Patient Care Flashcards
1
Q
The best means of preventing the spread of microorganisms continues to be?
A
Hand washing
2
Q
Entry of pathogenic microorganisms into a new host can be by?
A
Ingestion / Inhalation / injection
3
Q
What type of medication promotes the excretion of urine?
A
Diuretic (Lasix)
4
Q
Directions given by a person while in a healthy state concerning wishes at time of death are called?
A
Advance Directive
5
Q
What is the term used for cases of medical negligence and switches the burden of proof from the patient to the imaging professional?
It translates to the thing speaks for itself.
A
Res ipsa loquitor
6
Q
The destruction of microbes by steam under pressure or other means, includes both chemical or physical means?
A
Sterilization
7
Q
What type of medication causes constriction of the blood vessels?
A
Vasoconstrictor
8
Q
What type of medication causes dilatation of the blood vessels?
A
Vasodilator
9
Q
What is urticaria?
A
Hives
10
Q
This method of transmission occurs when droplets contaminated with pathogenic microorganisms are placed in the air from a person infected with a droplet-borne infection.
A
Droplet transmission
11
Q
What are the elements needed to transmit an infection?
A
- Infectious agent
- Reservoir or environment in which the microbe can live & multiply
- Portal to exit the reservoir
- Means of transmission
- Portal of entry into a new host
12
Q
When a susceptible person actually touches an infected person’s body surface in an area where infectious microbes are present.
A
Direct contact
13
Q
The transfer of pathogenic microbes by touching objects that have been contaminated by an infected person.
A
Indirect contact
14
Q
What is a PE?
A
Pulmonary embolism: Occlusion of a pulmonary artery by a thrombus.
15
Q
What is the term for a patient’s claim that he/she has been wronged or has suffered some injury, other than a breach of contract, for which he/she believes cause exist for an action for damages?
A
Tort
16
Q
Where is a chest tube inserted?
A
Dependent upon air or fluid to be removed, but placed in the pleural cavity.
17
Q
What is the chest tube attached to?
A
Water-sealed drainage unit
18
Q
Contact with infectious secretions that come from the eyes, nose or mouth of a host or disease carrier as the person coughs, sneezes, or talks?
A
Droplet transmission
19
Q
What is orthostatic hypotension?
A
A decrease in diastolic pressure caused by sudden movement from a recumbent to an upright position.
20
Q
Droplets can travel for how many feet?
A
3 feet
21
Q
The CDC established a two-tier system for patients with particular diagnoses. The first tier is to be used at all times when any healthcare professional is caring for a patient. What is that called?
A
Standard precautions
22
Q
What is the length of time for a surgical scrub?
A
3-5 minutes
23
Q
Which side of the patient is usually the best side to move a patient onto (strong/weak side)?
A
Strong side
24
Q
How far should one stand from a sterile table?
A
3 feet
25
What is the term for spoken defamation?
Slander
26
What is diabetic ketoacidosis?
Insufficient insulin causes liver to produce more glucose, kidneys then excrete glucose with water & electrolytes leading to dehydration and electrolyte imbalance.
27
Insect or animal carriers of disease are called?
Vectors
28
What is a pulse oximeter?
It measures the amount of oxygen saturation.
29
Which stage of an infection does the microorganism reproduce and the infection begins?
Prodromal stage
30
Infection is transmitted by what type of routes?
- Direct or indirect contact
- Droplet
- Vehicle
- Vector
- Airborne
31
The ___ route of transmission indicates that residue from evaporated droplets of diseased microorganism are suspended in air for long periods of time.
Airborne
32
- Microorganisms have been eliminated through the use of soap, water, friction and various chemical disinfectants.
- Any practice that helps reduce the number and spread of microorganisms.
- Decreases the probability of acquiring an infection.
Medical asepsis
33
What are some of the clinical manifestations for a patient experiencing a diabetic complication?
