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CT BOARDS > Patient Care > Flashcards

Patient Care Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What correct angle of insertion for placing a butterfly needle into a vein for intravenous administration of contrast agent
A

15 degrees

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2
Q
  1. A total volume of 125ml of an iodinated contrast agent is administered intravenously via automatic injector in 50 secs. The flow rate for this injection is:
A

2.5ml

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3
Q
  1. The acronym CTDI is used to describe which of the following?
    A. A specialized ct imaging technique used to measure bone mineral density
    B. A quality control test that measures the accuracy of the laser lighting systems
    C. The radiation dose to the patient during a CT scan
    D. A high speed CT scanner user for cardiac imaging
A

C

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4
Q
  1. While one is obtaining a thorough history from a patient prior to the intravenous injection of an iodinated contrast material, which of the following topics should be included?
  2. Any prior allergic reactions to contrast
  3. Presence of HIV or hepatitis infection
  4. History of asthma

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1,2, and 3

A

C

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5
Q
  1. An average range for activated PTT IS?

A. 10-12 seconds
B. 17-21 seconds
C. 25-35 seconds
D. 43-55 seconds

A

C

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following factors may affect a patients calculated glomerular filtration rate?
  2. Age
  3. Sex
  4. Race

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1,2, and 3

A

D

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following intravenous contrast agent administration methods provides the greatest overall plasma iodine concentration?

A. Drip infusion
B. Bolus technique
C. Biphasic technique
D. CT portography

A

B

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8
Q
  1. A pt in shock may exhibit which of the following symptoms?
  2. Tachycardia
  3. Rapid, shallow breathing
  4. Cyanosis
  5. 1 only
  6. 1 and 2 only
  7. 1 and 3 only
  8. 1,2, and 3
A

D

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9
Q
  1. The drug SOLU-CORTEF may be classified as which of the following ?

A. Anticholinergic
B. Bronchodilator
C. Antihistamine
D. Corticosteroid

A

D

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following technical factors has a direct effect on patient dose?

A. Matrix size
B. Algorithm
C. mAs
D. Window level

A

C

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following is a non-ionic contrast material?

A. Iodamide
B. Iothalamate
C. Iohexol
D. Diatrizoate

A

C

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12
Q

11a. Name 2 more non-ionic contrast media

A

Iopamidol and iopromide

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13
Q

11b. Match the contrast media :

  1. Omnipaque A. Iopamidol
  2. Isovue B. Iopromide
  3. Ultravist C. Iohexol
A
  1. C
  2. A
  3. B
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14
Q
  1. Which of the terms is used to describe a problem having difficulty breathing?

A. Dyslexia
B. Dyspnea
C. Dysphagia
D. Dysphasia

A

B

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following devices is used to measure the patient dose from a CT EXAMINATION?

A. Geiger counter
B. Proportional counter
C. Ionization chamber
D. Film badge

A

C

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following describes the situation in which an assumption is made that an unconscious or otherwise physically unable patient consents to medical treatment ?

A. Informed consent
B. Witnessed consent
C. Patient proxy
D. Implied consent

A

D

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17
Q
  1. Complete cardiac diastole corresponds to which portion of the cardiac cycle on an electrocardiogram ?

A. P wave
B. QRS complex
C. Alpha wave
D. T wave

A

D

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18
Q
  1. During CT arthrography, iodinated contrast media is injected directly Into the :

A. Joint space
B. Intrathecal space
C. Subarachnoid space
D. Venous bloodstream

A

A

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19
Q
  1. Which of the following is considered one of the iso-osmolar contrast media(IOCM)

A. Iodixanol
B. Iopamidol
C. Iohexol
D. Ioversol

A

A

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20
Q

17a. What is visipaque?

A

Iodixanol

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21
Q

What is optiray?

A

Ioversol

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22
Q
  1. A common site fort he IV administration of iodinated contrast media is?
A

Antecubital space

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23
Q
  1. The potentially serious decline in renal function following the iv administration of contrast material is called?

