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Patient Care I > Patient Care Exam II > Flashcards

Patient Care Exam II Flashcards

1
Q

Dx

A

Diagnosis

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2
Q

Hx

A

History

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3
Q

N/a

A

Next appointment or not applicable

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4
Q

FM

A

Full mouth

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5
Q

HBV

A

Hepatitis B virus

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6
Q

HIV

A

Human immunodeficiency virus

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7
Q

Prn

A

As needed

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8
Q

Bid

A

Twice a day

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9
Q

Tid

A

Three times a day

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10
Q

Qid

A

Four times a day

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11
Q

Pt

A

Patient

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12
Q

Rx

A

Prescription

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13
Q

TMJ

A

Temporomandible joint

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14
Q

TB

A

Tuberculosis

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15
Q

Chronic inflammatory disease of the airway characterized by reversible episodes of increased airway hyperresponsivness resulting in recurrent episodes of dyspnea, coughing and wheezing

A

Asthma

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16
Q

Describe the episodes of asthma

A

Reversible

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17
Q

Asthma is characterized by reversible episodes of increased airway ______ resulting in asthmatic symptoms

A

Hyperresponsiveness

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18
Q

Coughing, dyspnea and wheezing are characteristic of

A

Asthma

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19
Q

Chronic inflammatory disease of airway

A

Asthma

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20
Q

Describe onset of asthmatic episode

A

Sudden onset

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21
Q

When do peak symptoms occur within an asthma attack

A

10-15 minutes

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22
Q

Inadequate treatment of asthma result in:

A

ER visits for ~25% of patients

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23
Q

Asthma is disease primarily found in

A

Children

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24
Q

Percentage of children affected by asthma

A

10%

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25
Q

Second most common chronic disease of children

A

Asthma

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26
Q

Most common chronic disease of children

A

Dental caries

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27
Q

In adults the prevalence of asthma is highest in ______

In childhood the prevalence of asthma is highest in ____

A

Female

Boys

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28
Q

Although asthma affects all races what two races have a slightly higher prevalence of asthma

A

African American
Hispanic

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29
Q

List the causes/triggers of asthma (6):

A
  • Emotion/physical stress
  • Allergy to foods
  • Allergy to drugs
  • Air polution/irritating vapors
  • Upper respiratory infections
  • Exercise induced
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30
Q

What foods are common allergens that lead to asthma attacks

A

Nuts
Shelfish

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31
Q

What drugs can commonly cause asthma attacks

A

Aspirin
NSAIDs

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32
Q

Exercise induced asthmatic episodes are caused by what two factors:

A

Breathing through mouth
Inhaling colder/drier air

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33
Q

Define whether this is extrinsic or intrinsic asthma:

Allergic asthma

A

Extrinsic

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34
Q

Define whether this is extrinsic or intrinsic asthma:

Non-allergic asthma

A

Intrinsic

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35
Q

Define whether this is extrinsic or intrinsic asthma:

Occurs more often in children

A

Extrinsic

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36
Q

Define whether this is extrinsic or intrinsic asthma:

Usually develops in adults older than 35

A

Intrinsic

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37
Q

Define whether this is extrinsic or intrinsic asthma:

Triggered by specific allergens such as pollens, dust, molds, allergenic foods such as milk, fish and shellfish

A

Extrinsic

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38
Q

Define whether this is extrinsic or intrinsic asthma:

Asthmatic episode brought on by drugs and chemicals such Penicillin, Vaccines, Aspirin and sulfites

A

Extrinsic

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39
Q

Define whether this is extrinsic or intrinsic asthma:

Type of asthma in which 50% of children outgrow by late teens or early twenties

A

Extrinsic

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40
Q

Define whether this is extrinsic or intrinsic asthma:

Attacks are precipitated by non-allergic factors, respiratory infection, physical exertion, environmental & air pollution

A

Intrinsic

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41
Q

Define whether this is extrinsic or intrinsic asthma:

Asthma attack induced by psychological and physiological stress

A

Intrinsic

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42
Q

Triad asthmatic may also be termed:

A

Samter’s triad
Aspirin-Exacerbated-Respiratory disease
AERD

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43
Q

Percentage of individuals with asthma develop triad asthmaticus

A

Small percentage

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44
Q

Asthmatic patients that may have a sudden and severe asthmatic attack

A

Triad asthmaticus

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45
Q

Triad asthmaticus manifest with:

A

Wheezing
Dyspnea
Hypoxia

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46
Q

Triad asthmatics do not responds to:

A

Bronchodilators

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47
Q

Due to triad asthmatics not responding to bronchodilators it is considered:

A

A true medical emergency

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48
Q

What is the triad in triad asthmaticus:

A

Asthma
Recurrent nasal polyps
Sensitivity to aspirin and NSAIDs

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49
Q

Aspirin & NSAIDs should be avoided in some patients because it can cause:

A

Bronchoconstriction in about 10% of asthmatic patients with aspirin/NSAIDs sensitivity

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50
Q

Bronchoconstriction from NSAIDs/Aspirin occurs in around ______ of asthmatics who have ____ and _____

A

30-40% who have pansinusitis & nasal polyps

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51
Q

Describe reactions between asthmatics and nitrous oxide and Valium

A

No contraindications

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52
Q

Define symptoms of an asthmatic attack (9):

A

1- chest congestion
2- wheezing
3- cough
4- dyspnea
5- tachypnea
6- elevated BP
7- anxiety
8- agitation
9- cyanosis

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53
Q

Difficulty breathing

A

Dyspnea

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54
Q

Abnormal, rapid breathing

A

Tachypnea

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55
Q

Blueish discoloration due to decrease blood & oxygen circulation

A

Cyanosis

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56
Q

Primary goal in asthmatic patients

A

Prevent an acute asthma at attack with management

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57
Q

In order to prevent an asthmatic attack in a patient, a provider should:

A

Utilize medical history

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58
Q

Regarding asthmatic patients, what should a provider be sure to know regarding the patient prior to treatment (4):

A

1- frequency & severity of attacks
2- know any current or past problems with asthma
3- how attacks are managed
4- if the patient has ever received emergency care for an acute attack

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59
Q

To prevent asthma attacks, patients should get vaccinated against ____ & ____

A

Influenza & Pneumonia

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60
Q

In order to avoid attacks, asthmatic patients should know:

A

Their triggers

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61
Q

It is important or asthmatic patients to take their _____ as _____ in order to help prevent an asthma attack

A

Medication as prescribed

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62
Q

______ is important through a good medical history in asthmatics

A

Risk assessment

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63
Q

Prior to treatment it is a good idea to have an asthmatic patient to:

A

Take a puff from their inhaler

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64
Q

Complex, chronic, incurable illness, and a growing epidemic in the US

A

Diabetes

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65
Q

Disease characterized by a high blood glucose

A

Diabetes

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66
Q

What is the third leading cause of death in the US

A

Diabetes

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67
Q

Disease that increases with age- ____ of affected are over the age of ___

A

Diabetes
95%
45

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68
Q

Leading cause of blindness in the US

A

Diabetes

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69
Q

Diabetes is characterized by a group of _____ resulting from:

A

Metabolic disease
Low levels of hormone insulin

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70
Q

Diabetes is characterized by a disordered metabolisms of:

A

Carbohydrates, lipids & proteins

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71
Q

Abnormally high blood sugar level

A

Hyperglycemia

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72
Q

The prevalence of Type-II diabetes has:

A

Doubled over time

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73
Q

The prevalence of Type-I diabetes has:

A

Remained stable

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74
Q

long term effects hyperglycemia

A

Damage to various organs

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75
Q

What organs can be damaged due to the long term affects of hyperglycemia

A

Heart
Eyes
Kidneys
Nervous system
Vascular system
Periodontum

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76
Q

Type I or Type II

Insulin-dependent diabetes Mellitus

A

Type I

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77
Q

Type I or Type II

About 5% of diabetic patients, more common in children

A

Type I

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78
Q

Type I or Type II

Diabetes characterized by beta-cell destruction leading to absolute insulin deficiency

A

Type I

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79
Q

Beta cell destruction usually leads to

A

Absolute insulin deficecy

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80
Q

Type I or Type II

Typically an abrupt onset

A

Type I

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81
Q

Type I or Type II

Non-insulin dependent

A

Type II

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82
Q

Type I or Type II

Milder form of diabetes, usually seen in adults

A

Type II

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83
Q

Type I or Type II

Diabetes characterized by the individual being overweight or obsess

A

Type II

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84
Q

Type I or Type II

Diabetes in which the clinical onset is is slow

A

Type II

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85
Q

In what form of diabetes are blood sugar levels more stable

A

Type II

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86
Q

________ is uncommon in type II diabetics

A

Ketoacidosis

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87
Q

Any degree of abnormal glucose tolerance during pregnancy

A

Gestational diabetes

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88
Q

Gestational diabetes occurs in _____ percent of pregnant women during pregnancy

A

5-7%

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89
Q

A risk factor for gestational diabetes

A

Obesity during pregnancy

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90
Q

Following childbirth the mothers glycemic control usually:

A

Returns back to normal

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91
Q

Women who develop gestational diabetes have an increased risk for:

A

Developing diabetes within 5-10 years

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92
Q

Body produces high levels of blood acids called ketones

A

Diabetic ketoacidosis

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93
Q

Diabetic ketoacidosis occurs when the body:

A

Can’t produce enough insulin

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94
Q

Deep labored breathing pattern characteristic of diabetic ketoacidosis

A

Kussmaul’s respiration

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95
Q

Diabetic ketoacidosis can be triggered by:

A

Infection or other illness

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96
Q

Diabetic ketoacidosis rarely occurs in:

A

Type II diabetes

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97
Q

Treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis

A

Fluid & electrolyte replacement
Insulin therapy

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98
Q

Unlike in ketoacidosis, symptoms develop slower over several days in _______

A

Hyperglycemia

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99
Q

In hyperglycemia, the longer blood sugar levels are elevated, the:

A

More serious symptoms may become

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100
Q

Symptoms of hyperglycemia include (8):

A

1- polyurina
2- polydipsia
3- polyphagia
4- dry warm skin
5- Kussmaul’s respiration
6- Fruity breath
7- Rapid, weak pulse
8- altered level of consciousness

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101
Q

Excessive urination

A

Polyuria

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102
Q

Abnormally great thirst

A

Polydipsia

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103
Q

Excessive eating

A

Polyphagia

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104
Q

Sudden onset of low blood glucose

A

Hypoglycemia

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105
Q

Symptoms of hypoglycemia include:

A

1- lethargy
2- changes in mood
3- nausea
4- tachycardia
5- hypertension
6- anxiety
7- sweating
8- pale, moist skin
9- weakness
10-dizziness
11- shallow respiration
12- headache
13- altered level of consciousness

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106
Q

Blood glucose level of hypoglycemia:

A

Less than 50mg/100ml

107
Q

Regarding hypoglycemia management:

An appointment should be scheduled:

A

After a meal or snack

108
Q

Regarding hypoglycemia management:

Many patients with diabetes are recommended to eat a meal or snack every:

A

4-5 hours

109
Q

Common symptoms of an alert level of hypoglycemia:

A

Shakiness
Irritability
Confusion
Hunger

110
Q

Symptoms of severe hypoglycemia:

A

Loss of consciousness
Seizures
Coma

111
Q

To manage hypoglycemia in the office:

Position the patient:

A

Comfortably- ABC

112
Q

To manage hypoglycemia in the office:

If necessary, the patient might require:

A

Administration of 100% oxygen

113
Q

To manage hypoglycemia in the office:

If the patient is conscious:

A

Oral carbohydrates

114
Q

To manage hypoglycemia in the office:

If the patient is unconscious what glucose options may be given:

A

Cake icing
50% dextrose IV
Glucagon 1mg
Epinephrine 1/1000 (0.5 Mg IM)

115
Q

Self-test performed with a blood glucose meter, revealing what the blood sugar level is at that point in time:

A

Blood sugar level

116
Q

Measures the average amount of sugar in the blood over the past 2-3 months

A

A1C

117
Q

A1C measures the blood glucose average over a period of:

A

2-3 motnhs

118
Q

What is HbA1c:

A

Hemaglobin-A1C

Monitors long term glucose control over 30-90 days

119
Q

Consider deferring elective treatment or give carbohydrates & wait 15 minutes and retest if the blood glucose level is:

A

Less than 70 mg/dL

120
Q

Defer elective treatment and refer to a physician if the blood glucose level is:

A

Greater than 200 mg/dL

121
Q

What should a blood glucose level be after fasting for 8-12 hours

A

80-130 mg/dL

122
Q

1-2 hours following a meal, the blood glucose level should be:

A

Less than 180 mg/dL

123
Q

If a patient skips a meal but takes their insulin there is a chance that what may occur:

A

Insulin-shock

124
Q

Stage of insulin shock that is most common

A

Mild stage

125
Q

Stage of insulin shocks characterized by hunger, weakness, trembling, tachycardia, pallor, sweating; paresthesia may be noted on occasion

A

Mild stage

126
Q

Stage of insulin shock that may occur before meals, during exercise, or when food has been omitted or delayed

A

Mild stage

127
Q

Stage of insulin shock that occurs when blood glucose drops substantially, the patient becomes incoherent, uncooperative & sometimes belligerent or resistant to reason or efforts at restraint

A

Moderate stage

128
Q

In the moderate stage of insulin shock, _____ & ____ are defective

A

Judgement & orientation

129
Q

Stage of insulin shock characterized by unconsciousness with or without tonic or clonic muscular movements

A

Severe stage

130
Q

In the severe stage of insulin shock, most of the reactions take place in _____ after the first two stages have gone unrecognized

A

sleep

131
Q

During the severe stage of insulin shock, what symptoms may present:

A

Sweating
Pallor
Rapid and thready pulse
Hypotension
Hypothermia

132
Q

Xerostomia

A

Dry mouth

133
Q

One of the earliest oral manifestations of diabetes

A

Xerostomia

134
Q

Bacterial, viral and fungal infections are all:

A

Oral manifestations of diabetes

135
Q

In diabetic patients, their may be an increased incidence or severity of:

A

Caries

136
Q

Burning mouth syndrome is characteristic of:

A

Diabetes

137
Q

The diabetic drug Metformin, may cause:

A

Metallic taste

138
Q

Periodontal disease is an oral complication of:

A

Diabetes

139
Q

Bidirectional-hyperglycemia affects ______ while periodontitis affect ______

A

Oral health
Glycemic control

140
Q

Increased incidence and severity of gingival inflammation may be associated with:

A

Diabetes

141
Q

Diabetes can cause a ______ abscess

A

Periodontal

142
Q

An abnormal or hypersensitive response of the immune system to a substance introduced into the body

A

Allergy

143
Q

For an allergic reaction to occur, the patient must have been previously exposed to the:

A

Antigen

144
Q

The previous exposure to the antigen in an allergic response is considered _________

The subsequent exposure to the antigen that causes the reaction is considered _____

A

Sensitizing dose

Challenge dose

145
Q

What type of allergic reaction is characterized by:

Rapid onset- less than one hour

A

Rapid/Anaphylactic

146
Q

What type of allergic reaction is characterized by:

Type I- True IgE-mediated

A

Rapid/Anaphylactic

147
Q

What type of allergic reaction is characterized by:

Reaction to antibiotics, analgesics, and narcotics

A

Both rapid/anaphylactic and delayed

148
Q

What type of allergic reaction is characterized by:

Reaction to anesthetics such as Septocaine/Articaine & Esters

A

Rapid/Anaphylactic

149
Q

What type of allergic reaction is characterized by:

Reaction to the venom of stinging insects

A

Rapid/Anaphylactic

150
Q

What type of allergic reaction is characterized by:

Onset greater than one hour

A

Delayed

151
Q

What type of allergic reaction is characterized by:

Usually, non-life threatening

A

Delayed

152
Q

What type of allergic reaction is characterized by:

Reaction to the preservatives in anesthetics

A

Delayed

153
Q

Describe what occurs in the cardiovascular system due to anaphylactic allergic reactions (7):

A

Capillary dilation
Increased capillary permeability
Blushing
Edema
Decreased venous return
Decreased BP
Decreased cardiac output

154
Q

What secretion are increased during an anaphylactic allergic response (6):

A

Increased secretions by the mucous, lacrimal, salivary, pancreatic, gastric, & intestinal glands

155
Q

Describe the respiratory effects of an anaphylactic allergic reaction:

A

Asphyxia from upper respiratory tract obstruction

156
Q

Reaction related to the humoral immune system and usually occur soon after second contact with an antigen

A

Type I hypersensitivity reaction

157
Q

In a type I hypersensitivity reaction, many people have repeated contacts with a specific drug or material:

A

Before they become allergic to it

158
Q

An acute reaction involving smooth muscle of the bronchi in which antigen-IgE antibody complexes form in the surface of mast cells which causes sudden histamine release from these cells