- Tachycardia
- Headache
- Blurred or double vision
- Extreme thirst
- Sweet odor to breath
34
What word means walking or the ability to walk?
Ambulatory
35
- The medically aseptic hand washing procedure should last for ___ ___.
- This is considered the minimum amount of time.
15 seconds
36
A condition in which the blood does not supply enough oxygen to the body, causing a bluish tone to the lips and fingertips is called?
Cyanosis
37
The ___ membrane thermometer is a small, hand-held device that measures the temperature of the blood vessels in the __ membrane of the ear.
Tympanic
38
What are some types of intentional torts?
- False imprisonment
- Assault/battery
- Defamation
39
- Generalized brain function disturbance and are accompanied by changes in LOC.
- A symptom of an underlying condition.
Seizure
40
This method of transmission occurs when microbes are spread on evaporated droplets that remain suspended in air or are carried on dust particles in the air and may be inhaled by persons in that room or air space?
Airborne transmission
41
Respirations of fewer than 10 breaths/min for an adult may result in ____, apprehension, restlessness and a change in LOC?
Cyanosis
42
When diseases require droplet isolation, what are the precautions that must be taken?
- Private room or a room with another person infected with same disease.
- Door may be left open.
- Mask for any procedure that requires less than 3 feet in proximity to patient.
43
What are the different types of oxygen devices used for patients?
Nasal cannula
| -Face masks (nonrebreathing, partial rebreathing, Venturi mask or an aerosol mask)
44
When diseases require contact isolation, what are the precautions that must be taken?
- Private room or room with another person infected with same disease.
- Gloves to be worn by healthcare professional before entering patient’s room and removed before leaving.
- Gown if possibility of touching patient or items in room.
- Visitors must wash hands before and after entering room.
- Equipment used in patient’s room must stay in patient’s room.
45
What is objective information?
- Concrete evidence
- Based on facts that exist
- Patient’s chart
46
When cleaning an area such as an x-ray table, where should the cleaning first begin?
In the least soiled area and then finish in the most soiled area.
47
What is the term for written defamation?
Libel
48
What is subjective information?
- Based on judgment by an individual
| - Personal opinion
49
What are the rules for the following areas?
Zone 1 or unrestricted zone
Zone 2 or semi-restricted zone
Zone 3 or restricted zone
Unrestricted – persons may enter in street clothing.
Semi-restricted – dressed in scrub attire with hair and shoes covered.
Restricted – appropriate scrub attire and mask.
50
Who makes up the surgical team?
- Surgeon
- Surgical assistant
- Anesthesiologist or nurse anesthetist
- Circulating nurse
- Scrub nurse or surgical technician
- Radiologic technologist
51
- Microorganisms and their spores have been completely destroyed by means of heat or by a chemical process.
- Complete removal of microorganisms and their spores.
- Reduces the probability of acquiring an infection to zero.
Surgical asepsis
52
A slow heart rate of less than 60 beats per minute is called?
Bradycardia
53
Contaminated objects are referred to as ____?
Fomites
54
The blood pressure reading that occurs during the relaxation of the ventricles is called?
Diastolic
55
Difficult breathing resulting from insufficient airflow to the lungs?
Dyspnea
56
What is the term for an intended threat or harm without physical contact?
Assault
57
If a patient is highly susceptible to becoming infected because of a particular treatment or condition, isolation precautions are also used to protect the patient. Those are?
- Expanded precautions
- Strict isolation
- Reverse isolation
58
A fast heart rate of more than 100 beats per minute is called?
Tachycardia
59
The human brain cannot function for longer than __ to __ ______ without an adequate oxygen supply.
4-5 minutes
60
What are the four areas of the body in which temperature is usually measured?
- Oral
- Tympanic
- Rectal
- Axillary
61
The pulse can be detected most easily in which areas of the body?
- Apical
- Radial
- Carotid
- Femoral
- Popliteal
- Temporal
- Dorsalis pedis
- Posterior tibial
- Brachial
62
How should a wheelchair be placed when the patient needs to be transferred from the wheelchair to the imaging table?
