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Confinement DPE > Patrol DPE > Flashcards

Patrol DPE Flashcards

1
Q

If pursuit or emergency driving above the speed limit is determined to be necessary, what factors must be considered?

A

Degree of danger to the public, weather and road conditions, pursuit vehicle characteristics, present and potential vehicle and pedestrian traffic, present and potential roadway obstacle, experience/training of the pursuit vehicle operator, dangerous or potential dangerous intersections along the route, facilities located along the pursuit route (schools, hospital, shopping centers), reason for the pursuit

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2
Q

What respond code is used to respond to alarm activations?

A

Code 2

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3
Q

At the AFRL if a test area light in inoperable, off, and no warning flag or sign exists, how will you treat the test area?

A

Treat the test area as AMBER

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4
Q

At the AFRL, what does a GREEN test area light mean?

A

Indicates the area is free of hazardous operations or materials

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5
Q

At the AFRL, what does a AMBER test area light mean?

A

Indicates a hazardous condition exists

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6
Q

At the AFRL, what does a RED test area light mean?

A

Indicates a highly hazardous condition or operations is occurring in the test area

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7
Q

At the AFRL, if entry into a test area marked with a RED light is required, what actions will the patrolman take prior to entering the test area?

A

Contact the Site Operations Control Center and request an escort and approval by a Test Conductor

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8
Q

During non-duty hours at the AFRL, under what circumstances by a patrolman enter a test area controlled by an AMBER light?

A

Patrolman may enter the area if suspicious or unauthorized activity is suspected.

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9
Q

During duty hours at the AFRL, if entry to a test area marked with an AMBER light is required, what actions will the patrolman take prior to entering the test area?

A

Contact the Site Operations Control Center to request access

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10
Q

At the AFRL, which test areas will not be entered?

A

Test Area I-30 (Propellant Lab), Area I-39 (Toxic Fuel Farm), Area I-38 (Environmental Storage Complex), and Area I-40 (Liquid Propellant Storability Complex)

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11
Q

What actions will the patrolman take if building 8451/Chemical Lab or building 8471/Electric propulsion Lab are found unsecured?

A

Do not enter the building, notify the ECC, and maintain a safe distance until the facility manager arrives.

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12
Q

Who may authorize off-base pursuits?

A

Flight chief or higher authority

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13
Q

What are the four types of vehicle passes that allow POV’s on the flightline?

A

AFFTC FM 5436 (white pass with red number, blue pass, green pass) and AFFTC FM 5292 red pass

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14
Q

What actions will be taken when an individual attempts to drive a POV onto the flightline without a vehicle pass?

A

Deny entry and direct the individual to Base Ops to obtain one

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15
Q

When the alternate ECC is activated, which patrol will stand up and man the alternate ECC until properly relieved?

A

Sierra 2

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16
Q

When a pursuit begins, what information should be relayed by the patrolman to the ECC?

A

Location, direction, speed of travel, reason for pursuit, vehicle description, license number of occupants, traffic conditions

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17
Q

True or False: Patrols are authorized to engage in vehicle pursuits with additional passengers such as prisoners, witnesses, suspects, or ride along participants, as long as the patrolman receives permission from the flight sergeant?

A

False

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18
Q

During a vehicle pursuit, if the violator should abandon his vehicle and flee on foot, what actions will the patrolman take?

A

Remove the patrol vehicle ignition keys, quickly check the violator’s vehicle for occupants, and give location, description of the care and its occupants, as well as the suspects direction of travel to the ECC

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19
Q

Why should patrolman ensure to turn their emergency lights and sirens off prior to arriving on scene?

A

Emergency lights and sirens may alert the suspect, and put SF personnel, victims or bystanders in peril

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20
Q

The 412 SFS will provide armed escorts for funds transfers over what amount?

A

$25,000

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21
Q

During a funds escort what things will SF personnel never do?

A

Carry funds containers, provide transportation, and have access to funds

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22
Q

While conducting building checks what actions should you take if you discover a building with signs of forced entry?

A

Take cover in a position to observe the building, contact BDOC, and wait for backup to arrive. Once backup has arrived devise a plan and clear the building.

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23
Q

While conducting building checks what actions should you take if you discover an unsecure building?

A

Take cover in a position to observe the building, contact BDOC, and wait for the building custodian and backup to arrive. Once backup has arrived devise a plan and clear the building

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24
Q

What circumstance will the AF FM 3545A, Incident Report, be filled out for unsecured buildings?

A

When items are missing, there are signs of forced entry, or a protection level asset

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25
Q

What form will be used to record the names of people who enter and exit crime scenes?

A

AF FM 1109 Visitor Log

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26
Q

If while questioning a complainant, witness, or victim at a crime scene you begin to suspect someone of committing a crime what actions should you take?

A

Advise the individual of their rights prior to any questioning

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27
Q

If evacuation is required during a major accident what direction will personnel be directed to evacuate?