A. Anaphylaxis
B. Bronchospasm
C. Contrast-induced nephrotoxcity
D. Urticaria

A

C

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24
Q

The quantity of absorbed radiation dose based on the radio sensitivity of a particular tissue type is called ?

A. Stochastic dose
B. Kerma
C. Effective dose
D. CTDI

A

C

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25
Q
  1. Advantages of a saline flush immediately folowwing the IV administration of contrast material include:
  2. Reduction in required contrast agent dose
  3. Reduction in the incidence of contrast-induced nephrotoxcity (CIN)
  4. Reduction of streaking artifact from dense contrast agent in the vasculature

Which ones?

A

1,2,3

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26
Q
  1. Which of the following medications may be administered to dilate the coronary vasculature prior to a cardiac CT examination?

A. Sublingual nitroglycerin
B. a B-adrenergic receptor blocking agent( b-blocker)
C. Atropine
D. Albuterol

A

A

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27
Q
  1. A normal range for diastolic blood pressure in a adult is:

A. 40-60 mm Hg
B. 60-90mm Hg
C. 80-120mm Hg
D. 95-140mm Hg

A

B

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28
Q
  1. Which of the following is a parenteral route of medication administration?

A. Sublingual
B. Intramuscular
C. Transdermal
D. Oral

A

B

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29
Q
  1. Which of the following methods maybe employed to reduce the radiation dose to the pediatric patient undergoing CT?
  2. Reduce mA
  3. Limit phases of acquisition
  4. Increase pitch

Which ones are correct?

A

1,2,3

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30
Q
  1. Radiation exposure and it’s potentially harmful effects have a relationship that is termed __________.
A

Stochastic

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31
Q
  1. Which of the following types of isolation techniques protects against infection transmitted through fecal material?

A. Acid-fast bacillus isolation
B. Contact isolation
C. Enteric precautions
D. Drainage-secretion precautions

A

C

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32
Q
  1. Which of the following is considered one of the ionic radiopaque contrast media(RCM)?

A. Iohexol
B. Iothalamate meglumin
C. Iopamidol
D. Ioversol

A

B

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33
Q

28b. True or false ? Ionic contrast media are salts consisting of sodium and or meglumine

A

True

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34
Q
  1. The radiation dose index calculation that takes into account the variation in absorption across the field of view due to beam hardening is termed?

A. CTDI w
B. CTDI 100
C. CTDI vol
D. MSAD

A

A

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35
Q
  1. Direct contradictions to the administration of iodinated contrast material include?’
  2. Prior life-threatening reaction to iodinated contrast material
  3. Multiple myeloma
  4. Diabetes

Which ones are correct?

A

1

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36
Q

30a. True or false? Multiple myeloma and diabetes do require attention to the patient’s hydration level to limit Renal complications.

A

True

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37
Q
  1. Which of the following units is used express the total patient dose from a helically acquired CT examination?

A. Roentgens
B. Curies
C. R-cm( roentgen per centimeter)
D. Nagy-cm( milligrays per centimeter)

A

D

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38
Q

31a. What is DLP? And gives its definition.

A

Dose length product

Is the total patient dose over a given scan acquisition length (Z)

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39
Q

31b. How do you find DLP? What’s the equation ?

A

DLP is the product of CTDI vol and scan length .

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40
Q
  1. As related to the cardiac cycle , the term __________ refers to the relaxation of the heart muscle.
A

Diastole

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41
Q
  1. Which of the following may be considered one of the high-osmolar contrast media (HOCM)?
  2. Iothalamate meglumine
  3. Diatrizoate sodium
  4. Iohexol

Which ones are correct?

A

C

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42
Q

33a. True or false ? (HOCM) do not dissociate into charged particles (ions) in solution?

A

False , they do

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43
Q

33b. Match them with the correct names.

  1. HYPAQUE. A. Iothalamate meglumine
  2. Conray. B. Diatrizoate sodium
A
  1. B

2. A

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44
Q
  1. Which of the following technical changes would serve to decrease patient radiation dose during a CT examination?