At a 45 degree angle.
63
What is the average pulse rate in an adult in a resting state?
60-90 beats/minute
64
The average oral temperature reading is __F?
98.6 degrees F
65
Why are standard precautions considered effective?
Because they are based on the assumption that every patient has the potential for having an infectious disease.
66
What is the term for the master speaks for the servant?
Respondent superior
67
What does “deep pocket approach” refer to?
The physician or healthcare facility is responsible for the negligent acts of its employees.
68
What is the average respiration rate for an adult?
15 to 20 breaths/minute
69
What are some of the uses for central venous catheters?
- Long term medication
- Frequent blood transfusion
- Total parenteral nutrition (TPN)
70
What are some of the rules for surgical asepsis?
- Gowns
- Gloves
- Sterile field
71
What is the term for physically touching another person without permission even if no injury arises?
Battery
72
The instrument used to measure blood pressure is called a ___?
Sphygmomanometer
73
When diseases require airborne isolation, what are the precautions that must be taken?
- Private room with negative air-pressure ventilation.
- N95 respirator mask for healthcare professionals
- Surgical mask for visitors
- Door closed
- Surgical mask for patient when transferred within hospital.
74
Another term for fainting is called?
Syncope
75
- A chemical capable of destroying microorganisms or inhibiting their growth.
- Same as antiseptic
Disinfectant
76
What is an NG tube?
NG tubes – stomach, duodenum or jejunum
77
What is an NE tube?
NE tubes – pass into duodenum and small intestines by means of peristalsis.
78
A patient is considered to be hypertensive if the systolic BP is consistently greater than ___ and if the diastolic BP is consistently greater than __.
140 mm Hg
| 90 mm Hg
79
What are the five (5) rights to drug administration?
- Name of Drug
- Amount/Dosage
- Patient
- Time
- Route
80
What is the difference between the nonrebreathing and partial rebreathing oxygen mask?
- A nonrebreathing mask offers a high percent of oxygen (100%) while a partial rebreathing offers between 60 to 90%.
- Partial rebreathing has no valve (breathing a mixture of oxygen and carbon dioxide).
81
Who can be sued?
Anyone
82
What are the stages of grief?
- Denial
- Anger
- Bargaining
- Depression
- Acceptance
83
What term is used for failing to follow the policies involving the use of restraints or unnecessarily confining or restraining a patient without their permission?
False imprisonment
84
When an infection is acquired within the healthcare environment, it is referred to as this type of infection?
Nosocomial
85
When a patient enters the healthcare facility with an infection, this is referred to as what type of infection?
Community acquired infection
86
What considerations should be given before moving a patient?
- Patient’s general condition
- Range of motion and weight-bearing ability
- Patient’s strength and endurance
- Patient’s ability to maintain balance
- Patient’s ability to understand what is expected during transfer
- Patient’s acceptance of the move
- Patient’s medication history
87
As the body’s temperature increases, the body’s demand for ___ increases.
Oxygen
88
An infection that is a result of a particular treatment or therapeutic procedure is termed?
Iatrogenic
89
What are the stages of infection?
- Incubation
- Prodromal
- Full disease
- Convalescent
90
What are the symptoms associated with a mild anaphylactic reaction?
- Nasal congestion, periorbital swelling, itching, sneezing and tearing of eyes.
- Tingling or itching @ injection site.
- Fullness or tightness of chest, mouth or throat.
- Feeling of anxiety or nervousness.
91
What does PPE stand for and what does it include?
- Personal protective equipment
| - Gloves, gown, mask and safety glasses
92
What type of needle is used to access an implanted port?
Huber needle
93
The blood pressure reading taken during the contraction of the ventricles is called?
Systolic
94
What type of catheter is the Hickman?
A tunnel type (inserted into the subclavian or internal jugular vein and advanced into the SVC or right atrium).
