Patient examining

Question 1

Misbehaviour(s) of doctors is/are:
1) identification instead of empathy
2) projection of their personal feelings onto the patient, establishment of an emotional relationship - with its ethical and legal consequences
3) treatment of the patient as an impersonal medical case because of the lack of empathy
4) balancing between confidentiality and objectivity

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

Answer 1

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

Question 2

A psychiatric symptom might be:
A) a subjective experience or change of experiences – especially the suffering
B) a somatic symptom of disorder of function
C) too frequent or inadequate behaviour or the lack of it
D) combinations of the above

Answer 2

D) combinations of the above

Question 3

Building an effective doctor-patient relationship:
1) the first meeting has a prominent role
2) it is an essential condition that the doctor spends only the time necessary - equal to that spent with already known patients on control visits - with the first meeting with new patients
3) attention, honest, interest and the feeling of understanding are exceptionally important in creating trust
4) the office and clothing of the doctor should emphasize the professional superiority

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

Answer 3

B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct

Question 4

Some technical elements of the psychiatric clinical interview are:
1) comments instead of questions
2) paraphrasing the last sentence
3) short summarization for better understanding and to create the feeling of being understood
4) positive and hopeful atmosphere - like at any doctor-patient meeting

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

Answer 4

E) all of the answers are correct

Question 5

Agitation means excessive motor or verbal activity, which manifests in:
1) hyperactivity
2) exaggerated expression of suffering
3) yelling, screaming and verbal abuses
4) provocation, threatening gestures and physical destruction

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

Answer 5

E) all of the answers are correct

Question 6

Priority interventions during the emergency service of agitated patients include:
1) empathetic, non-oppositional, calm but confident and consequent verbal intervention
2) demonstration of power
3) patient and consequent helping attitude, offering food, drink and other forms of help
4) voluntary and/or emergency medical treatment

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

Answer 6

E) all of the answers are correct

Question 7

In the treatment of acute agitation:
1) the aim is to control the aggressive behaviour and to preserve the good doctor-patient relationship
2) the first step is the psychosocial intervention (empathetic, non-oppositional, calm but confident, consequent and helpful)
3) the second step is the (orientational) physical and psychiatric differential-diagnosis (whether the cause is somatic, intoxication or primary mental disorder)
4) the third step is the parenteral/oral therapy (possibly in the form preferred by the patient)

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

Answer 7

E) all of the answers are correct

Question 8

In the treatment of acute agitation:
1) the aim is to control the aggressive behaviour and to preserve the good doctor-patient relationship
2) the first step is the psychosocial intervention (empathetic, non-oppositional, calm but confident, consequent and helpful)
3) the second step is the (orientational) physical and psychiatric differential-diagnosis (whether the cause is somatic, intoxication or primary mental disorder)
4) the third step is the parenteral/oral therapy (possibly in the form preferred by the patient)

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

Answer 8

E) all of the answers are correct

Question 9

Differential diagnosis of aphasias:
1) Individuals with expressive aphasia are able to understand speech, but they have disordered speech (with great effort they might produce fragmented speech)
2) In receptive aphasia the disordered understanding of speech dominates (the person does not understand his own or other’s speech)
3) In conduction aphasia spontaneous speech is intact, but the patient is unable to repeat sentences.
4) Transcortical aphasia disables spontaneous speech, but they have an urge to repeat speech (echolalia)

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

Answer 9

E) all of the answers are correct

Question 10

A 39-year-old male patient complains about diffuse anxiety, disordered attention and thinking. He perceives his environment to be alien. Sometimes he has strange thoughts against which he has to fight. He feels as if everything changed around him. Hearing all this, what would you do first?

A) immediately assign him to a psychiatric ward or outpatient unit
B) comfort him that he is not crazy
C) gather information about his present situation in order to identify what intervention is needed
D) ask about his childhood
E) prescribe anxiolitics and put him on sick-leave

Answer 10

C) gather information about his present situation in order to identify what intervention is needed

Question 11

A 27-year-old female is referred to the outpatient unit with breathing difficulty, dizziness and numb limbs without any organic reasons. What do you think her diagnosis is?

