5 gallons of fuel into a suitable container and take a second sample. If contaminants are found in the second sample, retain it and immediately notify maintenance control. Then bring both retained samples to QA for inspection.

If the first sample contains microbial contaminants or die, retain the sample and immediately notify maintenance control. Then bring the retained sample to QA for inspection

139
Q

Who can inspect fuel samples?

A

Naval Air crewman designated by the co per NATOPS evaluation report 3710/7, or the Line Supervisor, or a CDI, cdqar, or qar

140
Q

Is APU or external power required to take fuel samples? Why or why not

A

Yes, hydraulic power is required to open the weapons Bay, and power is needed for the forward tank group

141
Q

What materials are required to clean a fuel sample kit?

A

Alconox, lint frees, water

142
Q

How many fuel low point drains are there on the aircraft? How many do we take samples from?

A

Six low point drains and two surge tank drains. We do not take from the surge tanks

143
Q

What is the 3% limit during fueling?

A

To air to fuel ratio to allow expansion based on temperature differences

144
Q

Can you fuel the aircraft on battery power only and if so what are the limitations?

A

Yes, but the plane must be in ground fueling mode within 5 minutes of turning on the system otherwise the SPDS will automatically shut off the system

A fully charged battery will give sufficient power to fuel for 15 minutes while retaining enough charge to start the APU

Only mains 1,2 and center can be filled

145
Q

What is the ratio forward to aft when fueling?

A

1/3 forward to 2/3 aft

146
Q

How do you fuel an AAS configured aircraft?

A

Fuel mains one and two as well as the center tanks to capacity. Then fill the aft tanks to capacity, finally filling the forward tanks as instructed by maintenance control

147
Q

How many fuel tanks are there on the aircraft?

A

10

148
Q

How many tank groups are there on the aircraft? How are they divided?

A

6:
Main 1, Main 2, Center (3), Fwd (4,5,6), Mid (7,8,9), Aft Integral (10)

149
Q

What must you insure about the hose before refueling operations can begin?

A

Make sure the hose is securely connected and it is not under tension

150
Q

What is the proper PSI for refueling?

A

33 to 55 PSI

151
Q

Which tanks must be full before filling the forward and aft tanks?

A

Main one, main two, and Center

152
Q

Can you start the Apu during refueling operations?

A

Yes

153
Q

Can you retry the APU start sequence during refueling operations if the initial startup failed?

A

No

154
Q

What is the purpose of the surge tanks?

A

To collect fuel overflow from main tanks one and two

155
Q

What happens if the fuel level is too high in the surge tanks?

A

Fuel will drain out of the vent scoop

156
Q

How many fuel boost pumps are there on the aircraft?

A

There are six AC boost bumps and one DC boost pump

157
Q

Where are the boost pumps located?

A

Two for each main tank, two for the center tank, and the DC pump is connected to main one

158
Q

How do you transfer fuel using the boost pumps?

A

Move the defueling valve to the open position,
turn on the boost pumps in the tank you want to remove fuel from,
open the cross feed valve,
move the refueling valve switch to the open position for the tank you want to move fuel into,
after fuel transfer turn the boost pumps off,
close the cross feed valve,
return the defueling valve to the closed position

159
Q

Where do you find information about fuel samples?

A

01-1A-35
00-80T-109
IETMS CH12
NAMP CH10

160
Q

What type of fuel are used on the aircraft and what are their NATO codes?

A

JP-5 // F-44
JP-8 // F-34
JET A // F-30
JET A1 // F-35

161
Q

What does OBIGGS stand for? And what is its purpose?

A

Onboard inert gas generating system. Provides nitrogen enriched air to the center, wings and auxiliary fuel tanks to protect against ballistic threats

162
Q

Safe distance for fueling refueling adjacent aircraft or APU?

A

50ft

163
Q

Safe distance for fueling refueling fuel service equipment?

A

10 ft

164
Q

Safe distance is for fueling refueling ground power units?

A

20 ft

165
Q

Safe distance for fueling refueling aircraft servicing equipment?

A

10 ft

166
Q

Safe distance for fueling refueling electrical equipment that can cause Sparks or arcs?

A

50 ft

167
Q

Safe distance for fueling or refueling photographic equipment?

A

10 ft

168
Q

Safe distance for fueling or defueling battery powered equipment?

A

10 ft

169
Q

Safe distances for fueling or defueling open flames, heat sources smoking material or any other ignition source?

A

50 ft

170
Q

What is a Plane Captain’s main focus in relation to corrosion?

A

To spot and identify bare metal and write MAFs to prevent corrosion from taking place. If corrosion has already started, it needs to be identified and written up so it can be treated as soon as possible.

171
Q

What is a CP MAF? When is it used? How is it identified?

A

Corrosion prevention, used when bare metal is exposed but no corrosion has started to form and can be identified by a shiny metallic surface

172
Q

What is a CT MAF? When is it used? How is it identified?

A

Corrosion treatment, used when any type of corrosion has formed on a surface and can be identified by dull, white or reddish colors.

173
Q

When is the drop dead date for CP/CT MAFs?

A

28 days out to include the day the MAF was written

PC (1 decks)

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