95
Where is the entry and exit locations for the PICC?
The peripherally inserted central catheter is inserted into patient’s arm and advanced until the tip lies in central vein.
96
What is the term used for information concerning a patient that has been leaked to individuals who do not need to know and the information was presented in such a way that the patient was subjected to ridicule, scorn or contempt or was injured in some way as through loss of a job or home?
Defamation
97
Which type of oxygen device is considered the most common to deliver low concentrations of oxygen?
Nasal cannula
98
What is the LPM range for nasal cannulas?
1 to 4 LPM (greater than 6 tends to dry out nasal passages).
99
When taking a BP on a patient, one may hear extraneous sounds such as tapping, knocking or swishing. These sounds are known as?
Korotkoff sounds
100
The result of an exaggerated hypersensitivity reaction is termed?
Anaphylaxis (allergic reaction)
101
Where is the correct placement for an endotracheal tube?
5 to 7 cm above the tracheal bifurcation (carina)
102
The body’s pathological reaction to illness, trauma or severe physiologic or emotional stress is known as?
-It may be caused by body fluid loss, cardiac failure, decreased blood vessel tone, or obstruction of blood flow to vital body organs.
Shock
103
What type of medical situation is encountered when the patient has an excess amount of insulin in the blood stream?
Hypoglycemia
104
What symptoms are displayed with hypoglycemia?
- intense hunger
- weakness
- shaky
- excessive sweating
- confusion or irritability
105
What type of medication prevents and treats nausea and vomiting?
Antiemetic (Compazine/Zofran)
106
What are two other terms used for CVA (cerebral vascular accident)?
Stroke or brain attack
107
What are the symptoms associated with a cerebral vascular accident?
- Paralysis on one or both sides
- Slurred or no speech
- Extreme dizziness
- Loss of vision
- Severe headache
- Temporary LOC
108
What are the two most common NG tubes used and what is the difference between these two types?
Levin – single-lumen with holes near the tip
Sump – double-lumen tube with second opening that consists of a blue extension off the proximal end of the tube (remains outside and is called a “pigtail”)
109
What are the three most commonly used NE tubes and which ones are single or double lumen?
Cantor – single lumen
Harris – single lumen
Miller-Abbott – double lumen
110
What type of medication inhibits clotting of blood (thrombus formation)? Name one IV and oral type.
Anticoagulant
IV – Heparin/Lovenox
Oral – Coumadin
111
What are NG tubes used for?
- diagnostic exams
- administration of feedings or medications
- treat intestinal obstruction
- control bleeding
112
What are NE tubes used for?
- decompression
| - diagnosis and treatment purposes
113
What type of medication acts on the CNS to produce a loss of sensation?
Name one general and local type.
Anesthetics
General – diprivan
Local – carbocaine
114
What type of tube is placed from inside the stomach to the external abdominal wall for the purpose of feeding patients who cannot tolerate the oral intake of food?
Gastrostomy tube
115
The term used for profuse sweating, heavy perspiration is known as?
Diaphoresis
116
What four elements are needed to consider the radiographer was negligent?
- Duty to the patient by the technologist
- Breach of that duty
- Compensable injury
- Relationship between injury and duty
117
What type of medication relieves pain without causing a loss of consciousness?
Analgesics – reduce pain, fever and inflammation in tissues
118
What is a type of nonnarcotic analgesic?
Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
119
What is a type of narcotic analgesic?
(Intense pain) – morphine, Demerol
| (Less severe pain) – codeine, Percocet, oxycodone
120
Another type of central venous catheter is called an __ ___.
This type of catheter is used for patients who have long-term illnesses that require frequent intravenous medications or transfusions.
Implanted port
121
What type of medication is used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus?
Oral hypoglycemic drug (Glucophage – metformin)
122
What is the term used for failure to use such care as a reasonable prudent person (healthcare worker) would use under like or similar circumstances?