A) situative reaction
B) endogenous anxiety
C) caffeine intoxication
D) hyperventilation syndrome
E) posttraumatic stress disorder

Answer 11

D) hyperventilation syndrome

Question 12

Alcohol intoxication:
1) is a poisoning and has to be treated like other cases of poisoning
2) might cause several somatic syndromes, therefore it is potentially life-threatening
3) measuring blood alcohol concentration is an objective indicator in defining the intensity of treatment
4) addictology is part of psychiatry and it deals with the treatment of psychoactive substance dependencies and abuses involving sober patients, who accept and cooperate with the proposed treatment

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

Answer 12

E) all of the answers are correct

Question 13

EEG spectrum:
1) delta band is of 0.5-3.5 Hz, it is predominant in deep sleep, it is physiological until the age of 1-2 years, it might indicate frontal hypoactivity in adults in wake states
2) alpha band of 8-12 Hz, this is the baseline rhythm in adults, it correlates with the temporal coordination of information processing, it signals the activity of thalamo-cortical circuitry and it is inhibited stimuli are present
3) theta band is of 4.0-7.5 Hz, it is predominant in REM sleep, it is physiological at the ages of 1-6 years, it can occur during hypnosis and meditation, it indicates frontal and hippocampal hyperactivation in a wake state
4) gamma band is above 35 Hz and it indicates neuronal synchronization, it can also be connected to the framing of information elements and consciousness functions, therefore this band is important in understanding the neuropsychiatric disorders

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

Answer 13

E) all of the answers are correct

Question 14

Brain imaging methods:
1) SPECT: radioactive method
2) fMRI: is based on magnetic resonance
3) PET: radioactive method
4) CT: radioactive method

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

Answer 14

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

Question 15

Brain imaging methods:
1) SPECT and PET are transmission methods, they use external ray
2) MRS and MRI are based on magnetic resonance
3) CT is a particle emission method
4) SPECT and PET use isotopes bound to active signal molecules

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

Answer 15

C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct

Question 16

The most common applications of PET are:
1) examination of brain metabolisms
2) blood flow measurement
3) examination of enzyme activity and concentration
4) marking neurotransmitters and receptors

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

Answer 16

E) all of the answers are correct

Question 17

Which is/are true for MRI?
1) white and gray matter are well distinguishable
2) a high-frequency radio transmitter allocates energy into the nuclei of the body placed into the static magnetic field
3) the radiation coming from the relaxing nuclei is detected by a radio receiver
4) it is based on the proton magnetization transfer effect of the transmission ionizing radiation

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

Answer 17

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

Question 18

Transcranial stimulation
1) TMS is a transcranial stimulation method using an alternating magnetic field in a copper ring placed on the cranium
2) TDCS is a transcranial stimulation method, which is direct current-operated and in which electrodes are applied onto the scalp
3) the therapeutic employment of TMS is currently most accepted in depression
4) during TMS and TDCS the activity of neurons change for a short time (10-0 minutes) in the depth of 2-4 cm

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

Answer 18

E) all of the answers are correct

Question 19

The sign(s) of a neuroleptic malignant syndrome during antipsychotic medication is/are:
1) progrediating disorientation + akinesia and stiffness of muscles
2) fever, hyperpyrexia + vegetative instability (instable blood pressure, tachycardia, excessive sweating, salivation)
3) increased CPK
4) leucocytosis, increased depression, high liver enzyme rates

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

Answer 19

E) all of the answers are correct

Question 20

When treating a patient with Leponex (clozapine):
1) blood tests should be run according to the guidelines
2) if the white blood cell count decreases under 3.000/mm3 (or neutrophil granulocytes decrease below 1.500/mm3) Leponex treatment has to be ceased and a consultation with a haematologist is advisable
3) regular qualitative blood tests and the control of blood sugar, cholesterol and triglyceride levels are necessary
4) if the white blood cell count increases over 10.000/mm3 (or neutrophil granulocytes exceed 5.000/mm3) Leponex treatment has to be ceased and consultation with a haematologist is advisable

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

Answer 20

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

Question 21

In case of emergency care of acute alcohol intoxication:
1) the most important is to measure the blood alcohol concentration (BAC)
2) BAC serves as an objective indicator for the intensity of necessary treatment
3) above 65.1 mmol/l (3.0‰) BAC there is an increased risk for respiratory depression or arrest
4) BAC level of 30-40 mmol/l indicates a moderately serious intoxication