A

Upwind or crosswind towards a point designated by the IC

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28
Q

What are the curfew hours for juveniles on EAFB?

A

2300-0600 Sunday through Thursday 2400-0600 Fridays and Saturdays

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29
Q

Under what circumstances may juveniles be outside their quarters after curfew?

A

When in the company of a responsible adult older than 21 having the care, custody and charge of the juvenile or when proceeding directly to or from any authorized base or social activity.

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30
Q

What authority does Rule 302(b) of the MCM and Article 7(b) of the UCMJ give to security forces members?

A

The authority to apprehend individuals.

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31
Q

How will patrolman respond when a call is assigned Code 1?

A

By observing all applicable traffic laws, and without the use of emergency lights or sirens

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32
Q

True or False: If the patrolman becomes aware of circumstances unknown to ECC, the patrolman may upgrade his/her response to Code 2 or Code 3?

A

True

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33
Q

Calls requiring immediate response to non-life threatening emergency will be assigned what response code?

A

Code 2

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34
Q

How will patrolman respond when a call is assigned Code 2?

A

By observing all applicable traffic laws and using emergency lights only.

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35
Q

Calls require immediate response to life-threatening emergency will be assigned what response code?

A

Code 3

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36
Q

How will patrolman respond when a call is assigned Code 3?

A

By utilizing emergency lights and sirens

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37
Q

If responding to a call that could put SF personnel, victims, or bystanders in peril, when should responding patrols turn their emergency lights and sirens off?

A

Turn them off at a safe distance from the scene

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38
Q

What gives security forces personnel the authority to administer oaths to suspects, subjects, witnesses, and victims?

A

Article 136(b) of the UCMJ

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39
Q

What four types of legislative jurisdiction apply to military installations and facilities?

A

Exclusive, Concurrent, Proprietary, and Patial

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40
Q

What type of legislative jurisdiction gives the federal government sole authority to legislate?

A

Exclusive

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41
Q

Which type of legislative jurisdiction exists when both federal and state governments retain all their legislative authority?

A

Concurrent

42
Q

Which type of legislative jurisdiction has the military exercise the rights of property owner only?

A

Proprietary

43
Q

Which type of legislative jurisdiction gives both the federal and state governments some authority, but neither has exclusive power?

A

Partial

44
Q

Which article of the UCMJ states exactly who is subject to military jurisdiction?

A

Article 2

45
Q

Which article of the UCMJ states that the UCMJ applies in all places and there is no restriction on where the case may be heard?

A

Article 5

46
Q

What four authorities do Security Forces members have?

A

Detain, Apprehend, Report, and Correct

47
Q

What does the Assimilative Crimes Act allow?

A

Allows for the adoption of state law in the absence of applicable federal law

48
Q

What is probable cause?

A

Reasonable belief that an offense has been or is being committed and the person to be apprehended committed or is committing it

49
Q

What is reasonable belief?

A

There is reliable information that reasonable, prudent person would rely on, which makes it more likely than not that something is true.

50
Q

What are the five ways SF members can establish reasonable belief?

A

SF member actually sees the person commit the crime, member gets the description from another SF member, member receives statement by a reliable person, a superior in the member’s chain of command orders an apprehension, or a complainant or victim identifies the alleged perpetrator

51
Q

What are apprehensions based upon?

A

Probable cause

52
Q

For minor offenses, who may you release civilian offenders to?

A

Military sponsor, a relative or friend, or on their own recognizance

53
Q

What is the definition of custody?

A

The restraint of free movement

54
Q

Prior to asking any questions related to an offense under investigation, what must the SF member do?

A

Advise suspects of their rights against self-incrimination

55
Q

Active duty military will be advised of their rights in accordance with what?

A

Article 31 of the UCMJ

56
Q

Civilian personnel will be advised of their rights against self-incrimination in accordance with what?

A

Fifth Amendment of the Constitution

57
Q

Suspects on verified active orders will be advised their rights IAW what?

A

Article 31

58
Q

What is a spontaneous utterance?

A

When an individual contacted by SF personnel voluntarily make an incriminating statement

59
Q

Search authorizations will be completed via what form?

A

AF FM 1176 Authority to Search and Seize

60
Q

What is a search affidavit?

A

A statement of probable cause supporting the request for authorization to search and seize

61
Q

Who gives on base search authority

A

Installation Commander or Military Magistrate

62
Q

What is the definition of search?

A

An examination of a person, place, or thing with a view toward discovery of a crime or criminal intent

63
Q

What is a search incident to apprehension

A

SF may search incident to apprehension the space within the apprehended person’s immediate control

64
Q

SF members seizing or receiving an item of evidential property will ensure to immediately record an affix what form to the property?

A

AF FM 52 Evidence tag

65
Q

Who is given the property receipt portion of the AF FM 52?