Negligence
123
What symptoms might be displayed by the patient if experiencing a possible fainting episode?
- Dizziness
- sweating
- feeling warm or flushed
124
What type of medication is used to dissolve clots?
Thrombolytic
125
Speechless communication consists of?
- Support or encouragement
- Emphasis
- Palpate
126
The catheter from the implanted port is inserted into what vein?
Subclavian or internal jugular vein
127
What is the normal systolic/diastolic pressure for an adult?
Systolic - less than 120 mm Hg
| Diastolic - less than 80 mm Hg
128
What can happen if an endotracheal tube is positioned too high within the trachea?
May cause air to enter the stomach and cause regurgitation with the possibility of aspiration pneumonia developing.
129
What length of time is a mask good for?
15 minutes
130
What are some conditions that may indicate a patient may need a chest tube?
- Pneumothorax
- Hemothorax
- Pleural effusion
131
What is the base of support?
The foundation on which the body rests.
132
What type of stance should be used?
Wide/Narrow/Boxer’s stance
133
What is the Patient Self-Determination Act (1990)?
Establishes guidelines concerning patients’ wishes when confronted with serious illness.
Patient’s desire if an illness cannot be cured or if the illness renders life without quality.
134
What are the three most common postoperative tissue drains?
- Penrose
- Jackson-Pratt
- Hemovac
135
What is the most frequently used method for sterilization?
Moist heat - autoclave
136
What is an autoclave?
Steam under pressure
137
What drugs may be found on an emergency drug cart?
| What are their purpose?
- Dopamine
- Epinephrine
Constricts blood vessels and stimulates the heart.
Used in cardiovascular, respiratory and allergic reactions.
138
What is the name of a urinary catheter?
What concerns are there concerning the drainage bag?
Foley – double lumen tube with a small inflatable balloon
Transporting patient with bag
139
What type of medication treats allergic disorders (acute & chronic)?
Antihistamines
- Benadryl (sedating)
- Claritin (nonsedating)
140
If an endotracheal tube is inserted too far, what can happen?
It can enter the right bronchus (due to anatomical position) and cause the left lung to collapse (atelectasis).
141
What does nitroglycerin do for the patient?
- Relaxes the smooth muscle of both arteries and veins, short or long acting.
- Used to treat sudden onset of angina pain
- Long-acting patch to prevent or minimize angina
142
What is it called when body temperature is elevated above normal limits?
Fever or pyrexia
143
If a microorganism is known to produce a disease, it is called ____ ____ or a _____.
- Pathogenic microorganism
| - Pathogen
144
NE are ____ and more ___ than NG tubes.
Are NE tubes used with suction?
- thinner
- flexible
NE tubes are not used for suction
145
What are the signs that a patient may need to be suctioned?
- Profuse vomiting in a patient who cannot voluntarily change positions.
- Audible rattling or gurgling sounds coming from throat.
- Signs of respiratory distress
146
What questions should be asked of your patient?
- Localization
- Onset
- Chronology
- Quality
- Aggravating/alleviating factors
- Associated manifestations
147
What is paralanguage?
Tone of voice, gestures, and facial expressions that accompany speech.
-Has to do with the sound of speech rather than the content.
148
What are Maslow's hierarchy of needs (basic)?
- Physiologic needs
- Safety and security
- Belongingness and affection
- Esteem and self-respect
- Self-actualization
149
What are the modes of thinking?
- Recall
- Habit
- Inquiry
- Creativity
150
Critical thinking requires what?
Ability to:
- interpret
- Evaluate
- Infer
- Explain
- Reflect
151
Problem solving requires?
- Data collection
- Data analysis
- Planning
- Implementation
- Evaluation
152
What is included in a complete history?
- Localization of problem
- Chronology
- Quality
- Onset
- Aggravating or alleviating factors
- Associated manifestations
153
What are the different learning styles?
- Global vs Linear (big picture vs each component)
- Visual
- Auditory
- Kinesthetic
154
What does "full code" mean?