A. Increase in the matrix size
B. Change from soft tissue to bone algorithm
C. Decrease of tube rotation from 360 to 180°
D. Decrease in DFOV

A

C

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45
Q

34a. When you decrease a scan to 180° what is it called

A

Partial scan or half scan

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46
Q
  1. Which of the following medications may be a administered to a patient who is having a severe anaphylactoid reaction to iodinated contrast material?
  2. Epinephrine
  3. Atropine
  4. Diphenhydramine

Which ones are correct?

A

1 and 3

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47
Q

35a. Epinephrine is a bronchodilator, what is the common name?

A

Adrenalin

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48
Q

35b. What’s the common name for diphenhydramine?

A

Benadryl

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49
Q

35c. What is use to combat bradycardia during a cabal reaction to contrast material?

A

Atropine

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50
Q
  1. In a effort to reduce patient radiation dose the technical factors of the applied CT protocol should be optimized on the basis of:

A. Age
B. Sex
C. Size or weight
D. Physical condition

A

C

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51
Q
  1. The escape of contrast material from a needle or blood vessel in the subcutaneous tissues is called
A

Extravasation

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52
Q
  1. Thorough explanation of the CT procedure and proper communication with the patient are vital in ensuring that:
  2. Breathing instructions to properly followed
  3. Motion artifact does not occur
  4. Patient anxiety is kept at a minimum

Which ones are correct ?

A

D

53
Q
  1. Which of the following is considered in the calculation of the MSAD for an axial (step and shoot) CT examination?

A. Bed index
B. Gantry rotation time
C. mA setting
D. Pitch

A

A

54
Q

39a. What is a MSAD?

A

Multiple scan average dose

55
Q

39b. Multiple scan average dose(MSAD) accounts for the effects of 3 things.
Name them

A
  1. Imaging spacing
  2. Bed index
  3. Radiation dose on axial scan
56
Q

39c. TRUE OR False? MSAD decreases when slice thickness is greater than image spacing and increases when slice thickness is less than the bed index.

A

False

MSAD Increases = slice thickness is greater than image spacing

MSAD decrease = slice thickness is less than bed index

57
Q
  1. Rick factors for contrast-induced nephrotoxcity (CIN) include:
  2. Pheochromocytoma
  3. Allergy to shellfish
  4. Dehydration

Which ones are correct?

A

3

58
Q

40a. True or false : Other Rick factors for contrast-induced nephrotoxcity (CIN) include degraded renal function, myeloma, cardiovascular disease, and old age?

A

True

59
Q
  1. During CT examinations the patient’s body should be shielded above and below because of ;

A. The rotational nature of the X-ray tube
B. Extremely high KVP technique
C. Lack of filtration of the CT beam
D. Reduce collimation of the CT beam

A

A

60
Q
  1. Normal range for oxygen saturation is ___________.
A

95% - 100%

61
Q

42a. Salutations levels below 95% may indicate ___________ ______________

A

Respiratory insufficiency

62
Q
  1. Which of the following laboratory measurements can be used to evaluate the renal function of the patient?
  2. BUN
  3. PTT
  4. Creatinine

Which ones are correct ?

A

1 and 3

63
Q
  1. Which of the following would be best suited for a intravenous injection of contrast material with a power injector?

A. Butterfly needle
B. Central venous line
C. 23 gauge spinal needle
D. Angio-Catheter

A

D

64
Q
  1. Prior to the intravenous injection of iodinated contrast material patients should be question regarding their:
  2. Renal function
  3. Allergic history
  4. Cardiac history

Which ones are correct?

A

1,2,3

65
Q
  1. A(n) _____________ infection is one that a patient at cars during a stay in the health care institution.
A

B

66
Q
  1. CTDI w is a weighted index that approximates radiation dose on the basis of the variations that occur across the __________.
A

FOV

67
Q

47a. CTDI w approximates radiation dose on the basis of the variations that occur across the field of view because:

  1. Beam hardening
  2. Detector configuration
  3. Pitch

Which ones are correct ?

A

A,

because beam hardening alters the penetrability of the beam and affects the absorption across the FOV.

68
Q

47b. How is CTDI w calculated ?

