Patient Care Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

True or False: If there is a spill on the floor, you should never clean it up and notify housekeeping

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Alcoholic based sanitizers are effective against Clostridium diffocele?

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the documents that provide instructions about the patient’s wishes for treatment if the patient is unable to communicate his or her wishes known as?

A

Advance Directives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What respiratory rate for a RESTING adult would be considered abnormal

A

24 breaths per minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What method of obtaining a patient’s temperature is the most accurate?

A

Rectal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What happens when a blood pressure cuff that is used on a patient that is too small?

A

False high reading

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What’s the reading for an adult oral temperature?

A

98.6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is a G-tube?

A

Gastrostomy tube - a tube inserted through abdominal wall into the stomach for feeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How is an NGT secured?

A

Tape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the first sound that is heard when deflating a blood pressure cuff?

A

Systolic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A patient’s blood pressure is 182/84. What is your next action?

A

Inform your supervisor immediately.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How is a G-tube kept in place?

A

Balloon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What life threatening complication are patients who receive tube feeds at risk for?

A

Aspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Smallest diameter catheter would be a

A

16 French

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Patients on a cardiac diet should consume

A

lean meats and green vegetables

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) is administered

A

intravenously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A urinary drainage bag should be attached to the

A

bedframe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When inserting an indwelling urinary catheter, one urine is seen in the tubing, what is done next?

A

advance the catheter 1-2 more inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A 4 oz cup of juice is equivalent to how many ml

A

120 ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Are urinary catheters considered a sterile technique?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

catheters and needles are the opposite in terms of selecting their size. small numbers (like a 16 French) means the catheter will be small too. With needle gauges, it’s the opposite. Explain.

A

Example: a 22 gauge needle would be for the elderly or for kids and a 14 gauge would be way bigger, for trauma or rapid infusions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How is an endotracheal tube held in place?

A

Balloon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the purpose of a cast when a fracture has occurred?

A

To keep the bones in position while the fracture heals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Renal diet

A

limits sodium, phosphorous, potassium, fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
A gastrostomy tube feeding goes directly
into the patient's stomach
26
when selecting a vein for IV therapy, which veins should you consider first?
veins that are distal
27
How do you know the tourniquet is properly placed for venipuncture?
apply 3-4 inches above the selected sight
28
What's the proper angle for IV cannulation?
15 degrees
29
A central venous catheter is placed
in the antecubital space with the tip extending to the superior vena cava
30
What is a PICC line
peripherally inserted central catheter
31
when starting an IV, metacarpal veins are
difficult to stabilize
32
In Alzheimers Disease, the brain actually
shrinks
33
Respiration rate <10
bradypnea 12-20 is considered normal
34
patient will exhibit the signs and symptoms (S&S) of hypoxemia if blood oxygen saturation is <
90
35
Systolic/Diastolic guidelines for blood pressure
normal: 120/80 prehypertension: 120-139 or 80-89
36
Systolic/Diastolic guidelines for blood pressure
normal: 120/80 prehypertension: 120-139 or 80-89 hypertension stage 1: 140-159 or 90-99 hypertension stage 2: 160+ or 100+
37
Mode of transmission, "droplet" is within how many feet
3 feet
38
HEPA stands for
High Efficiency Particulate Air (for respirators)
39
NIOSH stands for
National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health
40
What will BREAK the chain of infection
proper hand hygiene
41
In terms of pressure ulcer prevention, don't elevate the HOB more than how many degrees
30 degrees
42
R.A.C.E. - in case of a fire, stands for
R - rescue patients A - alarm C - contain fire E - extinguish fire
43
OSHA stands for
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
44
ADA diet
As Diet Allows
45
NCS diet
No Concentrated Sweets diet
46
what is a fomite
objects or materials which are likely to carry infection, such as clothes, utensils, and furniture
47
easy to visualize/palpate/stabilize
cephalic
48
Vesicant drugs
Vesicants: Drugs that can result in tissue necrosis or formation of blisters when accidentally infused into tissue surrounding a vein
49
complications of IV therapy
Interstitial infusions  Tissue necrosis  Nerve damage  Phlebitis  Thrombophlebitis, DVT, Embolism
50
Patients may be put on a ‘vent’ because of
pathological conditions, respiratory disorders or diseases of neurological or neuromuscular function
51
Keep tracheostomy patients in what position
Fowlers!
52
Patient can’t speak, whistle, blow nose, suck a straw
Laryngectomy
53
Difference between pneumothorax and hemothorax
pneumo is air in the pleural cavity hemo is fluid in the pleural cavity
54
Commonly used drains include:
– T-Tube – Jackson-Pratt, Hemovac – Penrose
55
End Stage Renal Failure, ESRF
S&S are due to the build up of Urea in the blood (Uremia)
56
In hemodialysis, what is a fistula?
Artery and vein joined together in arm
57
In hemodialysis, what is a graft?
Soft tube joins an artery and vein in arm
58
In hemodialysis, what is a catheter?
Soft tube placed in a large vein, usually in neck
59
In the dialyzer (during hemodialysis), waste products filter from the blood through an artificial membrane into a fluid called the
dialysate
60
the body's natural dialyser is the
peritoneal membrane
61
in peritoneal dialysis, what happens?
Dialysate fluid is infused into the peritoneal cavity so that it can be in contact with the body’s natural dialyser, the peritoneal membrane Peritoneal membrane contains capillaries that diffuse blood into the dialysate and back to blood stream
62
In a petite mal seizure, what happens
Momentary lapses of muscle tone – Patient appears to stare blankly
63
In a grand mal seizure, what happens
Bilateral generalized motor movement (convulsions) and muscular rigidity May be preceded by an Aura Seizure Disorder
64
people with a spinal cord injury are most susceptible for
autonomic dysreflexia... symptoms include extremely high bp, overfull bladder retention, constipation, severe headache etc "dysreflexia" just think... things that used to be "reflexive" are NOT!
65
ec·chy·mo·sis
COMMON WITH A BONE FRACTURE! (also edema) Blood or bleeding under the skin due to trauma of any kind; typically black and blue at first, with color changes as healing progresses.
66
3 components of treating a broken bone
hardware, casting, traction
67
what is commonly caused by falls but may be the cause of the fall
fractured hip
68
assessment of a fractured hip
Leg on affected side is shorter and externally rotated – Pain in hip area or knee – Edema or ecchymosis in the hip, thigh, groin or lower pelvic area
69
Treatment for a fractured hip includes O.R.I.F. and T.H.A.
Open Reduction Internal Fixation (O.R.I.F.) * Fractured bone is manually manipulated back into alignment and held in place with hardware – Total Hip Arthroplasty (T.H.A.) * Replacement of patient’s hip joint with prosthetic hip
70
With patients with a prosthetic hip, maintain the legs in what position
abducted position, don't allow the patient to bend at waist either.
71
Birth one year is what stage
Oral-Sensory (trust) To learn to trust
72
1-3 years what stage
Muscular-anal (toddler) To recognize self as an independent being
73
3-5 years what stage
Locomotor (initiate stage) To recognize self as a family member
74
6-11 years what stage
Latency (industry) To demonstrate physical and mental abilities
75
12-18 years what stage
Adolescence (Identity) To develop a sense of individuality as a sexual being
76
Use child’s name, use simple terms, demonstrate on a doll, allow independence
Preschooler
77
Use child’s name, explain in simple terms, allow child to handle equipment, allow independence
Toddler
78
Respiration rate and heart rate significantly decrease as a child develops into an adult. True or False
TRUE
79
At 3 years, average temperature of infant has been climbing. At 3 years though, it begins to
DECREASE