Patient Evaluation and Monitoring Flashcards

1
Q

what are the two standard formats for medical history questionnaire

A

short and long

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2
Q

the patient interview should be conducted by who

A

the person planning and administering the anesthetic

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3
Q

what is the purpose of the medical history questionnaire

A
  • a tool to gather written information about the patients health
  • completed by the pt or guardian
  • simple format which is easy to understand
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4
Q

what are the purposes of the patient interview

A
  • an opportunity to review the responses made on the written medical questionnaire
  • gain greater insight to the magnitude of the problem - identifies the treatment risk
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5
Q

the physical exam starts when:

A

the patient walks in the room

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6
Q

what is the purpose of the physical exam

A
  • check for signs of underlying illness
  • assesses patient general appearance
  • vital signs
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7
Q

what are the components of the upper airway

A
  • nasopharynx
  • oropharynx
  • laryngopharynx
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8
Q

what is a consultation

A

request to the PCP or specialist for assistance/information that you will use to manage your patient

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9
Q

the consult needs to be:

A
  • concise
  • specific regarding what you want done
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10
Q

the assistance/information with consultations may include:

A
  • providing a specific piece of information needed to move forward with treatment
  • information pertaining to the patients medical consition
  • patients ability to tolerate treatment
  • requests further information about patients medical condition
  • determine optimal condition for treatment
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11
Q

the assistance may include:

A
  • request that patient be optimized prior to treatment: HTN pt
  • request assistance in management of patient during perioperative period as necessary (insulin regimen for diabetic patient)
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12
Q

what is the purpose of recognition and assessment

A

to determine the level of illness the provider must be able to interpret the signs and symptoms that indicate an existing or pending emergent situation

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13
Q

what are the early signs of serious illness arise from the CNS

A
  • anxiety
  • fear
  • nausea
  • inadequate blood supply or vital nutrients: oxygen and glucose
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14
Q

what is the progression of process

A
  • confusion
  • agitation
  • combative behavior
  • lethargy
  • coma
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15
Q

what are the skin changes

A
  • diaphoresis (especially of the brow)
  • pallor or grayness of face and limbs: signs of extreme sympathetic nervous system activation, attempt to conserve core circulation
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16
Q

what is capillary refill

A

the time it takes for the pink to return after blanching the palm or a nail bed

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17
Q

capillary refill is prolonged if peripheral circulation is:

A

compromise

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18
Q

color should return in the time it takes to say:

A

“capillary refill”

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19
Q

what are the vital signs for

A
  • baseline vital signs when patient is seated
  • changes can be used to judge the seriousness of the patients condition
  • correlate to clinical situation
  • continue monitoring throughout the case
20
Q

what are the symptoms that may represent early signs of an emergent situation

A
  • difficulty breathing
  • shortness of breath
  • nausea
  • chest pain or pressure
  • lightheadedness
  • dizziness
  • headache
  • abdominal pain
21
Q

the most important part of IV sedation is:

22
Q

what is the suction equipment

A
  • central suction
  • portable suction
  • suction powered by an non electrical source in event of electrical failure
23
Q

what is the yankaur suction tip

A

rigid smooth plastic anatomically shaped
multiple suction ports
controlled suction

24
Q

what is the purpose of monitoring equipment

A
  • device to measure blood pressure and heart rate with multiple size cuffs
  • to auscultate the heart and lungs
  • pulse oximetry with appropriate probes
  • electrocardiogram
  • temperature monitor
  • ideal that monitor can print
25
Q

what is capnography

A
  • monitoring of concentration or partial pressure of CO2
  • graph of expiratory CO2 by expired volume
26
Q

what is an advantage of capnography

A
  • breath to breath ventilation data
  • respiratory effort
  • real time feedback on treatment
27
Q

what does the pulse oximeter do

A
  • measures oxygen saturation of arterial blood
  • determine percentage of oxyhemoglobin in capillaries
28
Q

what wavelength does a pulse oximeter use

A

650nm and 950nm

29
Q

describe the nasal canula

A
  • no airtight seal
  • significant air dilution
  • cannot be scavenged
  • no N2O, inhalation agents
  • no reservoir bag
  • often uncomfortable
30
Q

describe nasal hood

A
  • commonplace in office
  • less air dilution
  • less volume needed
  • reservoir bag
  • may be scavenged
31
Q

what are the etiology of airway obstruction

A
  • poor airway classification
  • relaxation of soft tissues
  • retraction of the tongue
  • depressing the mandible
  • inadequate airway support
32
Q

what does the head tilt chin lift

A

displaces the prolapsed tongue from the posterior pharyngeal wall
- eliminates obstruction
- can be used for conscious or unconscious patient

33
Q

describe the combitube

A
  • double lumen airway
  • blindly inserted
  • ventilate patient regardless of tracheal or esophageal placement
34
Q

what are the indications for combitube

A
  • difficult airway
  • cant ventilate
  • failed intubation
  • cant move head/neck
  • no laryngoscope
  • significant upper airway bleeding
35
Q

the king laryngeal tube is a versatile airway tool offering:

A

-ease of insertion: quick insertion requiring no laryngoscopy
- low incidence of sore throat and trauma
- minimizes gastric insufflation
- does protect from aspiration

36
Q

what is the laryngeal mask airway for

A
  • intended as an improved alternative to the traditional face mask
  • minimizes trauma
  • simplifies securing the airway
37
Q

what are the LMA advantages

A
  • minimal training
  • shortest placement time
  • can use in pediatric patients
  • least amount of tissue trauma
  • ACLS class 2B airway control
  • can use to intubate
38
Q

what are the LMA contraindications

A
  • intact gag reflex
  • patients at high risk for aspiration
  • laryngeal foreign bodies or pathology
  • patients with decreased pulmonary compliance
39
Q

describe LMA vs king tube

A
  • quick establishment of the airway
  • effective ventilation
  • better ventilation than OPA/NPA
  • does not protect from aspiration
40
Q

describe king tube vs LMA

A
  • rapid establishment of the airway
  • effective ventilation
  • protects from aspiration
  • easy to use and train
  • can be used to facilitate intubation
41
Q

what is definitive airway control

A

endotracheal intubation

42
Q

what is the surgical airway procedure

A

cricothyroidotomy

43
Q

what is the procedure for the cricothyroidotomy

A
  • palpate the cricothyroid membrane
  • skin incision over the cricothyroid membrane
  • insert scalpel handle and rotate 90 degrees
  • insert endotracheal tube
  • inflate cuff and ventilate
44
Q

what are the emergency airway management tools

A
  • laryngeal mask airway
  • combitube
  • cricothyroidotomy
  • kingtube
45
Q

what is the oral pharyngeal partition

A
  • should be used with each patient
  • prevents teeth/debrid from entering oropharynx
  • helps absorb excess irrigation fluid
  • provides additional reaction time