A

Summing 2/3 of exposure at periphery of field with 1/3 of the centrally recorded radiation dose.

2/3periphery of field + 1/3 central recorded dose

69
Q
  1. Which of the following sets of values would be considered normal levels for creatinine and BUN ?

A. 3.1 mg/dL; 1.2 mg/dL
B. 1.2 mg/dL; 14 mg/dL
C. 0.7mg/dL; 39mg/dL
D. 5.2mg/dL; 12mg/dL

A

B

70
Q

48a. What is the normal range for creatine level

A

.05- to 1.5mg/dL

71
Q

48b. What is the normal range for BUN levels :

A

7 to 25 mg/dL

72
Q
  1. The embryo or fetus is most sensitive to ionizing radiation during which portion of gestation.
A

First trimester

73
Q
  1. The choice between ionic and non-ionic contrast media should be based on:
  2. The allergic history of the patient
  3. The cost of the contrast material
  4. The age and physical condition of the patient

Which are correct?

A

1,3

74
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of a mild reaction to iodinated intravenous contrast media:

A. Dyspena
B. Shock
C. Pulmonary edema
D. Vomiting

A

D

75
Q

51a. Dyspnea after contrast , is a ____________ reaction

A

Moderate reaction

76
Q

51b. Pulmonary or shock after contrast is a ___________ reaction

A

Severe

77
Q
  1. During which of the following CT procedures is the patient required to get informed consent;

A. Non-contrast CT of the chest
B. Renal stone survey
C. 3-D reconstruction of the hip
D. Abdomen scan after IV contrast agent administration

A

D

78
Q 
53. The international normalized ratio (INR) is calculated to standardize which of the following laboratory laboratory values;
A. Prothrombin time (PT)
B. Partial thromboplastin time ( PTT)
C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
D. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
A

A

79
Q
  1. Which of the following infection control techniques as required at the site of an intravenous injection of Iodinated contrast media:

A. Contact isolation
B. Surgical asepsis
C. Medical asepsis
D. Enteric precautions

A

B

80
Q
  1. In order to uniformly exposE the entire detector array in a MDCT system, the primary beam must be expanded beyond the physical extent of the array in a process known as;
A

Overbeaming

81
Q
  1. which of the following is a common site for the intravenous injection of iodinated contrast media?
  2. Cephalon vein
  3. Ante cubical vein
  4. Basilic vein
A

1, 2, 3

82
Q 
57. An intrathecal injection prior to a CT examination of the lumbar spine places Iodinated  contrast material directly into the
A. Subarachnoid space 
B. Dura mater
C. Vertebral foramen
D. Subdural space
A

A

83
Q
  1. Automatic tube current modulation (ATCM) is employed by an MDCT system for the purpose of:

A. Z-axis interpolation
B. Improving 3-D and MPR image quality
C. Reducing patient radiation dose
D. Freezing heart motion during cardiac CT

A

C , ATCM is like AEC

84
Q
  1. The range of serum iodine concentration for adequate tissue opacification during contrast enhanced CT examination is

A. 2-8 mg/dL
B. 12-20 mg/dL
C. 30-42 mg/dL
D. 75-105vmg/dL

A

A

85
Q
  1. Components of the aseptic technique utilize for the iv administration of contrast agents include;
  2. Handwashing between patients
  3. Wearing of disposable gloves
  4. Establishment of sterile field around the site
A

1 and 2

86
Q
  1. The amount of extra energy absorbed in a quantity of air is termed?
A

Kerma

87
Q
  1. During CT examinations of the chest and abdomen, the highly radiosensitive breast tissue can be protected with minimal image artifact with the use of specialized shielding composed of:
  2. Barium
  3. Aluminum
  4. Lead
  5. Bismuth
A

D

88
Q
  1. The use of water as an oral contrast material for CT of the abdomen and/or pelvis has several potential advantages , including :
  2. Increased palatability and improved patient comfort
  3. Better demonstration of enhancing bowel wall
  4. No interference with 3D application

Which ones are correct ?