A

The person relinquishing the property

66
Q

In the event of evidence is explosive in nature, such as bulk explosives or military ordnance, who will SF contact for guidance to the safe handling, packaging, and storage of the explosives

A

EOD

67
Q

What form provides a log of visitors or personnel entering an area which the entry or exit is controlled

A

AF FM 1109 Visitor Register Log

68
Q

Which form is used to take written statements from suspects or accused persons, witnesses, or complainants?

A

AF FM 1168 statement

69
Q

Which form is used to obtain authorization to search and seize?

A

AF FM 1176

70
Q

What form is used to record investigations of major traffic accidents?

A

AF FM 1315 Accident Report

71
Q

What form is used to provide SF with information about pick-up orders or to place a restriction order on a military member?

A

AF FM 1361

72
Q

Which form is used to document when an individual consents freely and voluntarily to a search of their person or property?

A

AF FM 1364

73
Q

What form is used to acquire authority to make an apprehension in a private on-base dwelling?

A

AF FM 3226

74
Q

Which form is used to collect information on suspicious people or individuals contacted during routine operations who do not require any other administrative action?

A

AF FM 3907

75
Q

What three sources does military jurisdiction come from?

A

US Constitution, Federal Statutes, and International Law

76
Q

What articles of the UCMJ are punitive articles?

A

Articles 77-134

77
Q

Which copy of the DD FM 1408 is given to the violator or affixed to the vehicle if the operator is not present?

A

Pink Copy

78
Q

Which copy of the DD FM 1408 is used by the SF member to record details about the instructions issued to the violator, names of witnesses, and can be used to refresh the patrol members memory if the ticket is contested

A

Yellow copy

79
Q

Which copy of the DD FM 1408 is submitted through the channels to the violator’s commander for action to be taken against the violator?

A

White copy

80
Q

Which form is used when it is determined an offender will be prosecuted for a minor offense before a U.S. magistrate

A

CVB 1805

81
Q

Which copy of the CVB 1805 will be forwarded by S5-R to the Central Violations Bureau?

A

White copy

82
Q

Which copy of the CMV 1805 is given to the violator

A

Yellow copy

83
Q

Which form is used to record tests and observations made of someone suspected of being involved in an incident where alcohol or drugs may be a factor?

A

DD FM 1920

84
Q

What information will be relayed to BDOC when an SF member initiates a traffic stop?

A

Stop location, vehicle description, license number, number of occupants, and reason for stop

85
Q

What type of report informs higher headquarters that an unusual incident affecting PL 1, 2, or 3 resources, probably or actually hostile, occurred at an installation or dispersed site?

A

Covered Wagon

86
Q

What is the definition of a PL 1 resource?

A

Assets for which the loss, theft, misuse, compromise, damage, or destruction results in unacceptable mission degradation to the strategic capability of the US or catastrophic consequences for the nation

87
Q

List two examples of a PL 1 resource

A

Nuclear Weapons, Aircraft designated to transport POTUS

88
Q

What is the definition of a PL 2 resource?

A

Assets for which the loss, theft, misuse, compromise, damage, or destruction results in significant mission degradation to the war fighting capability of the US

89
Q

List three examples of a PL 2 resource

A

None nuclear alert forces, expensive, few in number, or one of a kind systems, or equipment, vital computer facilities, or intelligence gathering systems critical to US operational capability

90
Q

What is the definition of a PL 3 resource

A

Assets for which the loss, theft, misuse, compromise, damage, or destruction results in mission degradation to the war fighting capability of the US

91
Q

List two examples of a PL 3 resource

A

weapons systems capable of being on alert status; selected command, control, and communications facilities, systems and equipment; intelligence gathering systems not critical to US operation capability

92
Q

What is the definition of a PL 4 resource

A

Assets for which the loss, theft, misuse, compromise, damage, or destruction would adversely affect mission capability

93
Q

Under what circumstances is a vehicle considered abandoned?

A

If it is known the legal owner has departed the base by way of PCS orders, separation, or retirement; vehicle has expired or missing state registration; if the owner doesnt respond to abandon vehicle notices; or if the vehicle appears to be abandoned

94
Q

Which form is placed conspicuously on POV’s that are considered to be abandoned

A

DD FM 2504

95
Q

How much time does an owner of a vehicle marked with an abandoned vehicle notice have to remove the vehicle before impoundment action is initiated?

A

3 days

96
Q

How much time do vehicle owners have to remove their vehicles that are left disabled on roadways or at an accident site before they are towed at the owners expense

A

24 hours

97
Q

Which code is used to check for outstanding wants and warrants on a person or vehicle?

A

Code 4

98
Q

What are three types of child abuse?

A

Physical, Sexual, Neglect

99
Q

How are duress words used

A

Used during normal conversation to indicate duress

100
Q

How often will duress words be changed

A

Every six months from the date of issue or when compromised

101
Q

TDY personnel may be granted unescorted entry into restricted areas when in possession of their home base RAB and an EAL authenticated by who?

A

Security Forces Supervisor (E-5/GS-7 or above)

Confinement DPE (3 decks)

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