- Full resuscitation
| - AKA "Code Blue"
155
What does DNR mean?
Do Not Resuscitate
156
What does "no code" mean?
Same as DNR, patient is allowed to expire without emergency assistance.
157
What are considered physiologic needs?
Needs that allow our bodies to function, i.e., food, water and air.
158
What is rapport?
A sense of harmony or agreement
159
Barriers to effective communication?
- Rapid speech
- Complex terms
- Distracting environment
- Language
- Incomplete answers
- Subjective interpretation
- Disagreement
160
What does DNI mean?
Do Not Intubate
161
Who is the pediatric patient?
Infancy to 15 years
- Neonates
- Infants
- Toddlers
- Preschoolers
- School age
162
What do you need to know about infants (Birth to 1 year)?
-Use a steady, soothing voice
-Avoid loud stimuli
-Separation anxiety around 8 months
-Develop memories, ideas, and feelings
White coat syndrome
163
What do you need to know about toddlers (1-3 years)?
- Cannot understand more than 1 word for something
- Concerned with what is happening at that moment
- Separation from parents
- Don't like to be immobilized
- White coat syndrome
164
What do you need to know about preschoolers (3-5 years)?
-Not able to reason logically
-Do not understand cause and effect
-"Why?"
Must see, hear or touch to understand
-Must be actively involved with procedure
-Short attention span
165
What do you need to know about school age children (5-10 years)?
- Think logically and analyze situation (7 years)
- Develop fears
- Eager to please others
- Want to perform task correctly
- Modest and embarrass easily
166
What do you need to know about adolescents?
- Often expected to act like an adult
- Image is everything
- Need clear expectations
- Distracting conversation
- Respect privacy and right to make choices
- Pregnancy question (at age 12)
167
What is the approach for pediatric patients?
- Greet with a smile and introduce yourself
- Build rapport
- Provide explanation
- Face to face explanation
- Use a soft tone of voice
- One person to direct child
- Offer praise to child
- Make a suggestion rather than asking yes/no questions
- Give options
- Employ distraction techniques
- Answer questions honestly
168
What is the greatest danger to a premature infant?
Hypothermia
169
What are the different types of immobilization for pediatric patients?
- Sheet
- Pigg-o-stat
- Tam-em board, infantainer, baby board
- Sandbags
- Stockinette and ace bandages
- Compression band, head clamp
170
What is geriatrics?
Branch of medicine that deals with all aspects of aging, including pathological and social problems.
171
Chronic conditions associated with people older than 65 years?
- Arthritis
- Hypertension
- Hearing impairment
- Heart disease
- Cataracts
- Deformity or orthopedic impairment
- Chronic sinusitis
- Diabetes
- Visual impairment
- Varicose veins
172
Heart disease, cancer and strokes are the cause of ____ of deaths in persons over the age of 65.
80%
173
What are the most common health complaints of the elderly?
- Weight gain
- Fatigue
- Loss of bone mass
- Joint stiffness
- Loneliness
174
__________ is the most frequent lung infection and a leading cause of death in the elderly.
Pneumonia
175
Concerns with the integumentary system of the elderly?
- Skin wrinkles
- Skin becomes thin and fragile
- Skin looks pale
- Hair becomes thin and brittle
176
Concerns with the head and neck areas of the elderly?
- Loss of ability to focus on nearby objects
- Hearing loss is common
- Kyphosis
- Sense of taste and smell decreases
- adaptation from light to dark areas diminishes
177
Concerns with the cardiovascular system of the elderly?
- Most common cause of death worldwide
- Heart rate during exercise decreases with age
- Increase systolic BP
- Decline in coronary blood flow
178
Concerns with the pulmonary system of the elderly?
- Lung capacity diminishes
- Cough reflex is less effective
- Normal respiratory defense mechanism is reduced
179
Concerns with the GI system of the elderly?