A

1,2,3

89
Q
  1. If all other technical factors remain constant, which of the following would serve to decrease patient radiation dose during a helical SSCT examination?

A. Decreased scan field of view (SFOV)
B. Decreased filtration
C. Increased pitch
D. Increased matrix size

A

C

90
Q
  1. A patient’s blood pressure is measured as 140/70 mm Hg. The number 140 represents :

A. The pressure within the arterial vessels during contraction of the heart
B. The pressure exerted on the chambers of the heart while it is relaxed
C. The pressure within the arterial vessels while the heart is relaxed
D. The pressure exerted on the chambers of the heart during a contraction

A

A

91
Q
  1. A(n) _________ contrast material may be described as one that does not dissociate into charged particles in solution.

A. Neutral
B. Non-ionic
C. Osmolar
D. Ionic

A

B

92
Q
  1. Which of the following radiation dose indices is a measure of the total radiation exposure for an entire series of CT images ?

A. CTDI 100
B. Dose length product (DLP)
C. CTDI vol
D. Multiple scan average dose (MSAD)

A

B

93
Q

67a. How do you calculated DLP?

A

CTDI vol X Total scan time = DLP

94
Q
  1. Proper immobilization during a CT procedure may involved the use of :
  2. Soft, hook-and-loop (velcro) immobilization straps
  3. Adhesive tape
  4. Good patient communication

Which ones are correct ?

A

1,3

95
Q
  1. The normal range for GFR for men is ?
A

70+_ 14mL/min/m2

96
Q
  1. Effective dose is a relative radiation dose measurement term that accounts for the :

A. Beam pitch
B. Tissue radiosensitvity
C. Detector pitch
D. Collimation

A

B

97
Q
  1. Risk factors for contrast-induced nephrotoxcity (CIN) include:
  2. Diabetes
  3. advance age
  4. Hematuria

Which ones are correct ?

A

1,2

98
Q
  1. The reduction in number of infectious organisms without a complete elimination is termed :

A. Medical asepsis
B. Sterilization
C. Surgical asepsis
D. Immunization

A

A

99
Q
  1. Which of the following is the preferred range for patient heart rate for optimal cardiac CTstudies?

A. 65-74bmp
B. 75-85bmp
C. 85-95bmp
D. >100bmp

A

A

100
Q

73a. True or false : patients with slower heart rate s exhibit longer diastolic phases, which yields higher-quality cardiac CT exams

A

True

101
Q
  1. Late effects of radiation such as genetic mutations occur with even small doses of radiation and are termed:
A

Stochastic

102
Q
  1. Which of the following types of oral contrast material could cause peritonitis if leakage from the digestive tract occurs from perforation?

A. Iopamidol (gastrografin)
B. Barium sulfate
C. Diatrizoate ( HYPAQUE)
D. Effervescent granules

A

B

103
Q
  1. Which is the following is not an advantage of an automatic power injector over the manual bolus method of intravenous contrast agent administration?

A. Uniform contrast enhancement throughout the exam
B. Consistent contrast agent administration for all patients
C. Decrease risk of contrast induced nephrotoxicity
D. Shorter injection times

A

C

104
Q
  1. Which of the following is/are severe adverse reaction(s) to iodinated intravenous contrast media?
  2. anaphylaxis
  3. Urticaria
  4. Vomiting

Which ones are correct?

A

1

105
Q
  1. Which of the following laboratory values is the most dependable measure of renal function?

A. BUN
B. Creatinine
C. PT
D. PTT

A

B

106
Q
  1. Which of the following angiocatheter sizes may be safely used for the automated power injection of iodinated contrast agents at flow rates higher than 3ml/sec?
  2. 18-gauge
  3. 20-gauge
  4. 22-gauge
A

1,2

107
Q
  1. Which of the following portion of the electrocardiogram (ECG) corresponds to the period of atrial systole?

A. P wave
B. QRS complex
C. Alpha wave
D. T wave

A

A

108
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is true regarding the relationship between multiple scan average dose (MSAD) and image spacing during axial(step-and-shoot) scanning?