A

Anaphylaxis

159
Q

In anaphylaxis ____ cells release ____

A

Mast cells
Histamine

160
Q

What antigen-antibody complex is involved in anaphylaxis

A

Antigen—IgE antibody complexes

161
Q

What are the most common causes of anaphylaxis

A

Antibiotics
Chemo drugs

162
Q

The symptoms of an anaphylactic response present in what order:

A

Skin > eyes, nose, GI > respiratory > cardiovascular

163
Q

Management of a patient in anaphylaxis includes positioning the patient in a:

A

Supine position

164
Q

In addition to placing the patient in a supine position if in anaphylaxis, what other steps should be taken:

A

1- BCLS
2- Oxygen
3- Monitor vitals
4- Epinephrine
5- Benadryl

165
Q

In a delayed allergic reaction the common symptoms and signs may include (4):

A

Rash
Pruritis (itching)
Urticaria (hives)
Edema

166
Q

In a delayed allergic reaction, the more uncommon symptoms and signs include (3):

A

Hypotension
Dyspnea
Coma

167
Q

In a delayed allergic reaction, the procedure should be ____, the patient should be placed in a _____ , _____ should be given if indicated and _____ should be given every _____ hours

A

1- terminated
2- comfortable position
3- BCLS
4- Benadryl 50 mg
5- four hours

168
Q

What are the four risk factors for cardiovascular disease:

A

1- heredity
2- sec
3- race
4- age

169
Q

The hereditary component of cardiovascular disease make sup for _____ of risk

A

30%

170
Q

People with parents or siblings affected by ____ are at risk for development of the disease at a younger age

A

Coronary atherosclerotic

171
Q

______ develop heart disease ten years earlier, however _____ catch up

A

Men, women (post-menopausal)

172
Q

Race that is at a heightened risk of cardiovascular diseases (primarily due to hypertension)

A

African americans

173
Q

The majority of people who die from coronary artery disease:

A

Age 65 or older

174
Q

Extreme fatigue, constant dizziness or light-headedness, fast HR (more than 100 BPM), new irregular heart beat, chest pain or discomfort, difficulty breathing, nausea, cold sweats, and edema are all warning signs of

A

Heart disease

175
Q

Major risk factors for heart disease include (7):

A

1- smoking
2- diabetes
3- cholesterol
4- hypertension
5- obesity
6- sleep apnea
7- family history

176
Q

Minor risk factors of heart disease (3):

A

1- excessive alcohol use
2- stress
3- age

177
Q

What is the single most-modifiable risk for heart disease:

A

Smoking

178
Q

Narrowing or obstruction- typically within an aortic valve

A

Stenosis

179
Q

Stenosis can be caused by:

A

Rheumatic fever
Calcification of valve
Congenital abnormalities

180
Q

Breathing that is difficult, labored or uncomfortable- usually due to COPD or asthma

A

Dyspnea

181
Q

Difficulty breathing when lying down

A

Orthopena

182
Q

Causes of orthopena may include (4):

A

1- heart failure
2- COPD
3- Panic disorder
4- sleep apnea

183
Q

Decreased or blocked blood flow to the heart due to plaque build-up

A

Coronary artery disease (CAD)

184
Q

The leading cause of morbidity and mortality in patients with diabetes

A

Coronary artery disease

185
Q

If you have diabetes you are twice as likely to have:

A

Heart disease or stroke

186
Q

The longer you have diabetes, the more likely you are to have:

A

Heart disease

187
Q

Progressive clogging of the arteries usually medium muscular arteries or large elastic arteries

A

Atherosclerosis

188
Q

______ can lead to thrombosis, infarction, ischemic lesions of brain, heart and extremities

A

Atherosclerosis

189
Q

What are the major risk factors of atherosclerosis (2):

A

1- elevation in serum lipids
2- increased BP

190
Q

Systolic BP is commonly related to:

A

Cardiovascular disease

191
Q

Chest pain usually brief, resulting from temporary ischemia of the myocardium

A

Angina pectoris

192
Q

______ is common along with angina pectoris

A

Hyperventilation

193
Q

Least common form of angina pectoris

A

Acute MI

194
Q

The chest pain of angina pectoris is described as:

A

Aching, heavy, squeezing, tightness in the middle of the chest

195
Q

The pain associated with angina is ____ and can radiate out into:

A

Brief
Left/right arm, neck/mandible

196
Q

The pain of angina is caused by:

A

Blood supply to the cardiac muscle is insufficient for oxygen demand

197
Q

Pain that is predictable, reproducible, unchanging and consistent over time. Pain is typically precipitated by physical effort such as walking or climbing stairs but can occur with eating or stress

A

Stable angina

198
Q

In stable angina, the pain is relieved by:

A

1- cessation of the precipitating activity
2- rest
3- nitroglycerin

199
Q

Individuals that experience stable angina, typically have underlying:

A

Coronary artery disease (CAD)

200
Q

Defined as new-onset pain, increasing in frequency and/or intensity, and is predicated by less effort than before; can also occur at rest

A

Unstable angina

201
Q

Type of angina in which the pain is not readily relieved by nitroglycerin

A

Ustable

202
Q

The key feature of unstable angina is:

A

Changing character (increasing intensity, frequency or pattern)

203
Q

Sublingual tablets used to treat episodes of angina in people who have coronary heart disease

A

Nitroglycerin

204
Q

Drug that can be used just before activities that may cause episodes of angina as preventative measure:

A

Nitroglycerin

205
Q

During an MI, women display:

A

Different symptoms than men

206
Q

Common MI symptoms in women:

A

Fatigue & Dyspnea

207
Q

Common MI symptoms in men:

A

Chest pain

208
Q

Development of chest pain, sometimes manifested as crushing, squeezing or heavy feeling, that is more severe than with angina, and lasting longer than 15 minutes and not relieved by nitroglycerin

A

Myocardial infarction

209
Q

Cyanosis, pale or ashen appearance; weakness, cold sweat, nausea vomiting, air hunger and sense of impending death, and irregular pulse are all characteristic of:

A

Myocardial infarction

210
Q

The intially symptoms of a myocardial infarction may progress to:

A

Cardiac arrest

211
Q

If a patient has history of heart attack and it has been less than 8 weeks out:

A

No elective dental treatment

212
Q

If a patient has a history of a heart attack and it has been more than 8 weeks since:

A

Elective dental treatment possible- need to obtain a medical consultation

213
Q

Congestive heart failure usually occurs at:

A

Older than 65 years

214
Q

Congestive heart failure results from any structural or functional cardiac disorder that:

A

Impairs the ability of the ventricle to fill or eject with blood

215
Q

Fatigue & Weakness
Ankle swelling (edema)
Clubbing of the digits
Syncope
Angina
Breathing difficulties
Increased urination at night

Are all characteristic of:

A

Congestive heart failure (CHF)

216
Q

The respiratory symptoms of congestive heart failure include:

A

Dyspnea, orthopnea, sleep apnea

217
Q

As a dentist, what should you ask your patient if aware if their CHF status:

A

How many pillows do you sleep with at night

218
Q

A general term for pulmonary disorders characterized by chronic air flow limitation from the lungs that is not fully reversible

A

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

219
Q

Chronic bronchitis and emphysema are both examples of:

A

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

220
Q

Chronic inflammation of the bronchi that produces excessive tracheobronchial mucus production and a persistent cough with sputum for at least three months and in at least two consecutive years in a patient whom other cause of productive chronic cough can be excluded

A

Chronic bronchitis

221
Q

Permanent enlargement of the air spaces in the lungs that is accompanied by destruction of the air space (alveolar) walls without obvious fibrosis

A

Emphysema

222
Q

When would the use of oxygen be indicated and at what dose:

A

Almost any emergency

100% inhalation

223
Q

When would the use of epinephrine be indicated and at what dose

A

Anaphylaxis
Asthma unresponsive to Albuterol/Salbutamol

1:1000 (1mg/ml) auto-injector
0.3 mg/ml EpiPen
0.15 mg/ml EpiPen Jr

224
Q

When would th ease of nitroglycerin be indicated and at what dose:

A

Angina pain

0.4 mg sublingual every 3-5 minutes

225
Q

When would the use of Diphenhydramine be indicated and at what dose:

A

Allergic reactions

1mg/kg IM/IV (Maximum of 50 mg)

226
Q

When would the use of albuterol/salbutamol be indicated and at what dose:

A

Asthmatic bronchospasm

2 puffs (repeat as needed)

227
Q

When the use of Aspirin be indicated and at what dose:

A

Myocardial infarction

81mg chewable tablet

228
Q

When would the use of glucose be indicated and at what dose:

A

Hypoglycemia (patient unconscious)

37.5 mg (repeat as needed)

229
Q

When would the use of Atropine web indicated and at what dose

A

Clinically significant bradycardia

0.5 mg IV or IM

230
Q

When would the use of hydrocortisone be indicated and at what dose

A

Adrenal insufficiency recurrent anaphylaxis

100 mg IV or IM (mixed with 3-5 ml of sterile water)

231
Q

When would the use of morphine or nitrous oxide be indicated and at what dose

A

Angina pain unresponsive to nitroglycerin; Titration 2 mg IV, 5 mg IM

Around 35% N2O inhalation

232
Q

When would the use of Naloxone be indicated and at what dose

A

Reversal of Opioid overdose

0.1 mg/kg up to 2mg IV or IM

233
Q

When would the use of Lorazepam or Midazolam be indicated and at what dose

A

Status epilepticus

4 mg IM or IV
5 mg IM or IV

234
Q

When would the use of Flumazenil be indicated and at what dose

A

Benzodiazepine overdose

0.01 mg/kg at 1 minute intervals up to 1 mg IV or IM

235
Q

Identify the risk factors for rheumatic fever (3):

A

1- usually some form of strep throat as a child (5-15 years old)
2- autoimmune condition
3- Group A, B-hemolytic strep

236
Q

Rheumatic fever can affect many _____ tissues

A

Connective

237
Q

Rheumatic fever affecting the heart valves

A

Rheumatic heart disease

238
Q

What can occur in the joints of patients with rheumatic fever

A

Inflammation

239
Q

In rheumatic fever, uncontrolled movements of the brain can present- these are called

A

Chorea

240
Q

Broad pink patches of skin are present in patients with:

A

Rheumatic fever

241
Q

A disease dealing with primary adrenal insufficiency

A

Addison’s disease

242
Q

Disease caused by the progressive destruction of the adrenal cortex

A

Addison’s disease

243
Q

Addison’s disease- the progressive destruction of the adrenal cortex is usually due to:

A

Autoimmune disease
Chronic infections diseases

244
Q

TB, HIV, Cytomegalovirus infections, and fungal infections are all chronic infectious diseases that can lead to:

A

Addison’s disease

245
Q

The inability to increase cortisol production with stress (tired-fatigue, weak, Orthostatic hypotension, poor healing, inability to tolerate stress, increased infections)

A

Adrenal insufficiency- Addison’s disease

246
Q

Refers to a condition caused by excessive cortisol in the body, the most common cause is the use of steroid drugs

A

Cushing syndrome

247
Q

Cushing syndrome is a sign of:

A

Steroid imbalance

248
Q

Moon face, gingival lesions, easy bruising, abdominal striae are all signs of:

A

Steroid imbalance

249
Q

Weight gain, fatty tissue deposit, thinning hair, acne and decreased healing are all signs of:

A

Steroid imbalance

250
Q

Missed appointments, specific odor of breath, enlargement of the parotid glands and spider angiomas are all signs of:

A

Alcohol abuse

251
Q

Reduction in the oxygen carrying capacity of blood

A

Anemia

252
Q

Anemia is the _____ condition in the US

A

Most common blood

253
Q

Anemia is usually associated with a decreased number of:

A

Circulating RBCs

254
Q

Who does anemia affect more

A

Females

255
Q

Four types of anemia

A

1- iron
2- folate
3- hemolytic
4- sickle cell

256
Q

Pallor, fatigue, low BP, SOB and rapid heart rate are all signs of:

A

Anemia

257
Q

What are the oral signs of anemia

A

Smooth, burning red tongue, bleeding gums, deflated healing, increased infection

258
Q

Almalgam restorations are higher than the surrounding enamel is a sign of:

A

Bulimia

259
Q

Enamel erosion from acidic chemicals (lingual on anterior teeth)

A

Perimyolysis

260
Q

Test used to detect bleeding disorders or excessive common disorders; measure how quickly your blood clots

A

PT test

261
Q

Patient PT / Control PT x ISI

A

INR

262
Q

Low INR indications:

A

Patient can be at risk for a blood clot

263
Q

High INR indicated tat the patient could experience:

A

Bleeding issues

264
Q

Typically INR for a patient on blood thinners

INR in individuals that are not on blood thinner

A

2-3

1.1 or below

Patient Care I (1 decks)

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