- Esophageal and gastric motility declines
- Dentures need to be removed
- Loss of sphincter control
180
Concerns with the musculoskeletal system of the elderly?
- Bone mass is reduced resulting in weaker bones
- Muscle strength is decreased
- Difficulty maintaining positions for procedures
181
Concerns with the urinary system of the elderly?
- Changes in bladder capacity
- Enlarged prostate
- Prostate cancer is the 3rd most common cause of cancer death in men
182
Concerns with the neurological system of the elderly?
- Process info and directions more slowly
| - Visual problems
183
What is pathogenicity?
Ability to cause disease
184
What is a parasite?
Organisms that live on or in other organisms at the expense of the host organ.
185
What is a virus?
Smallest microorganism to produce disease, dependent on host cell.
186
What is the definition of disinfection?
The removal of pathogenic microorganisms from objects or body surfaces.
187
What are the two tiers of Standard Precautions?
Tier 1: Standard Precautions
| Tier 2: Transmission Based Precautions
188
When standing, the center of gravity is at the center of the _________.
Pelvis
189
_____ rather than ______ a heavy object or person.
Pull, Push
190
Types of immobilizers for adults
- Limb holders or four-point restraints
- Ankle or wrist immobilizers
- Immobilizing vest
- Waist immobilizers
191
T/F, the edges of a draped sterile table are sterile.
False, the sterile field ends at the level of the tabletop or at the waist of the sterile person's gown.
192
T/F, the waist to the shoulders in front and the sleeves from 2" above the elbow are sterile on a gown.
True
193
Most accurate body temperature is taken where?
Rectal
194
Another name for vital signs is?
Cardinal signs
195
What is Cheyne-Stokes respiration?
Difficulty breathing (dyspnea) followed by inability to breathe (apnea).
196
The rate of respiration to heartbeat is ___:___.
1:4
197
What is hypoxemia?
Decreased oxygen concentration in the blood
198
What is hypoxia?
Reduction of oxygen supply to tissue
199
What is hypercapnia?
Carbon dioxide is retained in the arterial blood
200
What is an emergency?
Any situation in which the condition of a patient or a sudden change in medical status necessitates immediate attention or action.
201
What does the Glasgow Coma scale assess?
- Eyes open
- Motor response
- Verbal response
202
What is the definition of shock?
A failure of the circulatory system to support vital body functions.
203
What are the different classes of shock?
- Neurogenic: caused by damage to spinal cord
- Hypovolemic: caused by loss of blood or tissue fluid
- Cardiogenic: caused by cardiac disorders
- Vasogenic: caused by sepsis, anaphylaxis or deep anesthesia
204
What is hypoglycemia?
Excessive insulin is present (low blood sugar)
205
What is hyperglycemia?
Excessive sugar in blood
206
What is the difference between a generalized seizure and a focal or partial seizure?
Generalized affects both sides of the brain, while a focal or partial affects only one side of the brain.
207
What is vertigo?
Dizziness
208
Other names for central venous lines?
Hickman or Groshong
209
Pulmonary arterial (PA) catheters are also called?
Swan-Ganz catheters
210
After a drug has been administered it is called a _____________.
Medication
211
How are drug names classified?
- Chemical name: identifies actual chemical structure of drug
- Generic name: given to drug before its official approval for use
- Brand name: given to drug manufactured by a specific company
212
Different types of drug forms are?
- Tablet
- Capsule
- Inhalant
- Suppository
- Solution
- Suspension
- Transdermal patches
213
What are the different routes of drugs?
- Oral
- Sublingual
- Topical
- Parenteral
214
What is osmolality?
Weight of the ion
215
T/F, Nonionic contrast have a higher osmolality.
False, nonionic contrast has an osmolality closer to human plasma.
216
Parts of a syringe include?
- Needle
- Barrel
- Plunger
217
Difference between an ampule and a vial?
Ampule is single dose while a vial is multiple doses within one.