A. MSAD decreases with overlapping scans
B. MSAD increases with overlapping scans
C. MSAD increases with noncontiguous scans
D. MSAD equals the product of image spacing and pitch

A

B

109
Q
  1. Which of the following terms is used to describe the intravenous injection of medication or contrast agent in one complete dose over a short time?

A. Infusion
B. Bolus
C. IV drip
D. Indus-A-port

A

B

110
Q
  1. Used in determining the biological effect of iodinated contrast media, the term _____________ refers to the number of ions formed when a substance dissociates in solution .
A

Osmolality

111
Q
  1. The dosimetry index used to approximate the radiation dose for CT sections acquired during a helical scan is called?
A

C

112
Q

84a. How do you get CTDI vol? Tell me the equation .

A

Axials from CTDI w divided by the helical pitch

113
Q

84b. True or false :

As pitch increases, the dose per section, or CTDI vol decreases

A

True

114
Q
  1. The injection rate of an automatic injector is set at 1.5 ML second. What is the injection time for a contrast agent volume of 150 mL?
A

C

115
Q
  1. Which of the following must be Included when one is obtaining informed consent for an invasive procedure
  2. Explanation of the examination techniques
  3. The possible risk and benefits of the exam
  4. Alternatives to the procedure involved

Which ones are correct ?

A

1,2,3

116
Q 
87. Which of the following techniques me be employed to reduce patient radiation dose during a cardiac CT examination?
A. Retrospective ECG gating
B. X-axis interpolation
C. Prospective ECG gating
D. Multi segment reconstruction
A

C

117
Q
  1. Which of the following may be considered a low osmolar contrast media?
  2. Iothalamate meglumine
  3. Diatrizoate sodium
  4. Iohexol

Which ones are correct?

A

3

118
Q
  1. Following the intrathecal injection of an iodinated contrast agent for a post-myelography CT study of the lumbar spine, The patient should be instructed to

A. Take a cleansing enema
B. Resume normal activity
C. Rest for 8 to 24 hours with the head slightly elevated
D. Rest for 8-24 hours in the trendelenburg position

A

C

119
Q
  1. Compared with a single slice CT (SSCT) patient radiation dose during a multidetector CT study may be higher because of :
  2. Use of a cone beam of radiation
  3. Acquisitions at thinner section widths
  4. Higher power X-ray tubes

Which ones are correct?

A

1,2

120
Q
  1. Which of the following pharmaceuticals may be administered prior to a cardiac CT procedure in a effort to improve visualization of the coronary vessels?
  2. B blocker
  3. Nitroglycerin
  4. Metformin
A

1,2

121
Q
  1. True or false : at least 3 methods of verifying a patient’s identity are required.
A

False ,at least 2

122
Q
  1. TRUE OR FALSE: When doing biopsies and drainages ,PT and PTT values are very important
A

True because of excess bleeding

123
Q
  1. What’s the average normal platelet count ?
A

150,000 to 400,000 mm3

124
Q
  1. normal ranges of body temperatures include. Match them accordingly:
  2. Oral. A. 97.2 to 100.8
  3. Rectal. B. 96.8 to 100.4
  4. Axilllary C. 95.8 to 99.4
A
  1. B
  2. A
  3. C
125
Q
  1. Normal respiratory rate for various ages are: match them accordingly
  2. Adults A. 30 or greater
  3. Youth. B. 14 to 20
  4. Children. C. 18 to 22
  5. Infants. D. 22 to 28
A
  1. B
  2. C
  3. D
  4. A
126
Q
  1. Average pulse rate for various ages. Match them accordingly:
  2. Adults. A. 60 to 100
  3. Child. B. 100 to 160
  4. Infants. C. 95 to 110
A
  1. A
  2. C
  3. B
127
Q
  1. Normal range for systolic pressure in adult is?

And diastolic?

A

90 to 140mm

60 to 90mm

128
Q
  1. Normal range for systolic pressure for children is ?

And diastolic?

A

65 to 130mm

45 to 85mm

129
Q
  1. True or false : and healthy adult is 120/80mm hg
A

True

CT BOARDS (7 decks)

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