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

Answer 21

E) all of the answers are correct

Question 22

Intelligence measurement helps to define:
1) the level of intelligence
2) the level of specific intelligence components, which is the intelligence structure
3) whether the measured level and structure are appropriate compared to the age and education, or whether there a deficit is present
4) whether the measured deficit is characteristic for a clinical disorder

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

Answer 22

E) all of the answers are correct

Question 23

What are the characteristics of standardized intelligence tests?
1) individuals are compared to their own groups
2) culture influences performance
3) the global intellectual capacity of the individual is not measured
4) 100 is considered the average IQ

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

Answer 23

E) all of the answers are correct

Question 24

WAIS:
1) is the abbreviation of the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale
2) has two main factors: verbal and performance IQ
3) the level of intelligence measured by it predicts the level of life competence
4) it is a personality test

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

Answer 24

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

Question 25

Which is/are (a) personality test(s)?
1) Rorschach probe
2) BPRS
3) MMPI
4) Raven matrices

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

Answer 25

B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct

Question 26

Which is/are projective test
1) WAIS
2) MMPI (Minnesota multiphasic personality inventory
3) Raven matrices
4) Rorschach probe

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

Answer 26

D) only the 4th answer is correct

Question 27

Dementias might be assessed with:
1) WAIS for the assessment of the level of cognitive deficit
2) Clock Drawing Test, which is an early screening test
3) MMSE, which is a complex test for the assessment of the severity of the syndrome
4) Szondi probe for the assessment of personality changes

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

Answer 27

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

Question 28

Clock Drawing Test:
1) the arrangement of the numbers is important in its scoring
2) is a screening test for severe cognitive deficit
3) the arrangement of the arms is important in its scoring
4) is the test on which the diagnosis of Alzheimer’s disease is based

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

Answer 28

B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct

Question 29

Mini Mental State Examination
1) is a widespread dementia screening test.
2) assesses orientation, attention and memory.
3) includes writing, reading and counting.
4) includes the observation of the understanding and implementing of complex instructions.

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

Answer 29

E) all of the answers are correct

Question 30

Questionnaires for the assessment of the severity of depressive symptoms are:
1) Hamilton Depression Rating Scale (HAM-D)
2) Montgomery-Asberg Depression Rating Scale (MADRS)
3) Beck Depression Inventory (BDI)
4) Positive and Negative Syndrome Scale (PANSS)

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

Answer 30

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct

Question 31

Hamilton Depression Rating Scale (HAM-D)
1) measures the severity of depression.
2) has diagnostic purposes.
3) is suitable to follow-up status.
4) is a self-rating scale.

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

Answer 31

B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct

Question 32

Yale-Brown Obsessive-Compulsive Scale (YBOCS)
1) is for the diagnostics of OCD
2) assess the severity of OCD
3) is a self-rating scale
4) is suitable to follow-up the severity of obsessive-compulsive symptoms

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

Answer 32

C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct

Question 33

Positive and Negative Symptom Scale (PANSS)
1) assesses the severity of schizophrenia
2) is not suitable for the diagnosis of schizophrenia
3) is suitable to follow-up the severity of the symptoms of schizophrenia
4) is a semi-structured interview filled in by the doctor

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

Answer 33

E) all of the answers are correct

Question 34

Modern psychiatric classification systems aim to …
1) define mental disorders through explicit and operationalized criteria
2) enable the scientific investigation of mental disorders
3) reliably diagnose mental disorders
4) enable the applicability of mental disorders for educational, research and statistical purposes

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

Answer 34

E) all of the answers are correct

Question 35

Which are the currently used classification systems?
1) DSM-I
2) DSM-IV (and V)
3) ICD-8
4) ICD-10

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

Answer 35

C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct

Question 36

Which is/are NOT in the group of anxiety disorders neither in ICD nor in DSM?
1) panic disorder
2) agoraphobia
3) generalized anxiety disorder
4) somatisation disorder

A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct

Answer 36

D) only the 4th answer is correct