Patient Safety Flashcards

1
Q

The surgeon has decided to perform a closed reduction of the patient’s fractured radial and ulnar bones. Why is this preferable over an open reduction that might more accurately align the broken ends?

A

Closed reduction reduces the likelihood of infection

Opening the skin interrupts the first line of defense against infection. A closed reduction is a safer option for the patient.

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2
Q

The perioperative nurse explains how the surgical site will be prepared for surgery after induction. This is an example of what part of the nursing process

A

Implementation

It’s a nursing action. In this example the nurse is ‘explaining’.

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3
Q

Vasovasostomy

A

-vasectomy reversal, is a surgical procedure that partially reverses a vasectomy by reattaching the cut ends of the vas deferens
-microsurgery performed under the magnification of the operating microscope

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4
Q

Redness with blistering is considered what stage of pressure ulcer?

A

Stage 2

present as a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed or may also present as an intact or open serum-filled or serosanguineous filled blister.

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5
Q

The 54-year-old woman is scheduled for cataract removal. During the perioperative interview the patient lists the following as current medications: Timolol meleate (Timoptic) and pilocarpine for glaucoma and metoprolol (Lopressor) and diazoxide for hypertension. The perioperative nurse is aware that

A

The patient should not instill the eye medications on the morning of surgery

Pilocarpine causes the pupil to constrict. This opens the ocular drainage system to help lower
the pressure. Any medication that constricts the pupil would make cataract surgery impossible.

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6
Q

The surgical team goes to the burn unit for the patient’s dressing change. A plastic isolator is used for the 44-year-old fire fighter with second and third degree burns on his torso and lower extremities. The surgical team performs the dressing change under anesthesia through the clear plastic isolator. What is the purpose of this isolator?

A

To prevent hypothermia

Patient care is given through the clear plastic walls. The environment around the patient
inside the isolator is controlled at 90 F (32 C)
and 94% humidity to conserve heat loss by evaporation. While the wounds are wet
evaporation also increases fluid loss.

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7
Q

In the recovery area during the neuro assessment the patient’s pupils are found to be pinpoint. What might cause this and what should the nurse do next?

A

-A sign of narcotic toxicity
-the nurse should quickly assess for additional signs and symptoms: reduced consciousness and depressed respirations
-give Narcan as indicated

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8
Q

Mrs Garcia speaks very little English. What is most appropriate for her care during her experience in the perioperative area?

A

Allow a family member to escort her in the pre and post operative areas

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9
Q

How does the Roux-en Y gastric bypass procedure cause considerable weight loss for the patient?

A

Largely calorie restrictive and mildly malabsorptive procedure that removes a critical segment of the mucosal surface of the stomach leaving a small pouch.

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10
Q

Gastric band

A

Uses constriction

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11
Q

Gastrectomy

A

partial or total removal of stomach
performed for malignancy

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12
Q

G is brought to the OR for a vaginal hysterectomy. When positioning the patient on boot stirrups how can the perioperative nurse help protect the patient from experiencing foot drop postoperatively?

A

Rest the weight of the leg on the thigh and calf and not on the back of the knee. This avoids pressure on the popliteal nerve.

Injury to the popliteal nerve contributes to foot drop.

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13
Q

When placing a patient in a dorsal recumbent position how should the arms be positioned?

A

At the sides with palms toward the body

Dorsal (supine)
This protects the ulnar nerve and is a natural
position for the upper extremities.

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14
Q

The following is one example of a system used to assess for readiness for a patient to be discharged after surgery.

A

Aldrete scoring system

commonly used for establishing postoperative discharge criteria.
This method should not be used to replace
patient assessment in determining suitability for discharge.

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15
Q

A 56-vear-old woman has arrived in the OR for a cataract extraction surgery. The operative site is prepped under aseptic conditions after anesthesia has been administered. What solution does the circulator use to prep the patient’s eye?

A

5% povidone iodine

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16
Q

How is the patient positioned for placement of the Veress Needle during the laparoscopic tubal ligation?

A

Trendelenburg

safest position for insertion of the Veress
needle (for insufflation during laparoscopic
procedures) because the bowel drops down out
of the way.

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17
Q

Patients with one or more of Virchow’s triad are at increased risk for

A

Deep vein thrombosis

Virchow’s triad describes the three broad categories of factors that are thought to contribute to thrombosis.
Hypercoagulability
Hemodynamic changes (stasis, turbulence)
Endothelial injury/dysfunction.

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18
Q

Scott triggers

A

Increased risk of perioperative pressure ulcers if yes to 2 or more

-Age (62 or older)
-Serum albumin or BMI (<3.5 g/L or BMI <19 or >40)
-ASA (3 or greater)
-Surgery time (over 3 hours)

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19
Q

Munro assessment scale

A

Low score, low risk for pressure ulcer development

Mobility
Nutritional state (length of NPO)
BMI
Weight loss (in 30-180 days)
Age
Co-morbidity

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20
Q

Specific skin integrity tools for OR

A

Munro assessment
Scott triggers

Braden scale is not specific to OR

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21
Q

Avenues of heat loss- Evaporation

A

Sweating

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22
Q

Avenues of heat loss- Radiation

A

Heat transferred from body’s surface

Different temps not in contact with each other

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23
Q

Avenues of heat loss- Conduction

A

Heat transferred to other object by contact

Ex: cold bed

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24
Q

Avenues of heat loss- Convection

A

Air currents over the body

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25
Q

Radiation hazards components

A

Time
Distance
Shielding

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26
Q

Fire risk is made up of

A

Ignition source
Oxidizer
Fuel

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27
Q

Under what side should a wedge be placed for a pregnant patient

A

Right side

Vena cava on right side and want relief from pressure, baby weight on left side

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28
Q

Adequate staff required to move patient <53 pounds/24 kg 

A

Anesthesia and one person with draw sheet

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29
Q

Adequate staff required to move patient 53-105 pounds/24-48 kg

A

Anesthesia and two people with draw sheet

30
Q

Adequate staff required to move patient 105–157 pounds/48–71 kg 

A

Anesthesia and three people with transfer device a.k.a. sliding board

31
Q

Adequate staff required to move patient >157 pounds/71 kg

A

Four or more people with mechanical device, a.k.a. air transfer device

32
Q

Use device for holding if extremity weighs how much?

A

35 lbs or greater

33
Q

Shearing

A

Folding and compression of tissue in between two surfaces moving in opposite directions

34
Q

Warm ischemic time

A

The time the breast specimen is removed from the patient

35
Q

Cold ischemic time

A

The time the breast specimen is placed in fixative

36
Q

When providing patient education for a child, it is important to understand which learning characteristic of children?

A

Children respond to a trial and error approach
-They are task oriented, use extrinsic thought process, and value self-esteem 

37
Q

How many different levels of Perioperative teaching are there?

A

3

38
Q

Perioperative teaching: information

A

Includes explanations of procedure on what to expect throughout the phases of Perioperative care

39
Q

Perioperative teaching: psychosocial support

A

Includes encouraging the patient to share their anxiety and supporting coping mechanisms

40
Q

Perioperative teaching: skill training

A

-Allows the patient to learn the skills required to function after the procedure
-provides confidence and understanding

41
Q

Wound healing phase: inflammatory

A

0 to 3 days
Redness, edema, phagocytosis
Think of: firefighters coming to burning building

42
Q

Wound healing phase: proliferation

A

4 to 24 days
Granulation and epithelial tissue forms
-Think of: rebuilding building foundation
-Nutrition important - high albumin levels and proteins necessary

43
Q

Wound healing phase: remodeling

A

24 days to one year
Scar formation and contracture
-Think of: adding bricks and cement to building

44
Q

Wound closure: primary intention

A

All layers of wound are approximated, closing skin
-Most surgical wounds

45
Q

Wound closure: secondary intention

A

Skin left open following surgery
-deep tissue layers may be closed or open
-For patients with chronic wounds
-Granulation
-Pressure ulcer

46
Q

Wound closure: tertiary intention

A

Delayed primary intention
-High suspicion of contamination
-Left open and packed
-Wound vacs
-Example: compartment syndrome

47
Q

Wound healing patient risk factors

A

-nutrition
-Age (very young and old)
-Immuno suppression from steroids, NSAIDs, -chemo, radiation
-circulation/oxygenation
-Comorbidities such as diabetes 

48
Q

Wound healing environmental risk factors

A

-Length of surgery
-Trauma
-Prolonged stress (increase in cortisol levels)
-Coagulopathies (hematomas created dead space)

49
Q

Deep infection or implant defined by CMS as SSI if occurs within

A

90 days

50
Q

Superficial infection, defined by CMS as SSI if occurs within

A

30 days

51
Q

Dehiscence

A

Separation to the fascial layer

52
Q

Class 1 (clean)

A

-Infection rate less than 5%
-Primary closure
-No break in technique
-Closed drain

53
Q

Class 2 (clean/contaminated)

A

-Expected infection rate 8 to 11%
-Includes cases in which GI, GU, respiratory tract are entered under controlled conditions, and without spillage
-Bowel resection, hysterectomy, T&A, cholecystectomy

54
Q

Class 3 (contaminated)

A

-expected infection rate 15 to 20%
-Fresh traumatic injury (<4 hours, delay)
-Breaking technique/spillage
-Appendectomy for acute appendicitis, cholecystectomy for acute cholecystitis

55
Q

Class 4 (infected)

A

-expected infection rate 27 to 40%
-Clinical infection, perforated viscera, necrotic tissue
-I&D of abscess, ruptured appendix, GSW to abdomen, dead bowel

56
Q

Skin antisepsis – hexachlorophene

A

Recommended as scrub for gram-positive MRSA
Not broad-spectrum
Not for use in premature babies

57
Q

Skin antisepsis recommended for VRE

A

Chlorhexidine

58
Q

Skin antisepsis that cannot penetrate organic material

A

Alcohol
Cloroxylenol
Para–chloro–meta-xylenol (PCMX)

59
Q

Skin antisepsis for perineum, eye or ear

A

Povidone iodine
If iodine allergy use PCMX or 3% H2O2 for vaginal prep
Normal saline, PCMX or BSS for eyes
Normal saline, or PCMX for ears

60
Q

Abdominal incision: right subcostal “kocher”

A

For open gallbladder, or pancreas

61
Q

Abdominal incision: left subcostal

A

Splenectomy

62
Q

Abdominal incision: paramedian and transverse

A

For too much skin adhesions

63
Q

Abdominal incision: Chevron

A

For autopsy, or a liver transplant

64
Q

Abdominal incision: pfannenstiel

A

C-section

65
Q

Abdominal incision: McBurney’s

A

Appendix

66
Q

Abdominal incision: midline

A

Exploratory laparotomy

67
Q

Abdominal incision: inguinal

A

Hernia repair

68
Q

Hernia inside hesselbach triangle

A

Direct inguinal hernia

69
Q

Hernia outside hesselbach triangle

A

Indirect inguinal hernia
Usually scrotum

70
Q

How long are multidose vials good for?

A

28 days

71
Q

Virchow’s triad categories

A

-Hypercoagulability: clotting cascade triggered
-Hemodynamic changes (Venous stasis): immobility during surgery
-Endothelial injury/dysfunction: surgery interrupts vascular endothelium

72
Q

What category of Virchow’s triad do we have control of?

A

Venous stasis: immobility during surgery
Can apply SCDs